435 terms


1) During a field trip, an instructor touched a moth resting on a tree trunk. The moth raised its forewings to reveal large eyespots on its hind wings. The instructor asked why the moth lifted its wings. One student answered that sensory receptors had fired and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in the contraction of certain muscles. A second student responded that the behavior might frighten predators. Which statement best describes these explanations?

A) The first explanation is correct, but the second is incorrect.
B) The first explanation refers to proximate causation, whereas the second refers to ultimate causation.
C) The first explanation is biological, whereas the second is philosophical.
D) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, whereas the second is not.
E) Both explanations are reasonable and simply represent a difference of opinion.
2) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following is a proximate cause of this behavior of increased urination?

A) It announces to the males that she is in heat.
B) Female cats that did this in the past attracted more males.
C) It is a result of hormonal changes associated with her reproductive cycle.
D) The female cat learned the behavior from observing other cats.
E) All of the above are ultimate causes of behavior.
3) A female cat in heat urinates more often and in many places. Male cats congregate near the urine deposits and fight with each other. Which of the following would be an ultimate cause of the male cats' response to the female's urinating behavior?

A) The males have learned to recognize the specific odor of the urine of a female in heat.
B) When the males smelled the odor, various neurons in their brains were stimulated.
C) Male cats respond to the odor because it is a means of locating females in heat.
D) Male cats' hormones are triggered by the odor released by the female.
E) The odor serves as a releaser for the instinctive behavior of the males.
4) Which of the following is a behavioral pattern that results from a proximate cause?

A) A cat kills a mouse to obtain food.
B) A male sheep fights with another male because it helps it to improve its social position and find a mate.
C) A female bird lays its eggs because the amount of daylight is decreasing slightly each day.
D) A goose squats and freezes motionless because that behavior helps it to escape a predator.
E) A cockroach runs into a crack in the wall and avoids being stepped on
5) Which of the following is a behavioral pattern resulting from an ultimate cause?

A) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it resembles the breast of another male.
B) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because hormonal changes in spring increase its aggression.
C) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because a part of its brain is stimulated by red objects.
D) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because several times in the past red tennis balls have been thrown at it, and it has learned that they are dangerous.
E) A male robin attacks a red tennis ball because it confuses it with an encroaching male who will steal his territory.
6) The proximate causes of behavior are interactions with the environment, but behavior is ultimately shaped by

A) hormones.
B) evolution.
C) sexuality.
D) pheromones.
E) the nervous system.
7) Which of the following groups of scientists is closely associated with ethology?

A) Watson, Crick, and Franklin
B) McClintock, Goodall, and Lyon
C) Fossey, Hershey, and Chase
D) von Frisch, Lorenz, and Tinbergen
E) Hardy, Weinberg, and Castle
8) In the territorial behavior of the stickleback fish, the red belly of one male elicits attack from another male by functioning as

A) a pheromone.
B) a sign stimulus.
C) a fixed action pattern.
D) a search image.
E) an imprint stimulus.
9) Which of the following statements is (are) true of fixed action patterns?

A) They are highly stereotyped, instinctive behaviors.
B) They are triggered by sign stimuli in the environment and, once begun, are continued to completion.
C) An inappropriate stimulus can sometimes trigger them.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
10) Animal communication involves what type of sensory information?

A) visual
B) auditory
C) chemical
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
11) What type of signal is long-lasting and works at night?

A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical
12) What type of signal is brief and can work at night or among obstructions?
A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical
13) What type of signal is fast and requires daylight with no obstructions?

A) olfactory
B) visual
C) auditory
D) tactile
E) electrical
14) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called

A) a marker.
B) an inducer.
C) a pheromone.
D) an imprinter.
E) an agonistic chemical.
15) Which scientist formulated four questions that motivate the modern study of animal behavior?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton
16) Which scientist determined that digger wasps used landmarks to locate nest entrances?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov
17) Which scientist studied imprinting of greylag geese?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov
18) A cage containing male mosquitoes has a small earphone placed on top, through which the sound of a female mosquito is played. All the males immediately fly to the earphone and thrust their abdomens through the fabric of the cage. What is the best explanation for this behavior?

A) The males learn to associate the sound with females.
B) Copulation is a fixed action pattern, and the female flight sound is a sign stimulus that initiates it.
C) The sound from the earphone irritates the male mosquitoes, causing them to attempt to sting it.
D) The reproductive drive is so strong that when males are deprived of females, they will attempt to mate with anything that has even the slightest female characteristic.
E) Through classical conditioning, the male mosquitoes have associated the inappropriate stimulus from the earphone with the normal response of copulation.
19) If mayflies lay eggs on roads instead of in water, this behavior could involve which of the following?

A) a defective gene
B) trial-and-error learning
C) misdirected response to a sign stimulus
D) natural behavioral variation in the mayfly population
E) insecticide poisoning
20) The time during imprinting when specific behaviors can be learned is called the

A) window of imprinting.
B) major period.
C) sensitive period.
D) timing imprint.
E) significant window.
21) Which of the following is true about imprinting?

A) It may be triggered by visual or chemical stimuli.
B) It happens to many adult animals, but not to their young.
C) It is a type of learning that does not involve innate behavior.
D) It occurs only in birds.
E) It causes behaviors that last for only a short time (the sensitive period).
22) A type of learning that can occur only during a brief period of early life and results in a behavior that is difficult to modify through later experiences is called

A) insight.
B) imprinting.
C) habituation.
D) operant conditioning.
E) trial-and-error learning.
23) Sow bugs become more active in dry areas and less active in humid areas. This is an example of

A) taxis.
B) tropism.
C) kinesis.
D) cognition.
E) net reflex.
24) You turn on a light and observe cockroaches scurrying to dark hiding places. What have you observed?

A) taxis
B) learned behavior
C) migration
D) visual communication
E) operant conditioning
25) Loss of responsiveness to stimuli that convey little or no new information is called

A) adapting.
B) spacing.
C) conditioning.
D) imprinting.
E) habituation.
26) Which of the following could be classified as habituation?

A) You enter a room and hear a fan motor. After a period of time, you are no longer aware of the motor's noise.
B) You hear a horn while driving your car. You step on the brakes but notice the sound came from a side street. You resume your previous speed.
C) One morning you awake to a beep-beep-beep from a garbage truck working on a new early morning schedule. The next week the garbage truck arrives at the same time and makes the same noise, but does not wake you up.
D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
27) Learning in which an associated stimulus may be used to elicit the same behavioral response as the original sign stimulus is called

A) concept formation.
B) trial-and-error.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) habituation.
28) Every morning at the same time, John went into the den to feed his new tropical fish. After a few weeks, he noticed that the fish swam to the top of the tank when he entered the room. This is an example of

A) habituation.
B) imprinting.
C) classical conditioning.
D) operant conditioning.
E) maturation.
29) The type of learning that causes specially trained dogs to salivate when they hear bells is called

A) insight.
B) imprinting.
C) habituation.
D) classical conditioning.
E) trial-and-error learning.
30) Which of the following statements about learning and behavior is incorrect?

A) Operant conditioning involves associating a behavior with a reward or punishment.
B) Associative learning involves linking one stimulus with another.
C) Classical conditioning involves trial-and-error learning.
D) Behavior can be modified by learning, but some apparent learning is due to maturation.
E) Imprinting is a learned behavior with an innate component acquired during a sensitive period.
31) A type of bird similar to a chickadee learns to peck through the cardboard tops of milk bottles left on doorsteps and drink the cream from the top. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
32) Male insects attempt to mate with orchids but eventually stop responding to them. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
33) A salmon returns to its home stream to spawn. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
34) A stickleback fish will attack a fish model as long as the model has red coloring. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
35) Parental protective behavior in turkeys is triggered by the cheeping sound of young chicks. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
36) A guinea pig loves the lettuce kept in the refrigerator and squeals each time the refrigerator door opens. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
37) Sparrows are receptive to learning songs only during a sensitive period. What term best applies to this behavior?

A) sign stimulus
B) habituation
C) imprinting
D) classical conditioning
E) operant conditioning
38) Classical conditioning and operant conditioning differ in that

A) classical conditioning takes longer.
B) operant conditioning usually involves more intelligence.
C) operant conditioning involves consequences for the animal's behavior.
D) classical conditioning is restricted to mammals and birds.
E) classical conditioning is much more useful for training domestic animals.
39) Some dogs love attention, and Frodo the beagle learns that if he barks, he gets attention. Which of the following might you use to describe this behavior?

A) The dog is displaying an instinctive fixed action pattern.
B) The dog is performing a social behavior.
C) The dog is trying to protect its territory.
D) The dog has been classically conditioned.
E) The dog's behavior is a result of operant conditioning.
40) Among song birds, a -crystallized- song is one that

A) is high pitched.
B) is aimed at attracting mates.
C) extremely young chicks sing.
D) is the final song that some species produce.
E) warns of predators.
41) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) fixed action pattern
B) imprinting
C) operant conditioning
D) classical conditioning
E) habituation
42) Imagine that you are designing an experiment aimed at determining whether the initiation of migratory behavior is largely under genetic control. Of the following options, the best way to proceed is to

A) observe genetically distinct populations in the field and see if they have different migratory habits.
B) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Do this in the laboratory and see if offspring display parental migratory behavior.
C) bring animals into the laboratory and determine the conditions under which they become restless and attempt to migrate.
D) perform within-population matings with birds from different populations that have different migratory habits. Rear the offspring in the absence of their parents and observe the migratory behavior of offspring.
E) All of the above are equally productive ways to approach the question.
43) One way to understand how early environment influences differing behaviors in similar species is through the -cross-fostering- experimental technique. Suppose that the curly- whiskered mud rat differs from the bald mud rat in several ways, including being much more aggressive. How would you set up a cross-fostering experiment to determine if environment plays a role in the curly-whiskered mud rat's aggression?

A) You would cross curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats and hand-rear the offspring.
B) You would place newborn curly-whiskered mud rats with bald mud rat parents, place newborn bald mud rats with curly-whiskered mud rat parents, and let some mud rats of both species be raised by their own species. Then compare the outcomes.
C) You would remove the offspring of curly-whiskered mud rats and bald mud rats from their parents and raise them in the same environment.
D) You would see if curly-whiskered mud rats bred true for aggression.
E) None of these schemes describes cross-fostering.
44) What probably explains why coastal and inland garter snakes react differently to banana slug prey?

A) Ancestors of coastal snakes that could eat the abundant banana slugs had increased fitness. No such selection occurred inland, where banana slugs were absent.
B) Banana slugs are difficult to see, and inland snakes, which have poor vision compared with coastal snakes, are less able to see them.
C) Garter snakes learn about prey from other garter snakes. Inland garter snakes have fewer types of prey because they are less social.
D) Inland slugs are distasteful, so inland snakes learn to avoid them. Coastal banana slugs are not distasteful.
E) Garter snakes are conditioned to eat what their mother eats. Coastal snake mothers happened to prefer slugs.
45) Which statement below about mating behavior is incorrect?

A) Some aspects of courtship behavior may have evolved from agonistic interactions.
B) Courtship interactions ensure that the participating individuals are nonthreatening and of the proper species, sex, and physiological condition for mating.
C) The degree to which evolution affects mating relationships depends on the degree of prenatal and postnatal input the parents are required to make.
D) The mating relationship in most mammals is monogamous, to ensure the reproductive success of the pair.
E) Polygamous relationships most often involve a single male and many females, but in some species this is reversed.
46) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) agonistic behavior
B) cognitive maps
C) dominance hierarchy
D) ritual
E) territory
47) Which of the following statements about evolution of behavior is correct?

A) Natural selection will favor behavior that enhances survival and reproduction.
B) An animal may show behavior that maximizes reproductive fitness.
C) If a behavior is less than optimal, it is not completely evolved but will eventually become optimal.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
48) Animals tend to maximize their energy intake-to-expenditure ratio. What is this behavior called?

A) agonistic behavior
B) optimal foraging
C) dominance hierarchies
D) animal cognition
E) territoriality
49) Feeding behavior with a high energy intake-to-expenditure ratio is called

A) herbivory.
B) autotrophy.
C) heterotrophy.
D) search scavenging.
E) optimal foraging.
50) Modern behavioral concepts relate the cost of a behavior to its benefit. Under which relationship might a behavior be performed?

A) cost is greater than the benefit
B) cost is less than the benefit
C) cost is equal to the benefit
D) A and C only
E) B and C only
51) Optimal foraging involves all of the following except

A) maximizing energy gained by the forager.
B) minimizing energy expended by the forager.
C) securing essential nutrients for the forager.
D) minimizing the risk of predation on the forager.
E) maximizing the population size of the forager.
52) In the evolution of whelk-eating behavior in crows, which of the following did natural selection minimize?

A) the average number of drops required to break the shell
B) the average height a bird flew to drop a shell
C) the average total energy used to break shells
D) the average size of the shells dropped by the birds
E) the average thickness of the shells dropped by the birds
53) Which of the following might affect the foraging behavior of an animal in the context of optimal foraging?

A) risk of predation
B) prey size
C) prey defenses
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C
54) You discover a rare new bird species, but you are unable to observe its mating behavior. You see that the male is large and ornamental compared with the female. On this basis, you can probably conclude that the species is

A) polygamous.
B) monogamous.
C) polyandrous.
D) promiscuous.
E) agonistic.
55) The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by

A) population size.
B) care required by young.
C) certainty of paternity.
D) B and C only
E) A, B , and C
56) Fred and Joe, two unrelated, mature male gorillas, encounter one another. Fred is courting a female. Fred grunts as Joe comes near. As Joe continues to advance, Fred begins drumming (pounding his chest) and bares his teeth. Joe then rolls on the ground on his back, gets up, and quickly leaves. This behavioral pattern is repeated several times during the mating season. Choose the most specific behavior described by this example.

A) agonistic behavior
B) territorial behavior
C) learned behavior
D) social behavior
E) fixed action pattern
57) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) fixed action pattern
B) pheromones
C) sign stimulus
D) hormones
E) optimal foraging
58) Which one of these concepts is not associated with sociobiology?

A) parental investment
B) inclusive fitness
C) associative learning
D) reciprocal altruism
E) kin selection
59) Which of the following is least related to the others?

A) altruism
B) polygamy
C) monogamy
D) polygyny
E) polyandry
60) Which of the following does not have a coefficient of relatedness of 0.5?

A) a father to his daughter
B) a mother to her son
C) an uncle to his nephew
D) a brother to his brother
E) a sister to her brother
61) Which scientist devised a rule that predicts when natural selection should favor altruism?

