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Terms in this set (76)
objective (can give a definitive quantitative number and can physically see these characteristics)
ex of ____ include: opportunistic infections, decreased CD4+ T cell count, fever, anemia, diarrhea, and fever
subjective (how the patient feels)
examples of ____ include: fatigue, muscle aches, muscle pain, headaches, malaise, abdominal cramps
Term for pathogen properties that aid it in causing disease.
a) virulence factors
individual infected with a pathogenic microbe who never exhibits overt signs and symptoms of the disease (asymptomatic)
What often determines the host range of a pathogen?
a) It's ability to replicate inside a host cell.
b) The exit strategy of the pathogen.
c) The ability of pathogen to attach to a host cell.
d) It's ability to destroy antibody.
e) Nutrient availability.
the ability of pathogen to attach to a host cell
Pathogens that have the ability to change their surface antigens are better able to do which of the following?
a) acquire nutrients
b) evade host defenses
c) attach to host cells
d) exit the host successfully
e) enter host cells
evade host defenses
The Herpes simplex I virus is able to avoid detection by the host immune system through this mechanism.
a) Antigenic variation.
b) The production of proteases that destroy antibodies.
c) The establishment of latency in sensory neurons.
d) The production of cytotoxins that kill macrophages.
e) The inhibition of B-cells.
the establishment of latency in sensory neurons
How does vertical transmission of a pathogen occur?
a) By an aerosol route.
b) As a result of an insect bite.
c) From mother to offspring.
d) By a sexual route.
e) By ingesting contaminated water.
from mother to offspring
transmission of a pathogen between members of a species other than parent to offspring
A(n) _____________________ disease is an infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to a human.
Term for the number of NEW cases of a disease within a population during a specific time period.
d) infectious dose 50
e) mortality rate
total number of cases in a population at a particular time
Which one of the following statements is NOT one of Koch's postulates?
a. Identify the suspected microbe in every person with the disease
b. Isolate the suspected microbe in pure culture
c. Identify virulence factors from the isolated microbe
d. Inoculate the isolated microbe into a susceptible host to see if it causes the disease
e. Recover the microbe from the experimentally inoculated host
identify virulence factors from the isolated microbe
Which of these outcomes is the focus of molecular Koch's postulates?
a. The isolation of the pathogen
b. The identification of the pathogen
c. The determination of the LD50
d. The determination of the ID50
e. The identification of virulence factor genes
the identification of virulence factor genes
Pathogenic E. coli strain O157:H7 evolved from a non-pathogenic strain as a result of this genetic change.
a) A mutation in a virulence gene.
b) A mutation that resulted in antibiotic resistance.
c) The acquisition of virulence genes from Shigella.
d) The use of antibiotic supplements in animal feeds.
e) A mutation that resulted in increased capsule production.
the acquisition of virulence genes from Shigella
Which is an example of innate immunity?
a) The development of a specific antibody response.
b) An immunization.
c) The development of a specific cell mediated response.
d) The removal of a bacterial cell in the lungs by a resident macrophage.
e) A quick immune response against an influenza virus because of a previous exposure.
the removal of a bacterial cell in the lungs by a resident macrophage
All of the following are clinical signs of inflammation at the site of injury EXCEPT:
c. Constriction of blood vessels
e. Formation of pus
constriction of BVs
What is the term for small proinflammatory protein molecules that are secreted by various cells to signal other cells of the immune system?
The inflammatory response will sometimes produce a fever. Why is fever considered a defense mechanism?
a) Fever slows the body's metabolism.
b) Fever decreases the inflammatory response.
c) Fever prevents a person from becoming cold.
d) Fever inhibits or decreases pathogen growth.
e) Fever stimulates antibody production.
fever inhibits or decreases pathogen growth
Which of these is true of an endemic disease?
a. It quickly appears and then disappears in a population
b. It is present in a population at numbers higher than expected
c. It is always epidemic on a worldwide scale
d. It is constantly present in a given population
e. It is spread by an animal vector
it is constantly present in a given population
Term for the coating of a microbial surface by PRRs, complement, and/or antibodies for the enhancement of phagocytosis.
Process of phagocytosis:
a. Opsonized microbe binds to phagocyte surface receptors
b. Cytoplasmic extensions surround and engulf the bound microbe
c. Phagosome forms and acidification begins
d. The phagosome fuses with lysosomes to form a phagolysosome
e. Oxidative burst and lysosomal enzymes kill the microbe
f. Exocytosis expels the debris
Which of these is able to bind to T cell receptors on a specific T cell?
a. Any epitope on an antigen
b. Any epitope
c. Any antigen
d. Only a single unique epitope on an antigen
e. Any ligand
only a single unique epitope on an antigen
Which of these can activate T cells during the adaptive immune response?
a. Only B cells
b. B cells