A) Karl von Frisch
B) Niko Tinbergen
C) Konrad Lorenz
D) William Hamilton
E) Ivan Pavlov
62) Animals that help other animals of the same species are expected to

A) have excess energy reserves.
B) be bigger and stronger than the other animals.
C) be genetically related to the other animals.
D) be male.
E) have defective genes controlling their behavior.
63) The presence of altruistic behavior is most likely due to kin selection, a theory maintaining

A) aggression between sexes promotes the survival of the fittest individuals.
B) genes enhance survival of copies of themselves by directing organisms to assist others who share those genes.
C) companionship is advantageous to animals because in the future they can help each other.
D) critical thinking abilities are normal traits for animals and they have arisen, like other traits, through natural selection.
E) natural selection has generally favored the evolution of exaggerated aggressive and submissive behaviors to resolve conflict without grave harm to participants.
64) In Belding's ground squirrels, it is mostly the females that behave altruistically by sounding alarm calls. What is the likely reason for this distinction?

A) Males have smaller vocal cords and are less likely to make sounds.
B) Females invest more in foraging and food stores, so they are more defensive.
C) Females settle in the area in which they were born, so the calling females are warning kin.
D) The sex ratio is biased.
E) Males forage alone; therefore, alarm calls are useless.
65) The central concept of sociobiology is that

A) human behavior is rigidly predetermined.
B) the behavior of an individual cannot be modified.
C) our behavior consists mainly of fixed action patterns.
D) most aspects of our social behavior have an evolutionary basis.
E) the social behavior of humans is homologous to the social behavior of honeybees.
66) Which scientist suggested that human social behavior may have a genetic basis?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton
67) Which scientist developed the concept of inclusive fitness?

A) E. O. Wilson
B) Jane Goodall
C) J. B. S. Haldane
D) Niko Tinbergen
E) William Hamilton
1) Which of the following is true of innate behaviors?

A) Genes have very little influence on the expression of innate behaviors.
B) Innate behaviors tend to vary considerably among members of a population.
C) Innate behaviors are limited to invertebrate animals.
D) Innate behaviors are expressed in most individuals in a population across a wide range of environmental conditions.
E) Innate behaviors occur in invertebrates and some vertebrates but not in mammals.
2) Researchers have found that a region of the canary forebrain shrinks during the nonbreeding season and enlarges when breeding season begins. This annual enlargement of brain tissue is probably associated with the annual

A) addition of new syllables to a canary's song repertoire.
B) crystallization of subsong into adult songs.
C) sensitive period in which canary parents imprint on new offspring.
D) renewal of mating and nest-building behaviors.
E) elimination of the memorized template for songs sung the previous year.
3) Although many chimpanzee populations live in environments containing oil palm nuts, members of only a few populations use stones to crack open the nuts. The most likely explanation for this behavioral difference between populations is that

A) the behavioral difference is caused by genetic differences between populations.
B) members of different populations have different nutritional requirements.
C) the cultural tradition of using stones to crack nuts has arisen in only some populations.
D) members of different populations differ in learning ability.
E) members of different populations differ in manual dexterity.
4) Which of the following is not required for a behavioral trait to evolve by natural selection?

A) In each individual, the form of the behavior is determined entirely by genes.
B) The behavior varies among individuals.
C) An individual's reproductive success depends in part on how the behavior is performed.
D) Some component of the behavior is genetically inherited.
E) An individual's genotype influences its behavioral phenotype.
5) Female spotted sandpipers aggressively court males and, after mating, leave the clutch of young for the male to incubate. This sequence may be repeated several times with different males until no available males remain, forcing the female to incubate her last clutch. Which of the following terms best describes this behavior?

A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) polyandry
D) promiscuity
E) certainty of paternity
6) According to Hamilton's rule, of the altruist. B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary, correct for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist. C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling. D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct

A) natural selection does not favor altruistic behavior that causes the death of the altruist.
B) natural selection favors altruistic acts when the resulting benefit to the beneficiary, correct for relatedness, exceeds the cost to the altruist.
C) natural selection is more likely to favor altruistic behavior that benefits an offspring than altruistic behavior that benefits a sibling.
D) the effects of kin selection are larger than the effects of direct natural selection on individuals.
E) altruism is always reciprocal.
7) The core idea of sociobiology is that

A) human behavior is rigidly determined by inheritance.
B) humans cannot choose to change their social behavior.
C) much human behavior has evolved by natural selection.
D) the social behavior of humans has many similarities to that of social insects such as honeybees.
E) the environment plays a larger role than genes in shaping human behavior.
1) -How does the foraging of animals on tree seeds affect the distribution and abundance of the trees?- This question

A) would require an elaborate experimental design to answer.
B) is difficult to answer because a large experimental area would be required.
C) is difficult to answer because a long-term experiment would be required.
D) is a question that a present-day ecologist would be likely to ask.
E) A, B, C and D are correct.
2) Which of the following statements about ecology is incorrect?

A) Ecologists may study populations and communities of organisms.
B) Ecological studies may involve the use of models and computers.
C) Ecology is a discipline that is independent from natural selection and evolutionary history.
D) Ecology spans increasingly comprehensive levels of organization, from individuals to ecosystems.
E) Ecology is the study of the interactions between biotic and abiotic aspects of the environment.
3) Which of the following levels of organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

A) community, ecosystem, individual, population
B) ecosystem, community, population, individual
C) population, ecosystem, individual, community
D) individual, population, community, ecosystem
E) individual, community, population, ecosystem
4) Ecology as a discipline directly deals with all of the following levels of biological organization except

A) population.
B) cellular.
C) organismal.
D) ecosystem.
E) community.
5) You are working for the Environmental Protection Agency and researching the effect of a potentially toxic chemical in drinking water. There is no documented scientific evidence showing that the chemical is toxic, but many suspect it to be a health hazard. Using the precautionary principle, what would be a reasonable environmental policy?

A) Establish no regulations until there are conclusive scientific studies.
B) Set the acceptable levels of the chemical conservatively low, and keep them there unless future studies show that they can be safely raised.
C) Set the acceptable levels at the highest levels encountered, and keep them there unless future studies demonstrate negative health effects.
D) Caution individuals to use their own judgment in deciding whether to drink water from a potentially contaminated area.
E) Establish a contingency fund to handle insurance claims in the event that the chemical turns out to produce negative health effects.
6) Which of the following statements best describes the difference in approach to studying the environment by early naturalists compared to present-day ecologists?

A) Early naturalists employed a descriptive approach; present-day ecologists generate hypotheses, design experiments, and draw conclusions from their observations.
B) Early naturalists manipulated the environment and observed changes in plant and animal populations, while modern ecology focuses on population dynamics.
C) Early naturalists systematically recorded what they observed in their environment; modern ecology is only concerned with man's impact on the environment.
D) Early naturalists were interested with man's interaction with the natural world; present-day ecologists seek to link ecology to developmental biology.
E) Early naturalists were interested in interactions between organisms and their environment; present day ecologists are interested in interactions between organisms.
7) Which statement best contrasts environmentalism with ecology?

A) Ecology is the study of the environment; environmentalism is the study of ecology.
B) Ecology provides scientific understanding of living things and their environment; environmentalism is more about conservation and preservation of life on Earth.
C) Environmentalists are only involved in politics and advocating for protecting nature; ecologists are only involved in scientific investigations of the environment.
D) Ecologists study organisms in environments that have been undisturbed by human activities; environmentalists study the effects of human activities on organisms.
E) Environmentalism is devoted to applied ecological science; ecology is concerned with basic/theoretical ecological science.
8) Of the following examples of ecological effect leading to an evolutionary effect (→), which is most correct?

A) When seeds are not plentiful → trees produce more seeds.
B) A few organisms of a larger population survive a drought → these survivors then emigrate to less arid environments.
C) A few individuals with denser fur survive the coldest days of an ice age → the reproducing survivors all have long fur.
D) Fish that swim the fastest in running water → catch the most prey and more easily escape predation.
E) The insects that spend the most time exposed to sunlight → have the most mutations.
9) Rachel Carson would most likely have endorsed which of the following statements?

A) Conserving wildness will lead to the preservation of the Earth.
B) The greatest liberty humans have taken is with nature.
C) Humans have dominion over the Earth and all of its inhabitants.
D) All pesticides are unsafe and must be banned.
E) The environment can repair damage created by human activity.
10) Landscape ecology is best described as the study of

A) the flow of energy and materials between the biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem.
B) how the structure and function of species enable them to meet the challenges of their environment.
C) what factors affect the structure and size of a population over time.
D) the interactions between the different species that inhabit and ecosystem.
E) the factors controlling the exchanges of energy, materials, and organisms among ecosystem patches.
11) Studying species transplants is a way that ecologists

A) determine the abundance of a species in a specified area.
B) determine the distribution of a species in a specified area.
C) develop mathematical models for distribution and abundance of organisms.
D) determine if dispersal is a key factor in limiting distribution of organisms.
E) consolidate a landscape region into a single ecosystem.
12) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?

A) precipitation, wind
B) nutrient availability, soil pH
C) predation, competition
D) temperature, water
E) light intensity, seasonality
13) Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals?

A) water
B) wind
C) temperature
D) rocks and soil
E) disturbances
14) Which of the following statements about light in aquatic environments is correct?

A) Water selectively reflects and absorbs certain wavelengths of light.
B) Photosynthetic organisms that live in deep water probably use red light.
C) Longer wavelengths penetrate to greater depths.
D) Light penetration seldom limits the distribution of photosynthetic species.
E) Most photosynthetic organisms avoid the surface where the light is not too intense.
15) In mountainous areas of western North America, north-facing slopes would be expected to

A) receive more sunlight than similar southern exposures
B) be warmer and drier than comparable southern exposed slopes
C) consistently steeper than southern exposures
D) support biological communities similar to those found lower elevations on similar south- facing slopes.
E) support biological communities similar to those found at higher elevations on similar south- facing slopes.
16) Coral reefs can be found on the southern east coast of the United States but not at similar latitudes on the southern west coast. Differences in which of the following most likely account for this?

A) sunlight intensity
B) precipitation
C) day length
D) ocean currents
E) salinity
17) Deserts typically occur in a band at 30 degrees north and south latitude because ture.

A) descending air masses tend to be cool and dry.
B) trade winds have a little moisture.
C) water is heavier than air and is not carried far over land.
D) ascending air tends to be moist.
E) these locations get the most intense solar radiation of any location on Earth
18) Turnover of water in temperate lakes during the spring and fall is made possible by which of the following?

A) warm, less dense water layered at the top
B) cold, more dense water layered at the bottom
C) a distinct thermocline between less dense warm water and cold, dense water.
D) the density of water changes as seasonal temperatures change.
E) currents generated by nektonic animals
19) In temperate lakes, the surface water is replenished with nutrients during turnovers that occur in the

A) autumn and spring.
B) autumn and winter.
C) spring and summer.
D) summer and winter.
E) summer and autumn.
20) Which of the following is responsible for the summer and winter stratification of deep temperate lakes?

A) Water is densest at 4°C.
B) Oxygen is most abundant in deeper waters.
C) Winter ice sinks in the summer.
D) Stratification is caused by a thermocline.
E) Stratification always follows the fall and spring turnovers.
21) Generally speaking, deserts are located in places where air masses are usually

A) tropical.
B) humid.
C) rising.
D) descending.
E) expanding.
22) Which of the following causes Earth's seasons?

A) global air circulation
B) global wind patterns
C) ocean currents
D) changes in Earth's distance from the sun
E) the tilt of Earth's axis
23) Which of the following events might you predict to occur if the tilt of Earth's axis relative to its plane of orbit was increased 33.5 degrees?

A) Summers and winters in the United States would likely become warmer and colder, respectively.
B) Winters and summers in Australia would likely become less distinct seasons.
C) Seasonal variation at the equator might decrease.
D) Both northern and southern hemispheres would experience summer and winter at the same time.
E) Both poles would experience massive ice melts
24) Imagine some cosmic catastrophe jolts Earth so that its axis is perpendicular to the orbital plane between Earth and the sun. The most obvious effect of this change would be

A) the elimination of tides.
B) an increase in the length of night.
C) an increase in the length of a year.
D) a decrease in temperature at the equator.
E) the elimination of seasonal variation.
25) The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is because

A) there is more ice at the poles.
B) sunlight strikes the poles at an lower angle.
C) the poles are farther from the sun.
D) the poles have a thicker atmosphere.
E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.
26) Which of the following environmental features might influence microclimates?

A) a discarded soft-drink can
B) a tree
C) a fallen log
D) a stone
E) all of the above
27) The success with which plants extend their range northward following glacial retreat is best determined by

A) whether there is simultaneous migration of herbivores.
B) their tolerance to shade.
C) their seed dispersal rate.
D) their size.
E) their growth rate.
28) As climate changes because of global warming, species' ranges in the northern hemisphere may move northward. The trees that are most likely to avoid extinction in such an environment are those that

A) have seeds that are easily dispersed by wind or animals.
B) have thin seed coats.
C) produce well-provisioned seeds.
D) have seeds that become viable only after a forest fire.
E) disperse many seeds in close proximity to the parent tree.
29) Which of the examples below provides appropriate abiotic and biotic factors that might determine the distribution of the species in question?

A) The amount of nitrate and phosphate in the soil and wild flower abundance and diversity
B) The number of frost-free days and competition between species of introduced grasses and native alpine grasses
C) Increased predation and decreased food availability and a prairie dog population after a prairie fire
D) Available sunlight and increased salinity in the top few meters of the ocean and the abundance and diversity of phytoplankton communities
E) The pH and dissolved oxygen concentration and the streams in which brook trout can live
30) A certain species of pine tree survives only in scattered locations at elevations above 2,800 m in the western United States. To understand why this tree grows only in these specific places an ecologist should

A) conclude that lower elevations are limiting to the survival of this species.
B) study the anatomy and physiology of this species.
C) investigate the various biotic and abiotic factors that are unique to high altitude.
D) analyze the soils found in the vicinity of these trees, looking for unique chemicals that may support their growth.
E) collect data on temperature, wind, and precipitation at several of these locations for a year.

31) How would an ecologist likely explain the expansion of the cattle egret?

A) The areas to which the cattle egret has expanded have no cattle egret parasites.
B) Climatic factors, such as temperature and precipitation provide suitable habitat for cattle egrets.
C) There are no natural predators for cattle egrets in the New World, so they continue to expand their range.
D) A habitat left unoccupied by native herons and egrets met the biotic and abiotic requirements of the cattle egret transplants and their descendants.
E) The first egrets to colonize South America evolved into a new species capable of competing with the native species of herons and egrets.
32) Species introduced to new geographic locations

A) are usually successful in colonizing the area.
B) always spread because they encounter no natural predators.
C) increase the diversity and therefore the stability of the ecosystem.
D) can out-compete and displace native species for biotic and abiotic resources.
E) are always considered pests by ecologists.
33) Which of the following organisms is the most likely candidate for geographic isolation?

A) sparrow
B) bat
C) squirrel
D) salt-water fish
E) land snail
34) Generalized global air circulation and precipitation patterns are caused by

A) rising, warm, moist air masses cool and release precipitation as they rise and then at high altitude, cool and sink back to the surface as dry air masses after moving north or south of the tropics.
B) air masses that are dried and heated over continental areas that rise, cool aloft, and descend over oceanic areas followed by a return flow of moist air from ocean to land delivering high amounts of precipitation to coastal areas.
C) polar, cool, moist high pressure air masses from the poles that move along the surface, releasing precipitation along the way to the equator where they are heated and dried.
D) the revolution of the Earth around the sun.
E) Mountain ranges that deflect air masses containing variable amounts of moisture.
35) Air masses formed over the Pacific Ocean are moved by prevailing westerlies where they encounter extensive north-south mountain ranges, such as the Sierra Nevada and the Cascades. Which statement best describes the changes that these air masses undergo?

A) The cool, moist Pacific air heats up as it rises, releasing its precipitation as it passes the tops of the mountains, and this warm, now dry air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
B) The warm, moist Pacific air rises and cools, releasing precipitation as it moves up the windward side of the range, and this cool, now dry air mass heats up as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
C) The cool, dry Pacific air heats and picks up moisture from evaporation of the snowcapped peaks of the mountain range, releasing this moisture as precipitation as the air cools as it descends on the leeward side of the range.
D) These air masses are blocked by these mountain ranges producing high annual amounts of precipitation on the windward sides of these mountain ranges.
E) These air masses remain essentially unchanged in moisture content and temperature as they pass over these mountain ranges. 1
36) Experts in deer ecology generally agree that population sizes of deer that live in temperate climates are limited by winter snow. The deer congregate in -yarding- areas under evergreen trees because venturing out to feed in winter is energetically too expensive when snowfall depths accumulate to above 40 cm. Deer often stay yarded until the spring thaw. Snow depth over 40 inches for more than 60 days results in high mortality due to starvation. This observation best illustrates which of the following principles about factors that limit distribution of organisms?

A) Abiotic factors, such as weather extremes, ultimately limit distribution.
B) Organisms will face extinction unless they adapt to conditions or evolve new mechanisms for survival.
C) Environmental factors are limiting not only in amount but also in longevity.
D) Daily accumulations in snow depth gradually add up to cause increased deer mortality.
E) Temporary extremes in weather conditions usually result in high mortality in the deer population.
37) Which marine zone would have the lowest rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)?

A) pelagic
B) abyssal
C) neritic
D) continental shelf
E) intertidal
38) The benthic zone in an aquatic biome

A) often supports communities of organisms that feed largely on detritus.
B) supports communities of highly motile animals.
C) is where one would most expect to find a thermocline.
D) has wider seasonal fluctuations in temperature than other aquatic zones.
E) is always devoid of light.
39) Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake?

A) profundal zone 2
B) benthic zone
C) photic zone
D) oligotrophic zone
E) aphotic zone
40) Phytoplankton is most frequently found in which of the following zones?

A) oligotrophic
B) photic
C) benthic
D) abyssal
E) aphotic
41) You are planning a dive in a lake, and are eager to observe not many underwater organisms but be able to observe them both close up and far away. You would do well to choose

A) an oligotrophic lake.
B) an eutrophic lake.
C) a relatively shallow lake.
D) a nutrient-rich lake.
E) a lake with consistently warm temperatures.
42) You are interested in studying how organisms react to a gradient of a variety of abiotic conditions and how they coexist in this gradient. The best location in which to conduct such a study is

A) a grassland.
B) an intertidal zone.
C) a river.
D) tropical forest.
E) an eutrophic lake.
43) Which of the following statements about the ocean pelagic biome is true?

A) The ocean is a vast, deep storehouse that always provides sustenance; it is the next -frontier- for feeding humanity. 3
B) Because it is so immense, the ocean is a uniform environment.
C) More photosynthesis occurs in the ocean than in any other biome.
D) Pelagic ocean photosynthetic activity is disproportionately low in relation to the size of the biome.
E) The most abundant animals are unicellular zooplankton.
44) Coral animals

A) are a diverse group of cnidarians often forming mutualistic symbiotic relationships with dinoflagellate algae.
B) are predominantly photosynthetic, multicellular algae.
C) can tolerate low oxygen and nutrient levels, and varying levels of salinity.
D) can only survive in tropical waters 30oC and above.
E) build coral reefs by glueing sand particles together.
45) If a meteor impact or volcanic eruption injected a lot of dust into the atmosphere and reduced the sunlight reaching Earth's surface by 70% for one year, all of the following marine communities most likely would be greatly affected except

A) deep-sea vent communities.
B) coral reef communities.
C) benthic communities.
D) pelagic communities.
E) estuary communities.
46) Which of the following is not true about estuaries?

A) Estuaries are often bordered by mudflats and salt marshes.
B) Estuaries contain waters of varying salinity.
C) Estuaries support a variety of animal life that humans consume.
D) Estuaries usually contain no or few producers.
E) Estuaries support many semiaquatic species.
47) Which of the following statements best describes the effect of climate on biome distribution?

A) Knowledge of annual temperature and precipitation is sufficient to predict which biome will be found in an area.
B) Fluctuation of environmental variables is not important if areas have the same annual temperature and precipitation means.
C) It is not only the average climate that is important in determining biome distribution, but also the pattern of climatic variation.
D) Temperate forests, coniferous forests, and grasslands all have the same mean annual temperatures and precipitation.
E) Correlation of climate with biome distribution is sufficient to determine the cause of biome patterns.
48) Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are)

A) wind and ocean water current patterns.
B) species diversity.
C) proximity to large bodies of water
D) climate.
E) day length and rainfall.
49) In the development of terrestrial biomes, which factor is most dependent on all the others?

A) the species of colonizing animals
B) prevailing temperature
C) prevailing rainfall
D) mineral nutrient availability
E) soil structure
50) An area in which different terrestrial biomes grade into each other is known as a(n)

A) littoral zone.
B) vertically stratified canopy.
C) ecotone.
D) abyssal zone.
E) cline.
51) Two plant species live in the same biome but on different continents. Although the two species are not at all closely related, they may appear quite similar as a result of

A) parallel evolution.
B) convergent evolution.
C) allopatric speciation.
D) introgression.
E) gene flow.
52) In which of the following terrestrial biome pairs are both dependent upon periodic burning?

A) tundra and coniferous forest
B) chaparral and savanna
C) desert and savanna
D) tropical forest and temperate broadleaf forest
E) grassland and tundra
53) Fire suppression by humans ill result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use.

A) will always result in an increase in the species diversity in a given biome.
B) can change the species composition within biological communities.
C) will result ultimately in sustainable production of increased amounts of wood for human use.
D) is necessary for the protection of threatened and endangered forest species.
E) is a management goal of conservation biologists to maintain the healthy condition of biomes.
54) Which of the following statements best describes the interaction between fire and ecosystems?

A) The chance of fire in a given ecosystem is highly predictable over the short term.
B) Many kinds of plants and plant communities have adapted to frequent fires.
C) The prevention of forest fires has allowed more productive and stable plant communities to develop.
D) Chaparral communities have evolved to the extent that they rarely burn.
E) Fire is unnatural in ecosystems and should be prevented.
55) Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall?

A) tropical rain forest
B) temperate forest
C) chaparral
D) taiga
E) savanna
56) Tropical grasslands with scattered trees are also known as

A) taigas.
B) tundras.
C) savannas.
D) chaparrals.
E) temperate plains.
57) Which type of biome would most likely occur in a climate with mild, rainy winters and hot, dry summers?

A) desert
B) taiga
C) temperate grassland
D) chaparral
E) savanna
58) In which community would organisms most likely have adaptations enabling them to respond to different photoperiods?

A) tropical forest
B) coral reef
C) savanna
D) temperate forest
E) abyssal
59) The growing season would generally be shortest in which of the following biomes?

A) savanna
B) temperate broadleaf forest
C) temperate grassland
D) tropical rain forest
E) coniferous forest
60) Trees are not usually found in the tundra biome because of

A) insufficient annual precipitation.
B) acidic soils.
C) extreme winter temperatures.
D) overbrowsing by musk ox and caribou.
E) permafrost.
61) If global warming continues at its present rate, which biomes will likely take the place of the coniferous forest (taiga)?

A) tundra and polar ice
B) temperate broadleaf forest and grassland
C) desert and chaparral
D) tropical forest and savanna
E) chaparral and temperate broadleaf forest
1) Which of the following areas of study focuses on the exchange of energy, organisms, and materials between ecosystems?

A) population ecology
B) organismal ecology
C) landscape ecology
D) ecosystem ecology
E) community ecology
2) If Earth's axis of rotation suddenly became perpendicular to the plane of its orbit, the most predictable effect would be

A) no more night and day. 8
B) a big change in the length of the year.
C) a cooling of the equator.
D) a loss of seasonal variation at high latitudes.
E) the elimination of ocean currents.
3) When climbing a mountain, we can observe transitions in biological communities that are analogous to the changes

A) in biomes at different latitudes.
B) at different depths in the ocean.
C) in a community through different seasons.
D) in an ecosystem as it evolves over time.
E) across the United States from east to west.
4) The oceans affect the biosphere in all of the following ways except

A) producing a substantial amount of the biosphere's oxygen.
B) removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
C) moderating the climate of terrestrial biomes.
D) regulating the pH of freshwater biomes and terrestrial groundwater.
E) being the source of most of Earth's rainfall.
5) Which lake zone would be absent in a very shallow lake?

A) benthic zone
B) aphotic zone
C) pelagic zone
D) littoral zone
E) limnetic zone
6) Which of the following is true with respect to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?

A) Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to oxygen depletion.
B) Rates of photosynthesis are lower in eutrophic lakes.
C) Eutrophic lake water contains lower concentrations of nutrients.
D) Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E) Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain larger amounts of decomposable organic matter.
7) Which of the following is characteristic of most terrestrial biomes?

A) annual average rainfall in excess of 250 cm
B) a distribution predicted almost entirely by rock and soil patterns
C) clear boundaries between adjacent biomes 9
D) vegetation demonstrating stratification
E) cold winter months
8) Which of the following biomes is correctly paired with the description of its climate?

A) savanna-low temperature, precipitation uniform during the year
B) tundra-long summers, mild winters
C) temperate broadleaf forest-relatively short growing season, mild winters
D) temperate grasslands-relatively warm winters, most rainfall in summer
E) tropical forests-nearly constant day length and temperature
9) Suppose the number of bird species is determined mainly by the number of vertical strata found in the environment. If so, in which of the following biomes would you find the greatest number of bird species?

A) tropical rain forest
B) savanna
C) desert
D) temperate broadleaf forest
E) temperate grassland
1) A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?
I. inhabiting the same general area individuals
II. belonging to the same species
III. possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III
2) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

A) density
B) dispersion
C) carrying capacity
D) quadrats
E) range
3) To measure the population density of monarch butterflies occupying a particular park, 100 butterflies are captured, marked with a small dot on a wing, and then released. The next day, another 100 butterflies are captured, including the recapture of 20 marked butterflies. One would estimate the population to be

A) 200.
B) 500.
C) 1,000.
D) 10,000.
E) 900,000.
4) During the spring, you are studying the mice that live in a field near your home. There are lots of mice in this field, but you realize that you rarely observe any reproductive females. This most likely indicates

A) that there is selective predation on female mice.
B) that female mice die before reproducing.
C) that this habitat is a good place for mice to reproduce.
D) that you are observing immigrant mice.
E) that the breeding season is over
5) You are observing a population of lizards when you notice that the number of adults has increased and is higher than previously observed. One explanation for such an observation would include

A) reduction in death rate.
B) increased immigration.
C) increased emigration.
D) decreased emigration.
E) increased birth rate.
6) The most common kind of dispersion in nature is

A) clumped.
B) random.
C) uniform.
D) indeterminate.
E) dispersive.
7) Uniform spacing patterns in plants such as the creosote bush are most often associated with

A) chance.
B) patterns of high humidity.
C) the random distribution of seeds.
D) competitive interactions among individuals in the population.
E) the concentration of nutrients within the population's range.
8) Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?

A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories
B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D) moths in a city at night
E) lake trout, which seek out deep water
9) A table listing such items as age, observed number of organisms alive each year, and life expectancy is known as a (an)

A) life table.
B) mortality table.
C) survivorship table.
D) rate table.
E) insurance table.
10) Life tables are most useful in determining which of the following?

A) carrying capacity
B) the fate of a cohort of newborn organisms throughout their lives
C) immigration and emigration rates
D) population dispersion patterns
E) reproductive rates

11) Which curve best describes survivorship in marine mollusks?

12) Which curve best describes survivorship in elephants?

Which curve best describes survivorship in a marine crustacean that molts?

14) Which curve best describes survivorship in humans who live in developed nations?

15) Which curve best describes survivorship in songbirds?

16) Which curve best describes survivorship that is independent of age?
17) In order to construct a reproductive table for a sexual species, you need to

A) assess sperm viability.
B) keep track of all of the offspring of a cohort.
C) keep track of the females in a cohort.
D) keep track of all of the offspring of the females in a cohort.
E) keep track of the ratio of deaths to births in a cohort.
18) Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied?

A) counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare
B) counting the number of times a 1 kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall
C) counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare
D) multiplying the number of moss plants counted in 10, 1m2 quadrats by 100 to determine the density per kilometer2.
E) counting the number of zebras from airplane census observations.
19) To measure the population of lake trout in a 250 hectare lake, 200 individuals were netted and marked with a fin clip, and then returned to the lake. The next week, the lake is netted again, and out of the 200 lake trout that are caught, 50 have fin clips. Using the capture-recapture estimate, the lake trout population size could be closest to which of the following?

A) 200
B) 250
C) 400
D) 800
E) 40,000
20) Which of the following assumptions have to be made regarding the capture-recapture estimate of population size?

I. Marked and unmarked individuals have the same probability of being trapped.
II. The marked individuals have thoroughly mixed with population after being marked.
III. No individuals have entered or left the population by immigration or emigration, and no individuals have been added by birth or eliminated by death during the course of the estimate.

A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
E) I, II, and III
21) Long-term studies of Belding's ground squirrels show that immigrants move nearly 2 km from where they are born and make up 1 to 8% of the males and 0.7 to 6% of the females in other populations. On an evolutionary scale, why is this significant?

A) These immigrants make up for the deaths of individuals keeping the other populations' size stable.
B) Young reproductive males tend to stay in their home population and are not driven out by other territorial males.
C) These immigrants provide a source of genetic diversity for the other populations.
D) Those individuals that emigrate to these new populations are looking for less crowded conditions with more resources.
E) Gradually, the populations of ground squirrels will move from a uniform to a clumped population pattern of dispersion.
22) Demography is the study of

A) the vital statistics of populations and how they change over time.
B) death and emigration rates of a population at any moment in time.
C) the survival patterns of a population.
D) life expectancy of individuals within a population.
E) reproductive rates of a population during a given year.
23) Natural selection has led to the evolution of diverse natural history strategies, which have in common

A) many offspring per reproductive episode.
B) limitation only by density-independent limiting factors.
C) adaptation to stable environments.
D) maximum lifetime reproductive success.
E) relatively large offspring.
24) Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between

A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live.
B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization.
C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide.
D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease in parental care.
E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.
25) The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are

A) life expectancy, birth rate, and death rate.
B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy.
C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode.
D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode.
E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate.

26) Which of the following is a conclusion that can be drawn from this graph?

A) Female survivability is more negatively affected by larger brood size than is male survivability.
B) Male survivability decreased by 50% between reduced and enlarged brood treatments.
C) Both males and females had increases in daily hunting with the enlarged brood size.
D) There appears to be a negative correlation between brood enlargements and parental survival.
E) Chicks in reduced brood treatment received more food, weight gain, and reduced mortality.
27) Which of the following pairs of reproductive strategies is consistent with energetic trade-off and reproductive success?

A) Pioneer species of plants produce many very small, highly airborne seeds, while large elephants that are very good parents produce many offspring.
B) Female rabbits that suffer high predation rates may produce several litters per breeding season, and coconuts produce few fruits, but most survive when they encounter proper growing conditions.
C) Species that have to broadcast to distant habitats tend to produce seeds with heavy protective seed coats, and animals that are caring parents produce fewer offspring with lower infant mortality.
D) Free-living insects lay thousands of eggs and provide no parental care, while flowers take good care of their seeds until they are ready to germinate.
E) Some mammals will not reproduce when environmental resources are low so they can survive until conditions get better, and plants that produce many small seeds are likely found in stable environments.
28) A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Estimate the number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1,000 individuals in one year.

A) 120 individuals added
B) 40 individuals added
C) 20 individuals added
D) 400 individuals added
E) 20 individuals lost
29) A small population of white-footed mice has the same intrinsic rate of increase (r) as a large population. If everything else is equal

A) the large population will add more individuals per unit time.
B) the small population will add more individuals per unit time.
C) the two populations will add equal numbers of individuals per unit time.
D) the J-shaped growth curves will look identical.
E) the growth trajectories of the two populations will proceed in opposite directions.
30) Imagine that you are managing a large ranch. You know from historical accounts that wild sheep used to live there, but they have been extirpated. You decide to reintroduce them. After doing some research to determine what might be an appropriately sized founding population, you do so. You then watch the population increase for several generations, and graph the number of individuals (vertical axis) against the number of generations (horizontal axis). The graph will appear as

A) a diagonal line, getting higher with each generation.
B) an -S,- increasing with each generation.
C) an upside-down -U.-
D) a -J,- increasing with each generation.
E) an -S- that ends with a vertical line.
31) In the logistic equation dN/dt = rN (K-N)/K, of increase. It is determined by which of the following?

A) birth rate and death rates
B) dispersion
C) density
D) carrying capacity
E) life history
32) In 2005, the United States had a population of approximately 295,000,000 people. If the birth rate was 13 births for every 1,000 people, approximately how many births occurred in the United States in 2005?

A) 3,800
B) 38,000
C) 380,000
D) 3,800,000
E) 38,000,000
33) Exponential growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = rN/K

A) K
B) rN
C) rN (K + N)
D) rN (K-N)/K
E) rN (N-K)/ K
34) Logistic growth of a population is represented by dN/dt = rN

A) K
B) rN
C) rN (K + N)
D) rN
E) rN (N-K)/ K
35) As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?

A) The growth rate will not change.
B) The growth rate will approach zero.
C) The population will show an Allee effect.
D) The population will increase exponentially.
E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.
36) Often the growth cycle of one population has an effect on the cycle of another. As moose populations increase, wolf populations also increase. Thus, if we are considering the logistic equation for the wolf population, dN/dt = rN (K-N)/K, which of the factors accounts for the effect on the moose population?

A) r
B) N
C) rN
D) K
E) dt
37) Which of the following might be expected in the logistic model of population growth?

A) As N approaches K, b increases.
B) As N approaches K, r increases.
C) As N approaches K, d increases.
D) Both A and B are true.
E) Both B and C are true.
38) In models of sigmoidal (logistic) population growth,

A) population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K.
B) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth.
C) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth.
D) only density-independent factors affect the rate of population growth.
E) carrying capacity is never reached.
39) The Allee effect is used to describe a population that

A) has become so small that it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing.
B) has become so large it will have difficulty surviving and reproducing.
C) approaches carrying capacity.
D) exceeds carrying capacity.
E) is in crash decline.
40) Which of the following is the pattern of spacing for individuals within the boundaries of the population?

A) cohort
B) dispersion
C) Allee effect 2
D) iteroparous
E) semelparous
41) Pacific salmon or annual plants illustrate which of the following?

A) cohort
B) dispersion
C) Allee effect
D) iteroparous
E) semelparous
42) Which of the following describes having more than one reproductive episode during a lifetime?

A) cohort
B) dispersion
C) Allee effect
D) iteroparous
E) semelparous
43) Density-dependent factors are related to which of the following?

A) cohort
B) dispersion
C) Allee effect
D) iteroparous
E) semelparous
44) Which of the following is true?

A) K-selection operates in populations where populations fluctuate well below the carrying capacity.
B) r-selection occurs in populations whose densities are very near the carrying capacity.
C) Different populations of the same species will be consistently r- or K-selected.
D) r- and K-selection are two extremes of a range of life history strategies.
E) r-selection tends to maximize population size, not the rate of increase in population size. 3
45) The life history traits favored by selection are most likely to vary with

A) fluctuations in K.
B) the shape of the J curve.
C) the maximum size of a population.
D) population density.
E) population dispersion.
46) In which of the following habitats would you expect to find the largest number of K-selected individuals?

A) a recently abandoned agricultural field in Ohio
B) the sand dune communities of south Lake Michigan
C) the flora and fauna of a coral reef in the Caribbean
D) South Florida after a hurricane
E) a newly emergent volcanic island
47) Which of the following characterizes relatively K-selected populations?

A) offspring with good chances of survival
B) many offspring per reproductive episode
C) small offspring
D) a high intrinsic rate of increase
E) early parental reproduction
48) Which of the following statements about the evolution of life histories is correct?

A) Stable environments with limited resources favor r-selected populations.
B) K-selected populations are most often found in environments where density-independent factors are important regulators of population size.
C) Most populations have both r- and K-selected characteristics that vary under different environmental conditions.
D) The reproductive efforts of r-selected populations are directed at producing just a few offspring with good competitive abilities.
E) K-selected populations rarely approach carrying capacity. 4
49) Your friend comes to you with a problem. It seems his shrimp boats aren't catching nearly as much shrimp as they used to. He can't understand why because originally he caught all the shrimp he could handle. Each year he added a new boat, and for a long time each boat caught tons of shrimp. As he added more boats, there came a time when each boat caught somewhat fewer shrimp, and now, each boat is catching a lot less shrimp. Which of the following topics might help your friend understand the source of his problem?

A) density-dependent population regulation and intrinsic characteristics of population growth
B) exponential growth curves and unlimited environmental resources
C) density-independent population regulation and chance occurrence
D) pollution effects of a natural environment and learned shrimp behavior
E) a K-selected population switching to an r-selected population
50) Carrying capacity is

A) seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast resources of the ocean.
B) the maximum population size that a particular environment can support.
C) fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time.
D) determined by density and dispersion data.
E) the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources.
56) Which of the following can contribute to density-dependent regulation of populations?

A) the removal of toxic waste by decomposers
B) intraspecific competition for nutrients
C) earthquakes
D) floods
E) weather catastrophes
57) Field observation suggests that populations of a particular species of herbivorous mammal undergo cyclic fluctuations in density at three- to five-year intervals. Which of the following represent (a) plausible explanation(s) of these cycles?

A) Periodic crowding affects the endocrine system, resulting in increased aggressiveness.
B) Increases in population density lead to increased rates of predation.
C) Increases in rates of herbivory lead to changes in the nutritive value of plants used as food.
D) Increases in population density lead to more proximal infestations of parasites to host animals.
E) All of the above are plausible explanations of population cycling.
58) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the regulation of populations?

A) The logistic equation reflects the effect of density-dependent factors, which can ultimately stabilize populations around the carrying capacity.
B) Density-independent factors have an increasingly greater effect as a population's density increases.
C) High densities in a population may cause physiological changes that inhibit reproduction.
D) Because of the overlapping nature of population-regulating factors, it is often difficult to precisely determine their cause-and-effect relationships.
E) The occurrence of population cycles in some populations may be the result of crowding or lag times in the response to density-dependent factors.
59) Which of the following is a density-independent factor limiting human population growth?

A) social pressure for birth control
B) earthquakes
C) plagues
D) famines
E) pollution
60) A population of white-footed mice becomes severely overpopulated in a habitat that has been disturbed by human activity. Sometimes intrinsic factors cause the population to increase in mortality and lower reproduction rates in reaction to the stress of overpopulation. Which of the following is an example of intrinsic population control?

A) Owl populations frequent the area more often because of increased hunting success. 2
B) Females undergo hormonal changes that delay sexual maturation and many individuals suffer depressed immune systems and die due to the stress of overpopulation.
C) Clumped dispersion of the population leads to increased spread of disease and parasites resulting in a population crash.
D) All of the resources (food and shelter) are used up by overpopulation and much of the population dies of exposure and/or starvation.
E) Because the individuals are vulnerable they are more likely to die off if a drought or flood were to occur.
61) Why is territoriality an adaptive behavior for songbirds maintaining populations at or near their carrying capacity?

A) Songbirds expend a tremendous amount of energy defending territories so that they spend less time feeding their young and fledgling mortality increases.
B) Only the fittest males defend territories and they attract the fittest females so the best genes are conveyed to the next generation.
C) Songbird males defend territories commensurate with the size from which they can derive adequate resources for themselves, their mate, and their chicks.
D) Many individuals are killed in the ritualistic conflicts that go along with territorial defense.
E) Songbirds make improvements to the territories they inhabit so that they can all enjoy larger clutches and successfully fledged chicks.
62) Consider several human populations of equal size and net reproductive rate, but different in age structure. The population that is likely to grow the most during the next 30 years is the one with the greatest fraction of people in which age range?

A) 50 to 60 years
B) 40 to 50 years
C) 30 to 40 years
D) 20 to 30 years
E) 10 to 20 years

63) Which population is in the process of decreasing?

A) I
D) I and II
E) II and III

64) Which population appears to be stable?

A) I
D) I and II
E) II and III

65) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, in which population is unemployment likely to be a societal issue in the future?

A) I
D) No differences in the magnitude of future unemployment would be expected among these populations.
E) It is not possible to infer anything about future social conditions from age-structure diagrams.

66) Assuming these age-structure diagrams describe human populations, which population is likely to experience zero population growth (ZPG)?

A) I
D) I and II
E) II and III
67) Most ecologists believe that the average global carrying capacity for the human population is between

A) 5 and 6 billion.
B) 6 and 8 billion.
C) 10 and 15 billion.
D) 15 and 20 billion.
E) 20 and 25 billion.
68) An ecological footprint is a construct that is useful

A) for a person living in a developed nation to consider to make better choices when using global food and energy resources.
B) for a person living in a developing country to see how much of the world's resources are left for him/her.
C) in converting human foods' meat biomass to plant biomass.
D) in making predictions about the global carrying capacity of humans.
E) in determining which nations produce the least amount of carbon dioxide from the burning of fossil fuels.

69) What is a logical conclusion that can be drawn from the graphs above?

A) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries.
B) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and lower life expectancy than developing countries.
C) Developed countries have lower infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries.
D) Developed countries have higher infant mortality rates and higher life expectancy than developing countries.
1) The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that

A) the size of the area occupied by the population is increasing.
B) resources are distributed unevenly.
C) the members of the population are competing for access to a resource.
D) the members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another.
E) the density of the population is low.
2) Population ecologists follow the fate of same-age cohorts to

A) determine a population's carrying capacity.
B) determine if a population is regulated by density-dependent processes.
C) determine the birth rate and death rate of each group in a population.
D) determine the factors that regulate the size of a population. 6
E) determine if a population's growth is cyclic.
3) According to the logistic growth equation dN/dt = rmaxN(K — N)/K,

A) the number of individuals added per unit time is greatest when N is close to zero.
B) the per capita growth rate (r) increases as N approaches K.
C) population growth is zero when N equals K.
D) the population grows exponentially when K is small.
E) the birth rate (b) approaches zero as N approaches K.
4) A population's carrying capacity

A) can be accurately calculated using the logistic growth model.
B) generally remains constant over time.
C) increases as the per capita growth rate (r) decreases.
D) may change as environmental conditions change.
E) can never be exceeded.
5) Which pair of terms most accurately describes life history traits for a stable population of wolves?

A) Semelparous; r-selected
B) Semelparous; K-selected
C) Iteroparous; r-selected
D) Iteroparous; K-selected
E) Iteroparous; N-selected
6) During exponential growth, a population always

A) grows by thousands of individuals.
B) grows at its maximum per capita rate.
C) quickly reaches its carrying capacity.
D) cycles through time.
E) loses some individuals to emigration.
7) Scientific study of the population cycles of the snowshoe hare and its predator, the lynx, has revealed that

A) the prey population is controlled by predators alone.
B) hares and lynx are so mutually dependent that each species cannot survive without the other.
C) multiple biotic and abiotic factors contribute to the cycling of hare and lynx populations.
D) both hare and lynx populations are regulated mainly by abiotic factors.
E) the hare population is r-selected and the lynx population is K-selected.
8) Based on current growth rates, Earth's human population in 2010 will be closest to 8

A) 2 million.
B) 3 billion.
C) 4 billion.
D) 7 billion.
E) 10 billion.
9) Which of the following statements about human population in industrialized countries is incorrect?

A) Average family size is relatively small.
B) The population has undergone the demographic transition.
C) Life history is r-selected.
D) The survivorship curve is Type I.
E) Age distribution is relatively uniform.
10) A recent study of ecological footprints (described in the text) concluded that

A) Earth's carrying capacity for humans is about 10 billion.
B) Earth's carrying capacity would increase if per capita meat consumption increased.
C) current demand by industrialized countries for resources is much smaller than the ecological footprint of those countries.
D) the ecological footprint of the United States is large because per capita resource use is high.
E) it is not possible for technological improvements to increase Earth's carrying capacity for humans.
1) Which of the following statements is consistent with the principle of competitive exclusion?

A) Bird species generally do not compete for nesting sites.
B) The density of one competing species will have a positive impact on the population growth of the other competing species.
C) Two species with the same fundamental niche will exclude other competing species.
D) Even a slight reproductive advantage will eventually lead to the elimination of the less well adapted of two competing species.
E) Evolution tends to increase competition between related species.
2) According to the competitive exclusion principle, two species cannot continue to occupy the same

A) habitat.
B) niche.
C) territory.
D) range.
E) biome.
3) The sum total of an organism's interaction with the biotic and abiotic resources of its environment is called its

A) habitat.
B) logistic growth.
C) biotic potential.
D) carrying capacity.
E) ecological niche.

4) Which of the following is the most logical conclusion about the distribution of the two species of barnacle, Chthamalus and Balanus?

A) Chthamalus and Balanus compete for the same types of food.
B) Balanus is less able to resist desiccation than Chthamalus.
C) Chthamalus prefers higher temperatures than Balanus.
D) Balanus is a better osmoregulator that Chthamalus.
E) Chthamalus is preyed upon more than Balanus by birds because of its size.
5) Which of the following is a good description of an ecological niche?

A) the -address- of an organism
B) synonymous with an organism's specific trophic level
C) how an organism uses the biotic and abiotic resources in the community
D) the organism's role in recycling nutrients in its habitat
E) the interactions of the organism with other members of the community
6) Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?

A) competitive exclusion
B) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus
C) cooperative displacement
D) primary succession
E) mutualism
7) A species of fish is found to require a certain water temperature, a particular oxygen content of the water, a particular depth, a rocky substrate on the bottom, and a variety of nutrients in the form of microscopic plants and animals to thrive. These requirements describe its

A) dimensional profile.
B) ecological niche.
C) prime habitat.
D) resource partition.
E) home base.
8) Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?

A) Competitive exclusion results in the success of the superior species.
B) Slight variations in niche allow similar species to coexist.
C) Two species can coevolve to share the same niche.
D) Differential resource utilization results in the decrease in species diversity
E) A climax community is reached when no new niches are available.
9) As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory, their offspring behave in the same manner. You have discovered an example of

A) mutualism.
B) character displacement.
C) Batesian mimicry.
D) facultative commensalism.
E) resource partitioning
10) Resource partitioning would be most likely to occur between

A) sympatric populations of a predator and its prey.
B) sympatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.
C) sympatric populations of a flowering plant and its specialized insect pollinator.
D) allopatric populations of the same animal species.
E) allopatric populations of species with similar ecological niches.
11) Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration?

A) bands on a coral snake
B) brown color of tree bark
C) markings of a viceroy butterfly
D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower
E) a -walking stick- insect that resembles a twig
12) Which of the following is an example of Müllerian mimicry?

A) two species of unpalatable butterfly that have the same color pattern
B) a day-flying hawkmoth that looks like a wasp
C) a chameleon that changes its color to look like a dead leaf
D) two species of rattlesnakes that both rattle their tails
E) two species of moths with wing spots that look like owl's eyes
13) Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?

A) an insect that resembles a twig
B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf
C) a non-venomous snake that looks like a venomous snake
D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish
14) Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

A) stripes of a skunk
B) eye color in humans
C) green color of a plant
D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower
E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf
15) Dwarf mistletoes are flowering plants that grow on certain forest trees. They obtain nutrients and water from the vascular tissues of the trees. The trees derive no known benefits from the dwarf mistletoes. Which of the following best describes the interactions between dwarf mistletoes and trees?

A) mutualism
B) parasitism
C) commensalism
D) facilitation
E) competition
16) The oak tree pathogen Phytophthora ramorum has migrated 650 km in ten years. West Nile virus spread from New York State to 46 others states in five years. The difference in the rate of spread is probably related to

A) how lethal each pathogen is.
B) the mobility of their hosts.
C) the fact that viruses are very small.
D) innate resistance.
E) dormancy viability.
17) Evidence shows that some grasses benefit from being grazed. Which of the following terms would best describe this plant-herbivore interaction?

A) mutualism
B) commensalism
C) parasitism
D) competition
E) predation
18) Which of the following terms best describes the interaction between termites and the protozoans that feed in their gut?

A) commensalism
B) mutualism
C) competitive exclusion
D) ectoparasitism
E) endoparasitism
19) Which of the following interactions can correctly be labeled coevolution?

A) the tendency of coyotes to respond to human habitat encroachment by including pet dogs and cats in their diets
B) a genetic change in a virus that allows it to exploit a new host, which responds to virus- imposed selection by changing its genetically controlled habitat preferences
C) a genetic change in foxes that allows them to tolerate human presence (and food)
D) the adaptation of cockroaches to human habitation
E) the ability of rats to survive in a variety of novel environments
20) Which of the following types of species interaction is correctly paired with its effects on the density of the two interacting populations?

A) predation: as one increases, the other increases
B) parasitism: both decrease
C) commensalism: as one increases the other stays the same
D) mutualism: both decrease
E) competition: both increase
21) During the course of the formation of a parasite/host relationship, a critical first step in this evolution would be

A) changing the behavior of the host or intermediate host.
B) developing asexual reproduction.
C) deriving nourishment without killing the host.
D) starting as an ectoparasite and then later becoming an endoparasite.
E) utilizing both heterotropic and autotrophic nutrition during dormancy.
22) Which of the following examples best describes an ecological community?

A) The intraspecific competition of members of a brook trout population inhabiting a stream during a given year.
B) The interactions of all the plant and animal species inhabiting a 2 hectare forest.
C) The material cycling and energy transformations between the biotic and abiotic components of an open meadow.
D) The various species of barnacles competing for resources in an intertidal zone.
E) The interactions of the various plant and animal species of park, excepting the decomposers.
23) Community ecologists would consider which of the following to be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community?

A) determining how many species are present overall
B) which particular species are present
C) the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species
D) the relative abundance of species
E) all of the above
24) Historically, most ecological research on the community has focused on which of the following?

A) mutualistic relationships and other positive interactions
B) competition or predation between two different species
C) parasite-host relationships
D) commensalistic relationships
E) herbivory interactions
25) Which of the following studies would a community ecologist undertake to learn about competitive interactions?

A) selectivity of nest sites among cavity nesting songbirds
B) the grass species preferred by grazing pronghorn antelope and bison
C) nitrate and phosphate uptake by various species of hardwood forest tree species
D) stomach analysis of brown trout and brook trout in streams where they coexist
E) All of the above would be appropriate studies of competitive interaction.
26) White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, while the White-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviors best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts?

A) competitive exclusion
B) resource partitioning
C) character displacement
D) keystone species
E) individualistic hypothesis
27) Monarch butterflies are protected from birds and other predators but the cardiac glycosides they incorporate into their tissues are from eating milkweed when they were in their caterpillar stage of development. The wings of a different species of butterfly, the Viceroy, look nearly identical to the Monarch so predators that have learned not to eat the bad-tasting Monarch avoid Viceroys as well. This example best describes

A) aposmatic coloration.
B) cryptic coloration.
C) Batesian mimicry.
D) Müllerian mimicry.
E) mutualism.
28) All of the following have been used by plants to avoid being eaten except

A) possessing spines and thorns on stems and leaves.
B) synthesis of chemical toxins, such as strychnine, nicotine, and tannins.
C) producing chemicals that are distasteful to herbivores, such as cinnamon, cloves, and peppermint.
D) producing tissues that have unappealing colors.
E) synthesizing chemicals that can cause abnormal development in some insects that eat them.
29) The species richness of a community refers to the

A) complexity of the food web.
B) number of different species.
C) the bottom-heavy shape of the energy pyramid.
D) relative numbers of individuals in each species.
E) total number of all organisms.
30) With a few exceptions, most of the food chains studied by ecologists have a maximum of how many links?

A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 10
E) 15
31) Prairie dogs once covered the expanses of the Great Plains. Their grazing made the grass more nutritious for the huge herds of bison, and a variety of snakes, raptors, and mammals preyed on the rodents. In fact, the black-footed ferret (now endangered) specialized in prairie dog predation. Today, growing housing and agricultural developments have covered many prairie dog towns. Which of the following statements about prairie dogs is true?

A) Their realized niche has expanded.
B) They have a mutualistic relationship with bison.
C) They are probably a poor candidate for keystone species.
D) Their fundamental niche is changed.
E) Their fundamental niche has expanded.
32) Which of the following members of a marine food chain occupies a similar tropic level to a grasshopper in a terrestrial food chain?

A) phytoplankton
B) zooplankton
C) lobster
D) sea lion
E) shark
33) Approximately how many kg of carnivore production can be supported by a field plot containing 2000 kg of plant material?

A) 20,000
B) 2,000
C) 200
D) 20
E) 2
34) The energetic hypothesis and dynamic stability hypothesis are explanations to account for

A) plant defenses against herbivores.
B) the length of food chains.
C) the evolution of mutualism.
D) resource partitioning.
E) the competitive exclusion principle.
35) The dominant species in a community is

A) characterized by very large individuals with long lives.
B) the best competitor in the community.
C) the best predator in the community.
D) the species that contributes the most biomass to the community.
E) the most energetically efficient species in the community.
36) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely a(n)

A) community facilitator.
B) keystone species.
C) herbivore.
D) resource partitioner.
E) mutualistic organism.
37) Elephants are not the most common species in African grasslands. The grasslands contain scattered woody plants, but they are kept in check by the uprooting activities of the elephants. Take away the elephants, and the grasslands convert to forests or to shrublands. The newly growing forests support fewer species than the previous grasslands. Which of the following describes why elephants are the keystone species in this scenario?

A) Essentially all of the other species depend on the presence of the elephants to maintain the community.
B) Grazing animals depend upon the elephants to convert forests to grassland.
C) Elephants prevent drought in African grasslands.
D) Elephants are the biggest herbivore in this community.
E) Elephants help other populations survive by keeping out many of the large African predators.
38) When lichens grow on bare rock, they may eventually accumulate enough organic material around them to supply the foothold for later rooted vegetation. These early pioneering lichens can be said to do what to the later arrivals?

A) tolerate
B) inhibit
C) facilitate
D) exclude
E) concentrate
39) Which of the following treatments would most likely create a healthy, biodiverse community out of an impoverished community?

A) Decrease the number of top level predators.
B) Eliminate some of the of pest species of trees and shrubs.
C) Add plenty of nutrients to the soil.
D) Add more predators.
E) Reduce the number of primary producers.
40) Which letter represents an organism that could be a carnivore?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
41) Which letter represents an organism that could be a producer?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
42) Which letter represents an organism that could be a primary consumer?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
43) According to bottom-up and top-down control models of community organization, which of the following expressions would imply that an increase in the size of a carnivore (C) population would negatively impact on its prey (P) population, but not vice versa?

A) P ← C
B) P → C
C) C ↔ P
D) P ← C → P
E) C ← P →

44) According to the Shannon Diversity Index, which block would show the greatest diversity?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
45) Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced?

A) Invasive species are more aggressive than natives in competing for the limited resources of the environment.
B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for the natives.
C) Humans always select which species will outcompete the nuisance native species.
D) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species.
E) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.
46) Biomanipulation can best be described as

A) removing many of the next higher trophic level organisms so that the struggling trophic level below can recover.
B) a means of reversing the effects of pollution by applying antidote chemicals that have a neutralizing effect on the community.
C) an example of how one would use bottom-up model for ecosystem restoration.
D) adjusting the population numbers of each of the trophic levels back to the numbers that they were before man started disturbing ecosystems.
E) monitoring and adjusting the nutrient and energy flow through a community with new technologies.
47) Which of the following is considered by ecologists a measure of the ability of a community either to resist change or to recover to its original state after change?

A) stability
B) succession
C) partitioning
D) productivity
E) competitive exclusion
48) According to the nonequilibrium model,

A) communities will remain in a mature state if there are no human disturbances.
B) community structure remains constant in the absence of interspecific competition.
C) communities are assemblages of closely linked species that are irreparably changed by disturbance.
D) interspecific interactions induce changes in community composition over time. 4
E) communities are constantly changing after being influenced by disturbances.
49) In a particular case of secondary succession, three species of wild grass all invaded a field. By the second season, a single species dominated the field. A possible factor in this secondary succession was

A) equilibrium.
B) facilitation.
C) immigration.
D) inhibition.
E) mutualism.
50) You are most likely to observe primary succession in a terrestrial community when you visit a(n)

A) tropical rain forest.
B) abandoned field.
C) recently burned forest.
D) recently created volcanic island.
E) recently plowed field.
51) Which of the following describes the relationship between ants and acacia trees?

A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) inhibition
D) facilitation
E) commensalism
52) Which of the following describes the relationship between legumes and nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) inhibition
D) facilitation 5
E) commensalism
53) Which of the following describes a successional event in which one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism?

A) parasitism
B) mutualism
C) inhibition
D) facilitation
E) commensalism
54) Species richness increases

A) as we increase in altitude in equatorial mountains.
B) as we travel north from the South Pole.
C) on islands as distance from the mainland increases.
D) as depth increases in aquatic communities.
E) as community size decreases.
55) There are more species in tropical areas than in places farther from the equator. This is probably a result of

A) fewer predators.
B) more intense annual isolation.
C) more frequent ecological disturbances.
D) fewer agents of disease.
E) all of the above
56) A community's actual evapotranspiration is a reflection of

A) solar radiation, temperature, and water availability.
B) the number of plants and how much moisture they lose.
C) the depth of the water table.
D) energy availability.
E) plant biomass and plant water content. 6

57) Which island would likely have the greatest species diversity?
58) Which island would likely exhibit the most impoverished species diversity?
59) Which island would likely have the lowest extinction rate?
60) Which island would likely have the lowest immigration rate?
61) Which of the following best describes the consequences of White-band disease in Caribbean coral reefs?

A) Staghorn coral has been decimated by the pathogen, and Elkhorn coral has taken its place.
B) Key habitat for lobsters, snappers, and other reef fishes has improved.
C) Algal species take the place of the dead coral, and the fish community is dominated by herbivores.
D) Algal species take over and the overall reef diversity increases due to increases in primary productivity.
E) Other coral species take the place of the affected Staghorn and Elkhorn species.
62) Ecologists are particularly concerned about pathogens because

A) human activities are transporting pathogens around the world at alarming rates.
B) pathogens are evolving faster than ever before.
C) host organisms are not coming up with defenses against pathogens.
D) new technologies have allowed microbiologists to classify more new pathogens.
E) pathogens that infect organisms at the community level will eventually infect human beings.
63) Zoonotic disease

A) describes sub-organismal pathogens such as viruses, viroids, and prions.
B) is caused by pathogens that are transferred from other animals to humans by direct contact or by means of a vector.
C) can only be spread from animals to humans through direct contact.
D) can only be transferred from animals to humans by means of an intermediate host.
E) is too specific to study at the community level, and studies of zoonotic pathogens are relegated to organismal biology.
64) Of the following zoonotic diseases, which is most applicable to study by a community ecologist?

A) mad cow disease
B) hantavirus
D) avian flu
E) trichinosis
65) Which of the following studies would shed light on the mechanism of spread of H5N1 from Asia?

A) Perform cloacal or saliva smears of migrating waterfowl to monitor whether any infected birds show up in Alaska.
B) Test fecal samples for H5N1 in Asian waterfowl that live near domestic poultry farms.
C) Test domestic chickens and ducks worldwide after they have been slaughtered for human consumption for the presence of H5N1.
D) Locate and destroy birds infected with H5N1 in Asian open-air poultry markets.
E) Keep domestic and wild fowl from interacting with each other to minimize the probability that wild fowl could get infected and migrate out of Asia.
1) The feeding relationships among the species in a community determine the community's

A) secondary succession.
B) ecological niche.
C) trophic structure.
D) species-area curve.
E) species richness.
2) The principle of competitive exclusion states that

A) two species cannot coexist in the same habitat.
B) competition between two species always causes extinction or emigration of one species.
C) competition in a population promotes survival of the best-adapted individuals.
D) two species that have exactly the same niche cannot coexist in a community.
E) two species will stop reproducing until one species leaves the habitat.
3) Keystone predators can maintain species diversity in a community if they

A) competitively exclude other predators.
B) prey on the community's dominant species.
C) allow immigration of other predators.
D) reduce the number of disruptions in the community.
E) prey only on the least abundant species in the community.
4) Food chains are sometimes short because

A) only a single species of herbivore feeds on each plant species.
B) local extinction of a species causes extinction of the other species in its food chain.
C) most of the energy in a trophic level is lost as it passes to the next higher level.
D) predator species tend to be less diverse and less abundant than prey species.
E) most producers are inedible.
5) Based on the intermediate disturbance hypothesis, a community's species diversity is

A) increased by frequent massive disturbance.
B) increased by stable conditions with no disturbance.
C) increased by moderate levels of disturbance.
D) increased when humans intervene to eliminate disturbance.
E) increased by intensive disturbance by humans.
6) Which of the following could qualify as a top-down control on a grassland community?

A) limitation of plant biomass by rainfall amount
B) influence of temperature on competition among plants
C) influence of soil nutrients on the abundance of grasses versus wildflowers
D) effect of grazing intensity by bison on plant species diversity
E) effect of humidity on plant growth rates
7) The most plausible hypothesis to explain why species richness is higher in tropical than in temperate regions is that

A) tropical communities are younger.
B) tropical regions generally have more available water and higher levels of solar radiation.
C) higher temperatures cause more rapid speciation.
D) biodiversity increases as evapotranspiration decreases.
E) tropical regions have very high rates of immigration and very low rates of extinction.
8) According to the equilibrium model of island biogeography, species richness would be greatest on an island that is

A) small and remote.
B) large and remote.
C) large and close to a mainland.
D) small and close to a mainland.
E) environmentally homogeneous.
1) How are matter and energy used in ecosystems?

A) Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.
B) Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.
C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy.
D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter.
E) Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not
2) A cow's herbivorous diet indicates that it is a(n)

A) primary consumer.
B) secondary consumer.
C) decomposer.
D) autotroph.
E) producer.
3) To recycle nutrients, the minimum an ecosystem must have is

A) producers.
B) producers and decomposers.
C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers.
D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers.
E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.
4) Which of the following terms encompasses all of the others?

A) heterotrophs
B) herbivores
C) carnivores
D) primary consumers
E) secondary consumers
5) Which of the following are responsible for the conversion of most organic material into CO2, which can be utilized in primary production?

A) autotrophs
B) detrivores
C) primary consumers
D) herbivores
E) carnivores
6) Of the following pairs, which are the main decomposers in a terrestrial ecosystem?

A) fungi and prokaryotes
B) plants and mosses
C) insects and mollusks
D) mammals and birds
E) annelids and nematodes
7) Many homeowners mow their lawns during the summer and collect the clippings, which are then hauled to the local landfill. Which of the following actions would most benefit the local ecosystem?

A) Allow sheep to graze the lawn and then collect the sheep's feces to be delivered to the landfill.
B) Collect the lawn clippings and burn them.
C) Either collect the clippings and add them to a compost pile, or don't collect the clippings and let them decompose into the lawn.
D) Collect the clippings and wash them into the nearest storm sewer that feeds into the local lake.
E) Dig up the lawn and cover the yard with asphalt.
8) What is the most important role of photosynthetic organisms in an ecosystem?

A) converting inorganic compounds into organic compounds
B) absorbing solar radiation
C) producing organic detritus for decomposers
D) dissipating heat
E) recycling energy from other tropic levels
9) Ecosystems are

A) processors of energy and transformers of matter.
B) processors of matter and transformers of energy.
C) processors of matter and energy.
D) transformers of matter but not of energy.
E) neither transformers or processors of matter nor energy.
10) Which of the following is an example of an ecosystem?

A) All of the brook trout in a 500 hectare2 river drainage system.
B) The plants, animals, and decomposers that inhabit an alpine meadow.
C) A pond and all of the plant and animal species that live in it.
D) The intricate interactions of the various plant and animal species on a savanna during a drought.
E) Interactions between all of the organisms and their physical environment in a tropical rain forest.
11) If the Sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster?

A) tropical rainforest
B) tundra
C) benthic ocean
D) grassland
E) desert
12) Which of the following is true of detrivores?

A) They recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers.
B) They synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers.
C) They convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers.
D) They secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into CO2 and H2O.
E) Some species are autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic.
13) Suppose you are studying the nitrogen cycling in a pond ecosystem over the course of a year. While you are collecting data, a flock of 100 Canada geese lands and spends the night during a fall migration. What could you do to eliminate error in your study as a result of this event?

A) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed in plant material by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100 and add to the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
B) Find out how much nitrogen is eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12-hour period and multiply this number by 100 and subtract from the total nitrogen in the ecosystem.
C) Find out how much nitrogen is consumed and eliminated by a Canada goose over about a 12- hour period and multiply this number by 100; enter this +/-value into the nitrogen budget of the ecosystem.
D) Do nothing. The Canada geese visitation to the lake would have negligible impact on the nitrogen budget of the pond.
E) Put a net over the pond so that no more migrating flocks can land on the pond and alter the nitrogen balance of the pond.
14) The producers in aquatic ecosystems include organisms in which of the following groups?

A) cyanobacteria
B) algae
C) plants
D) photoautotrophs
E) A, B, C, and D are all correct
15) Subtraction of which of the following will convert gross primary productivity into net primary productivity?

A) the energy contained in the standing crop
B) the energy used by heterotrophs in respiration
C) the energy used by autotrophs in respiration
D) the energy fixed by photosynthesis
E) all solar energy
16) The difference between net and gross primary productivity would likely be greatest for

A) phytoplankton in the ocean.
B) corn plants in a farmer's field.
C) prairie grasses.
D) an oak tree in a forest.
E) sphagnum moss in a bog.
17) Which of these ecosystems accounts for the largest amount of Earth's net primary productivity?

A) tundra
B) savanna
C) salt marsh
D) open ocean
E) tropical rain forest
18) Which of these ecosystems has the highest net primary productivity per square meter?

A) savanna
B) open ocean
C) boreal forest
D) tropical rain forest
E) temperate forest
19) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as

A) gross primary productivity.
B) standing crop.
C) net primary productivity.
D) secondary productivity.
E) trophic efficiency.
20) How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earth's ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low?

A) Oceans contain greater concentrations of nutrients compared to other ecosystems.
B) Oceans receive a greater amount of solar energy per unit area.
C) Oceans have the greatest total area.
D) Oceans possess greater species diversity.
E) Oceanic producers are generally much smaller than its consumers.
21) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following?

A) light and nutrient availability
B) predation by fishes
C) increased pressure with depth
D) disease
E) temperature
22) Aquatic ecosystems are least likely to be limited by which of the following nutrients?

A) nitrogen
B) carbon
C) phosphorus
D) iron
E) zinc
23) As big as it is, the ocean is nutrient-limited. If you wanted to investigate this, one reasonable avenue would be to

A) follow whale migrations in order to determine where most nutrients are.
B) observe Antarctic Ocean productivity from year to year to see if it changes.
C) experimentally enrich some areas of the ocean and compare their productivity to that of untreated areas.
D) compare nutrient concentrations between the photic zone and the benthic zone in various locations
E) contrast nutrient uptake by autotrophs in oceans of different temperatures.
24) Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare?

A) open ocean because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
B) grassland because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition
C) tropical rainforest because of the massive standing crop biomass and species diversity.
D) cave due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
E) tundra because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season.
25) How is it that satellites can detect differences in primary productivity on Earth?

A) Photosynthesizers absorb more visible light in the 350—750 wavelengths.
B) Satellite instruments can detect reflectance patterns of the photosynthesizers of different ecosystems.
C) Sensitive satellite instruments can measure the amount of NADPH produced in the summative light reactions of different ecosystems.
D) By comparing the wavelengths of light captured and reflected by photosynthesizers to the amount of light reaching different ecosystems.
E) By measuring the amount of water vapor emitted by transpiring photosynthesizers.
26) A porcupine eats 3,000 J of plant material. 1,600 J is indigestible and is eliminated as feces. 1,300 J are used in cellular respiration. What is the approximate production efficiency of this animal?

A) .03%
B) 1%
C) 3%
D) 10%
E) 30%
27) Which of the following lists of organisms is ranked in correct order from lowest to highest percent in production efficiency?

A) mammals, fish, insects
B) insects, fish, mammals
C) fish, insects, mammals
D) insects, mammals, fish
E) mammals, insects, fish
28) The amount of chemical energy in consumers' food that is converted to their own new biomass during a given time period is known as which of the following?

A) biomass
B) standing crop
C) biomagnification
D) primary production
E) secondary production
29) How does inefficient transfer of energy among trophic levels result in the typically high endangerment status of many top predators?

A) Top-level predators are destined to have small populations that are sparsely distributed.
B) Predators have relatively large population sizes.
C) Predators are more disease-prone than animals at lower trophic levels.
D) Predators have short life spans and short reproductive periods.
E) A, B C, and D are all correct.
30) Trophic efficiency is

A) the ratio of net secondary production to assimilation of primary production.
B) the percentage of production transferred from one trophic level to the next.
C) a measure of how nutrients are cycled from one trophic level to the next.
D) usually greater than production efficiencies.
E) about 90% in most cosystems
31) If you wanted to convert excess grain into the greatest amount of animal biomass, to which animal would you feed the grain?

A) chickens
B) mice
C) cattle
D) carp (a type of fish)
E) mealworms (larval insects)
32) In general, the total biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem will be greatest for which trophic level?

A) producers
B) herbivores
C) primary consumers
D) tertiary consumers
E) secondary consumers

33) If this were a terrestrial food web, the combined biomass of C + D would probably be

A) greater than the biomass of A.
B) less than the biomass of H.
C) greater than the biomass of B.
D) less than the biomass of A + B.
E) less than the biomass of E.

34) If this were a marine food web, the smallest organism might be

A) A.
B) F.
C) C.
D) I.
E) E.
35) For most terrestrial ecosystems, pyramids of numbers, biomass, and energy are essentially the same-they have a broad base and a narrow top. The primary reason for this pattern is that

A) secondary consumers and top carnivores require less energy than producers.
B) at each step, energy is lost from the system as a result of keeping the organisms alive.
C) as matter passes through ecosystems, some of it is lost to the environment.
D) biomagnification of toxic materials limits the secondary consumers and top carnivores.
E) top carnivores and secondary consumers have a more general diet than primary producers.
36) Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?

A) Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.
B) Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy.
C) Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems.
D) Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.
E) Energy transfer between tropic levels is in almost all cases less than 20% efficient.
37) A secondary consumer, such as a fox, receives what percent of the energy fixed by primary producers in a typical field ecosystem?

A) 0.1%
B) 1%
C) 10%
D) 20%
E) 90%
38) Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?

A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.
B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through cellular respiration reactions.
C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.
D) It is dissipated into space as heat in accordance with the second law of thermodynamics.
E) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers.
39) If the flow of energy in an arctic ecosystem goes through a simple food chain, perhaps involving humans, starts from seaweeds to fish to seals to polar bears, then which of the following could be true?

A) Polar bears can provide more food for humans than seals can.
B) The total biomass of the seaweeds is lower than that of the seals.
C) Seal meat probably contains the highest concentrations of fat-soluble toxins.
D) Seal populations are larger than fish populations.
E) The seaweed can potentially provide more food for humans than the seal meat can.
40) Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of

A) N2 in the atmosphere.
B) nitrite ions in the soil.
C) uric acid from animal excretions.
D) amino acids from decomposing plant and animal proteins.
E) nitrate ions in the soil.
41) In the nitrogen cycle, the bacteria that replenish the atmosphere with N2 are

A) Rhizobium bacteria.
B) nitrifying bacteria.
C) denitrifying bacteria.
D) methanogenic protozoans.
E) nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
42) How does phosphorus normally enter ecosystems?

A) cellular respiration
B) photosynthesis
C) rock weathering
D) geological uplifting (subduction and vulcanism)
E) atmospheric phosphorous dust
43) Which of the following statements is correct about biogeochemical cycling?

A) The phosphorus cycle involves the recycling of atmospheric phosphorus.
B) The phosphorus cycle is a cycle that involves the weathering of rocks.
C) The carbon cycle is a localized cycle that primarily involves the burning of fossil fuels.
D) The carbon cycle has maintained a constant atmospheric concentration of CO2 for the past million years.
E) The nitrogen cycle involves movement of diatomic nitrogen between the biotic and abiotic components of the ecosystem.
44) If you were tracking a nutrient molecule through an ecosystem, which of the following statements would you expect to verify?

A) Molecules move through all ecosystems at the same constant rate, as the laws of physics would predict.
B) Because of the liquid nature of the aquatic ecosystem, nutrient molecules move through it more rapidly than forest ecosystems.
C) Vertical mixing is essential for high productivity in aquatic ecosystems.
D) Most nutrient molecules leave an ecosystem, but are later replaced from another ecosystem.
E) A, B, C, and D are all correct.
45) Which of the following properly links the nutrient to its reservoir?

A) Nitrogen␣ionic nitrogen in the soil B) Water␣atmospheric water vapor C) Carbon␣dissolved CO2 in aquatic ecosystems
D) Phosphorous␣sedimentary rocks E) A, B, C, and D are all correct
46) In terms of nutrient cycling, why does timber harvesting in a temperate forest cause less ecological devastation than timber harvesting in tropical rain forests?

A) Trees are generally smaller in temperate forests, so fewer nutrients will be removed from the temperate forest ecosystem during a harvest.
B) Temperate forest tree species require fewer nutrients to survive than their tropical counterpart species, so a harvest removes fewer nutrients from the temperate ecosystem.
C) The warmer temperatures in the tropics influence rain forest species to assimilate nutrients more slowly, so tropical reforestation is much slower than temperate reforestation.
D) There are far fewer decomposers in tropical rain forests so turning organic matter into usable nutrients is a slower process than in temperate forest ecosystems. 2
E) Typical harvests remove up to 75% of the nutrients in the woody trunks of tropical rain forest trees, leaving nutrient-impoverished soils behind.
47) Some global warming models predict that, if permafrost in the tundra regions in the northern hemisphere melts, atmospheric CO2 levels will increase. Which of the following statements best explains this prediction?

A) The heat released by the melting of the ice on such a vast scale will cause atmospheric CO2 saturation levels to increase.
B) All of the tundra producers will die if the permafrost melts, and because the tundra regions are vast in the northern hemisphere the tundra plants will not take part in photosynthetic removal of atmospheric CO2.
C) CO2 tied up in the permafrost ice will be released during a thaw.
D) All of the undecayed organic material would be subject to decomposition following a thaw, which would lead to incredible increase in global cellular respiration, and add to atmospheric CO2.
E) All of the permafrost ice would become runoff, and this volume of water will cause sea levels to rise globally, flooding some of the most important photosynthetic CO2 sink regions on the planet.
48) Human-induced modifications of the nitrogen cycle can result in

A) eutrophication of adjacent wetlands.
B) decreased availability of fixed nitrogen to primary producers.
C) accumulation of toxic levels of N2 in groundwater.
D) extermination of nitrogen-fixing bacteria on agricultural lands.
E) deprivation of nitrogen to ecosystems adjacent to nitrogen application.
49) Which of the following statements is true?

A) An ecosystem's trophic structure determines the rate at which energy cycles within the system.
B) At any point in time, it is impossible for consumers to outnumber producers in an ecosystem.
C) Chemoautotrophic prokaryotes near deep-sea vents are primary producers.
D) There has been a well-documented increase in atmospheric nitrogen over the past several decades.
E) The reservoir of ecosystem phosphorous is the atmosphere.
50) The high levels of pesticides found in birds of prey is an example of

A) eutrophication.
B) predation.
C) biological magnification.
D) the green world hypothesis.
E) chemical cycling through an ecosystem.

51) Which species is autotrophic?

52) Which species is most likely the decomposer?

53) Species C is toxic to predators. Which species is most likely to benefit from being a mimic of C?

54) Which species is most likely an omnivore?

55) A toxic pollutant would probably reach its highest concentration in which species?
56) Which of the following has the smallest biomass?

A) hawk
B) snake
C) shrew
D) grasshopper
E) grass
57) Which of the following is a tertiary consumer?

A) hawk
B) snake
C) shrew
D) grasshopper
E) grass
58) Which of the following probably contains the highest concentration of toxic pollutants (biological magnification)?

A) hawk
B) snake
C) shrew
D) grasshopper
E) grass
59) When levels of CO2 are experimentally increased, C3 plants generally respond with a greater increase in productivity than C4 plants. This is because

A) C3 plants are more efficient in their use of CO2.
B) C3 plants are able to obtain the same amount of CO2 by keeping their stomata open for shorter periods of time. 6
C) C4 plants don't use CO2 as their source of carbon.
D) C3 plants are more limited than C4 plants by CO2 availability because of transpirational water loss.
E) C3 plants have special adaptations for CO2 uptake, such as larger stomata.
60) Which of the following causes an increase in the intensity of UV radiation reaching the Earth?

A) depletion of atmospheric ozone
B) turnover
C) biological magnification
D) greenhouse effect
E) eutrophication
61) Which of the following describes carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor re-reflecting infrared radiation back toward Earth?

A) depletion of atmospheric ozone
B) turnover
C) biological magnification
D) greenhouse effect
E) eutrophication
62) Which of the following is caused by excessive nutrient runoff into lakes?

A) depletion of atmospheric ozone
B) turnover
C) biological magnification
D) greenhouse effect
E) eutrophication
63) Which of the following causes excessively high levels of toxic chemicals in fish-eating birds?

A) depletion of atmospheric ozone
B) turnover 7
C) biological magnification
D) greenhouse effect
E) eutrophication
64) Agricultural lands frequently require nutritional supplementation because

A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria and detrivores do not cycle nutrients as effectively as they do on wild lands.
B) the nutrients that enter the plants are not returned to the soil on lands where they are harvested.
C) the prairies that comprise good agricultural land tend to be nutrient-poor.
D) grains raised for feed must be fortified, and thus require additional nutrients.
E) cultivation of agricultural lands inhibits the decomposition of organic matter.
65) Burning fossil fuels releases oxides of sulfur and nitrogen. Ultimately, these are probably responsible for

A) the death of fish in Norwegian lakes.
B) rain with a pH as low as 3.0.
C) calcium deficiency in soils.
D) direct damage to plants by leaching nutrients from the leaves.
E) A, B, C, and D are all correct.
66) You have a friend who is wary of environmentalists' claims that global warming could lead to major biological change on Earth. Which of the following statements can you truthfully make in response to your friend's suspicions?

A) We know that atmospheric carbon dioxide has increased in the last 150 years.
B) Through measurements and observations, we know that carbon dioxide levels and temperature fluctuations were directly correlated even in prehistoric times.
C) Global warming could have significant effects on United States agriculture.
D) Sea levels will likely rise, displacing as much as 50% of the world's human population.
E) A, B, C, and D are all correct

67) What would be a likely entry for box A?

A) increased temperature
B) elimination of zooplankton
C) increased sunlight
D) fertilizers washed into the lake
E) increased ultraviolet radiation

68) What would be a likely entry for box B?

A) decomposer population carries on cellular respiration and uses up oxygen
B) plants no longer producing oxygen
C) warm water holding less oxygen than cold water
D) fish that cannot acclimate to low oxygen levels
E) carbon dioxide building up from cellular respiration by decomposers
69) Aquatic ecosystems that are most readily damaged by acid are those that lack an important buffer that dissolves into the runoff after a precipitation event. What is this buffer?

A) calcium
B) carbonic acid
C) nitrate
D) bicarbonate 9
E) sulfate
70) Which of the following statements best describes why biologists are currently concerned with global warming and the thawing of permafrost in many areas of the tundra biome?

A) The thawing process will likely decrease the abundance and diversity of soil-dwelling organisms in tundra habitats.
B) The bacterial decomposition of the thawed organic materials on the widespread areas of the tundra will produce large quantities of CO2, which will add to greenhouse gases and exacerbate global warming.
C) Oil and coal deposits will thaw and rise to the surface (because of their lower density) of the tundra, destroying millions of acres of arctic habitat.
D) Populations of humans inhabiting the arctic will have to move to more southern latitudes, resulting in increased competition for resources in already densely populated areas.
E) Migratory species of waterfowl will likely be less successful finding food in thawed tundra, and population numbers will drop dramatically.

71) The most likely cause for the shift in caterpillar peak mass is

A) pesticide use.
B) earlier migration returns of flycatchers.
C) an innate change of biological clock by caterpillars.
D) global warming.
E) a decrease in the amount of calcium in the ecosystem.

72) Why are ecologists concerned about the shift in date from May 28 in 1980 to May 15 in 2000 of the caterpillar peak mass?

A) The caterpillars will eat much of the foliage of the trees where flycatchers nest, and their nests will be more open to predation.
B) The earlier hatching of caterpillars will compete with other insect larval forms on which the flycatchers also feed their young. C) The flycatcher nestlings in 2000 will miss the peak mass of caterpillars and may not be as well fed.
D) The flycatchers will have to migrate sooner to match their brood-rearing season with the time of caterpillar peak mass.
E) Pesticides, which have a negative effect on the ecosystem, will have to be used to control the earlier outbreak of caterpillar hatching.
1) Which of the following organisms is incorrectly paired with its trophic level?

A) cyanobacterium-primary producer
B) grasshopper-primary consumer
C) zooplankton-primary producer
D) eagle-tertiary consumer
E) fungus-detritivore
2) Which of these ecosystems has the lowest net primary production per square meter?

A) a salt marsh
B) an open ocean
C) a coral reef
D) a grassland
E) a tropical rain forest
3) Nitrifying bacteria participate in the nitrogen cycle mainly by

A) converting nitrogen gas to ammonia.
B) releasing ammonium from organic compounds, thus returning it to the soil.
C) converting ammonia to nitrogen gas, which returns to the atmosphere.
D) converting ammonium to nitrate, which plants absorb.
E) incorporating nitrogen into amino acids and organic compounds.
4) Which of the following has the greatest effect on the rate of chemical cycling in an ecosystem?

A) the ecosystem's rate of primary production
B) the production efficiency of the ecosystem's consumers
C) the rate of decomposition in the ecosystem
D) the trophic efficiency of the ecosystem
E) the location of the nutrient reservoirs in the ecosystem
5) The Hubbard Brook watershed deforestation experiment yielded all of the following results except that

A) most minerals were recycled within a forest ecosystem.
B) the flow of minerals out of a natural watershed was offset by minerals flowing in.
C) deforestation increased water runoff.
D) the nitrate concentration in waters draining the deforested area became dangerously high.
E) calcium levels remained high in the soil of deforested areas.
6) Which of the following is a consequence of biological magnification?

A) Toxic chemicals in the environment pose greater risk to top-level predators than to primary consumers.
B) Populations of top-level predators are generally smaller than populations of primary consumers.
C) The biomass of producers in an ecosystem is generally higher than the biomass of primary consumers.
D) Only a small portion of the energy captured by producers is transferred to consumers.
E) The amount of biomass in the producer level of an ecosystem decreases if the producer turnover time increases.
7) The main cause of the increase in the amount of CO2 in Earth's atmosphere over the past 150 years is

A) increased worldwide primary production.
B) increased worldwide standing crop.
C) an increase in the amount of infrared radiation absorbed by the atmosphere.
D) the burning of larger amounts of wood and fossil fuels.
E) additional respiration by the rapidly growing human population.
1) What is the estimated number of extant species on Earth?

A) 1,000 to 50,000
B) 50,000 to 150,000
C) 500,000 to 1,000,000
D) 10,000,000 to 200,000,000
E) 5 billion-10 billion
2) Estimates of current rates of extinction

A) indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation and extinction rates are approximately equal.
B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100.
C) indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period.
D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive.
E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally.
3) Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now in a biodiversity crisis?

A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species.
B) Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to quantify the number of species becoming extinct.
C) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels.
D) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct.
E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters.
4) Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because

A) more animals than ever before are going extinct.
B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species.
C) the rate of extinction is unusually high.
D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity.
E) none of the above
5) Which of the following terms includes all of the others?

A) species diversity
B) biodiversity
C) genetic diversity
D) ecosystem diversity
E) species richness
6) The Nile perch (Lates niloticus) is a good example of a(n)

A) predator that has negatively affected biodiversity in ecosystems where it has been introduced.
B) endangered endemic species.
C) recently created protein source for the highly populated regions of Africa.
D) threatened anadromous species in the Nile River watershed.
E) primary consumer and a secondary consumer.
7) According to the U.S. Endangered Species Act (ESA), the difference between an endangered species and a threatened one is that

A) an endangered species is closer to extinction.
B) a threatened species is closer to extinction.
C) threatened species are endangered species outside the U.S. borders.
D) endangered species are mainly tropical.
E) only endangered species are vertebrates.
8) To better comprehend the magnitude of current extinctions, it will be necessary to

A) monitor atmospheric carbon dioxide levels more closely.
B) differentiate between plant extinction and animal extinction numbers.
C) focus on identifying more species of mammals and birds.
D) identify more of the yet unknown species of organisms on Earth.
E) use the average extinction rates of vertebrates as a baseline.
9) What is the term for a top predator that contributes to the maintenance of species diversity among its animal prey?

A) keystone species
B) keystone mutualist
C) landscape species
D) primary consumer
E) tertiary consumer
10) What term did E. O. Wilson coin for our innate appreciation of wild environments and living organisms?

A) bioremediation
B) bioethics
C) biophilia
D) biophobia
E) landscape ecology
11) Suppose you attend a town meeting at which some experts tell the audience that they have performed a cost-benefit analysis of a proposed transit system that would probably reduce overall air pollution and fossil fuel consumption. The analysis, however, reveals that ticket prices will not cover the cost of operating the system when fuel, wages, and equipment are taken into account. As a biologist, you know that if ecosystem services had been included in the analysis the experts might have arrived at a different answer. Why are ecosystem services rarely included in economic analyses?

A) Their cost is difficult to estimate and people take them for granted.
B) They are not worth much and are usually not considered.
C) There are no laws that require investigation of ecosystem services in environmental planning.
D) There are many variables to ecosystem services making their calculation is impossible.
E) Ecosystem services only take into account abiotic factors that affect local environments.
12) The most serious consequence of a loss in ecosystem biodiversity would be the

A) increase in global warming and thinning of the ozone layer.
B) loss of ecosystem services on which people depend.
C) increase in the abundance and diversity of edge-adapted species.
D) loss of source of genetic diversity to preserve endangered species.
E) loss of species for -bioprospecting.-
13) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity?

A) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide
B) the depletion of the ozone layer
C) overexploitation of species
D) habitat destruction
E) zoned reserves
14) According to most conservation biologists, the single greatest threat to global biodiversity is

A) chemical pollution of water and air.
B) stratospheric ozone depletion.
C) insufficient recycling programs for nonrenewable resources.
D) alteration or destruction of the physical habitat.
E) global climate change resulting from a variety of human activities.
15) How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss?

A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats.
B) In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place.
C) Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction.
D) Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments.
E) Fragments generate silt that negatively affect sensitive river and stream organisms.
16) Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by

A) preying on native species.
B) competing with native species for food or light.
C) displacing native species.
D) competing with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat.
E) A, B, C, and D
17) Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to affect

A) animals that occupy a broad ecological niche.
B) large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates.
C) most organisms that live in the oceans.
D) terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms.
E) edge-adapted species.
18) How might the extinction of some Pacific Island bats called -flying foxes- threaten the survival of over 75% of the tree species in those islands?

A) The bats eat the insects that harm competitor plants.
B) The bats consume the fruit including the seeds that would be part of the trees' reproductive cycle.
C) The bats roost in the trees and fertilize soil around the trees with their nitrogen-rich droppings.
D) The bats pollinate the trees and disperse seeds.
E) The bats pierce the fruit, which allows the seeds to germinate.
19) The greatest cause of the biodiversity crisis that includes all of the others is

A) pollution.
B) global warming.
C) habitat destruction.
D) introduced species.
E) overpopulation of humans.
20) Of the following, which ecosystem types are the ones that have been impacted by humans the most?

A) wetland and riparian
B) open and benthic ocean
C) desert and high alpine
D) taiga and second growth forests
E) tundra and arctic
21) The introduction of the brown tree snake in the 1940s to the island of Guam has resulted in

A) eradication of nonnative rats and other undesirable/pest species.
B) the extirpation of many of the island's bird and reptile species.
C) a good lesson in biological control.
D) new species of hybrids from breeding with native snake species.
E) failure to compete with native species and its quick elimination from the island.
22) Which of the following poses the greatest potential threat to biodiversity?

A) replanting after a clear cut, a monoculture of Douglas fir trees on land that consisted of old growth Douglas fir, western cedar, and western hemlock
B) allowing previously used farmland go fallow and begin to fill in with weeds and then shrubs and saplings
C) trapping and relocating large predators, such as mountain lions, that pose a threat as they move into areas of relatively dense human populations
D) importing an Asian insect into the United States to control a weed that competes with staple crops
E) releasing sterilized rainbow trout to boost the sport fishing of a river system that contains native brook trout
23) Which of the following would be research in which a conservation biologist would be involved?

A) reestablishing whooping cranes in their former breeding grounds in North Dakota
B) studying species diversity and interaction in the Florida Everglades, past and present
C) population ecology of grizzly bears in Yellowstone National Park
D) the effects of hunting on white-tailed deer in Vermont
E) the effect of protection programs on the recovery of the North Atlantic cod fishery
24) Which community (A-E) would likely be the most -biodiverse-?


A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
25) Which of the following conditions is the most likely indicator of a population in an extinction vortex?

A) The population is geographically divided into smaller populations.
B) The species is found only in small pockets of its former range
C) The effective population size of the species falls below 500.
D) Genetic measurements indicate a continuing loss of genetic variation.
E) The population is no longer connected by corridors.
26) According to the small-population approach, what would be the best strategy for saving a population that is in an extinction vortex?

A) determining the minimum viable population size by taking into account the effective population size
B) establishing a nature reserve to protect its habitat
C) introducing individuals from other populations to increase genetic variation
D) determining and remedying the cause of its decline
E) reducing the population size of its predators and competitors
27) One chief area of concern among biologists who use the small-population approach is

A) intraspecific competition.
B) sexual selection.
C) genetic diversity.
D) runaway selection.
E) both A and D
28) Which of the following is a method of predicting the likelihood that a species will persist in a particular environment?

A) source-sink analysis
B) population viability analysis
C) minimum viable population size
D) extinction vortex
E) effective population size
29) Review the formula for effective population size. Imagine a population of 1,000 small rodents. Of these, 300 are breeding females, 300 are breeding males, and 400 are nonbreeding juveniles. What is the effective population size?

A) 1,000
B) 1,200
C) 600
D) 400
E) 300
30) If the sex ratio in a population is significantly different from 50:50, then which of the following will always be true?

A) The population will enter the extinction vortex.
B) The genetic variation in the population will increase over time.
C) The genetic variation in the population will decrease over time.
D) The effective population size will be greater than the actual population size.
E) The effective population size will be less than the actual population size.
31) Which of the following statements correctly describes genetic variation?

A) Genetic variation does not contribute to biodiversity.
B) Population size is always positively correlated with genetic variation.
C) Populations with low are relatively susceptible to effects of bottlenecking and genetic drift.
D) Recent increases in population size of the northern sea elephant are probably related to high levels of genetic variation.
E) Cord grass populations that live in salt marshes require great genetic variation to thrive.
32) Which of the following life history traits can potentially influence effective population size (Ne)?

A) maturation age
B) genetic relatedness among individuals in a population
C) family and population size
D) gene flow between geographically separated populations
E) A, B, C and D are correct.
33) A population of strictly monogamous swans consists of 40 males and 10 females. What is the effective population size (Ne) for this population?

A) 50
B) 40
C) 32
D) 20
E) 10
34) If we say a species is endemic to a certain area, we mean that

A) it is found only in one particular area of the world.
B) it has been introduced to that area.
C) it is endangered in that area.
D) it is threatened in that area.
E) it used to live there but no longer does.
35) Modern conservation science increasingly aims at

A) protecting federally listed endangered species.
B) lobbying for strict enforcement of the U.S. Endangered Species Act.
C) sustaining biodiversity of entire ecosystems and communities.
D) maintaining all genetic diversity within all species.
E) saving as much habitat as possible from development and exploitation.
36) Which of the following species was driven to extinction by overexploitation by hunters/fishermen?

A) African elephant
B) the great auk
C) North American bluefin tuna
D) flying foxes
E) American bison
37) The primary difference between the small-population approach (S-PA) and the declining- population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is

A) and the declining- population approach (D-PA) to biodiversity recovery is A) S-PA is interested in bolstering the genetic diversity of a threatened population rather than the environmental factors that caused the population's decline.
B) S-PA kicks in for conservation biologists when population numbers fall below 500.
C) D-PA would likely involve the bringing together of individuals from scattered small populations to interbreed to promote genetic diversity.
D) S-PA would investigate and eliminate all of the human impacts on the habitat of the species being studied for recovery.
E) D-PA would use recently collected population data to calculate an extinction vortex.
38) The long-term problem with Red-cockaded woodpecker habitat intervention in the southwest United States is

A) the only habitat that can support their recovery is large tracts of mature southern pine forest.
B) the mature pine forests in which they live cannot ever be subjected to forest fire. 0
C) all of the appropriate Red-cockaded woodpecker habitat has already been logged or converted to agricultural land.
D) the social organization of the Red-cockaded woodpecker precludes the dispersal of reproductive individuals.
E) what habitat remains for the Red-cockaded woodpecker does not contain trees suitable for nest cavity construction.
39) Managing southwestern forests specifically for the Red-cockaded woodpecker

A) was whole-heartedly supported by the timber extraction industry.
B) contributed to greater abundance and diversity of other forest bird species.
C) caused other species of songbird to decline.
D) involved strict fire suppression measures
E) involved the creation of fragmented forest habitat.
40) Which of the following is true about the current research about forest fragmentation?

A) Fragmented forests support a greater biodiversity because they result in the combination of forest-edge species and forest interior species.
B) Fragmented forests support a lesser biodiversity because the forested-adapted species leave, and only the edge and open-field species can occupy fragmented forests.
C) Fragmented forests are the goal of conservation biologists who design wildlife preserves.
D) Harvesting timber that results in forest fragmentation results in less soil erosion.
E) The disturbance of timber extraction causes the species diversity to increase because of the new habitats created.
41) Which of the following would a landscape ecologist consider in designing a nature reserve?

A) patterns of landscape use by humans
B) human economic concerns
C) possible edge effects related to human activities
D) nature viewing sites
E) A, B, C, and D are all correct
42) Which of the following statements is correct about landscape ecology?

A) It is the application of ecological principles to the design and construction of sustainable lawns and gardens.
B) It is the application of ecological principles to land-use planning.
C) It focuses primarily on human-altered ecological systems.
D) It deals primarily with ecosystems in urban settings.
E) It deals with the study of the home ranges of various animals.
43) A movement corridor

A) is a path used by migratory animals when they move to their wintering locales.
B) is the path most commonly used by an animal within its home range.
C) unites otherwise isolated patches of quality habitat.
D) is always beneficial to a species.
E) is always some natural component of the environment.
44) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species are known as

A) endemic sinks.
B) critical communities.
C) biodiversity hot spots.
D) endemic metapopulations.
E) bottlenecks.
45) Which of the following statements about biodiversity hot spots for plants is correct?

A) They are locations that have high concentrations of endemic species.
B) They consist of large numbers of surprisingly common species.
C) They only involve terrestrial plants.
D) They make up a total of about 15% of the global land surface.
E) They are all geographically situated in the tropics.
46) The term -biotic boundary- refers to the

A) area that an animal defends as its territory.
B) area needed to sustain a population.
C) home range of an animal. 2
D) distribution of an organism.
E) range where a species used to live, but no longer does.
47) Which of the following nations has become a world leader in the establishment of zoned reserves?

A) Costa Rica
B) Canada
C) China
D) United States
E) Mexico
48) Which of the following species has been shown to be most susceptible to habitat fragmentation?

A) Red-cockaded woodpecker
B) humpback whale
C) Canada goose
D) Nile perch
E) zebra mussel
49) Which of these represents the best quail habitat in terms of fragmentation and edge?

50) Assuming that only one quail can occupy a habitat where all cover requirements are met, what is the maximum number of quail that could inhabit any of the hypothetical plots shown?

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 9
51) Biodiversity hot spots are not necessarily the best choice for nature preserves because

A) hot spots are situated in remote areas not accessible to wildlife viewers.
B) their ecological importance makes land purchase very expensive.
C) a hot spot for one group of organisms may not be a hot spot for another group.
D) hot spots are designated by abiotic factors present, not biotic factors.
E) designated hot spots change on a daily basis.
52) Brown-headed cowbird populations require forested habitat where they can

A) parasitize the nests of other forest-adapted host birds.
B) burrow for insect larvae under the bark of trees.
C) nest in cavities in old growth timber.
D) avoid competition with other open area cowbird species.
E) feed on upper canopy-adapted insect species.
53) Approximately what percent of the world's land area has been established as reserves to protect biodiversity?

A) less than 1%
B) 3%
C) 7%
D) 12%
E) 20%
54) After a disturbance, natural recovery of a biological community is most strongly influenced by

A) whether the disturbance has been caused by humans or by a natural agent.
B) the spatial scale of the disturbance.
C) whether the site is in a temperate or tropical area.
D) the availability of water nearby.
E) the season in which the disturbance occurred.
55) Human use of prokaryotic organisms to help detoxify a polluted wetland would be an example of

A) ecosystem augmentation.
B) keystone species introduction.
C) biological control.
D) bioremediation.
E) population viability analysis.
56) Which of the following is true about -hot spots-?

A) 1/3 of all species on Earth occupy less that 1.5% of the earth's land area.
B) All of the plants and animals containing genes that may be useful to humankind are located in the Earth's hot spots.
C) 75% of all of the undiscovered species of organisms live in ecological hot spots.
D) As conservation measures improve over the next ten years hot spots will likely disappear.
E) The hot spots that are in most dire need of remediation are located in the tundra.
57) The biggest challenge that Costa Rica will likely face in its dedication to conservation and restoration in the future is

A) the pressures of its growing population.
B) its small size (as a country) to maintain large enough reserves.
C) the potential for disturbance of sensitive species by ecotourism in reserves.
D) spread of disease and parasites via corridors from neighboring countries.
E) the large number of Costa Rican species already in the extinction vortex.
1) Ecologists conclude there is a biodiversity crisis because

A) biophilia causes humans to feel ethically responsible for protecting other species.
B) scientists have at last discovered and counted most of Earth's species and can now accurately calculate the current extinction rate.
C) current extinction rates are very high and many species are threatened or endangered.
D) many potential life-saving medicines are being lost as species evolve.
E) there are too few biodiversity hot spots.
2) Which of the following would be considered an example of bioremediation?

A) adding nitrogen-fixing microorganisms to a degraded ecosystem to increase nitrogen availability
B) using a bulldozer to regrade a strip mine
C) identifying a new biodiversity hot spot
D) reconfiguring the channel of a river
E) adding seeds of a chromium-accumulating plant to soil contaminated by chromium
3) What is the effective population size (Ne) of a population of 50 strictly monogamous swans (40 males and 10 females) if every female breeds successfully?

A) 50
B) 40
C) 30
D) 20
E) 10
4) One characteristic that distinguishes a population in an extinction vortex from most other populations is that

A) its habitat is fragmented.
B) it is a rare, top-level predator.
C) its effective population size is much lower than its total population size.
D) its genetic diversity is very low.
E) it is not well adapted to edge conditions.
5) The discipline that applies ecological principles to returning degraded ecosystems to more natural states is known as

A) population viability analysis.
B) landscape ecology. 6
C) conservation ecology.
D) restoration ecology.
E) resource conservation.
6) What is the single greatest threat to biodiversity?

A) overexploitation of commercially important species
B) introduced species that compete with or prey on native species
C) pollution of Earth's air, water, and soil
D) disruption of trophic relationships as more and more prey species become extinct
E) habitat alteration, fragmentation, and destruction
7) Which of the following strategies would most rapidly increase the genetic diversity of a population in an extinction vortex?

A) Capture all remaining individuals in the population for captive breeding followed by reintroduction to the wild.
B) Establish a reserve that protects the population's habitat.
C) Introduce new individuals transported from other populations of the same species.
D) Sterilize the least fit individuals in the population.
E) Control populations of the endangered population's predators and competitors.
8) Of the following statements about protected areas that have been established to preserve biodiversity, which one is not correct?

A) About 25% of Earth's land area is now protected.
B) National parks are one of many types of protected area.
C) Most protected areas are too small to protect species.
D) Management of a protected area should be coordinated with management of the land surrounding the area.
E) It is especially important to protect biodiversity hot spots.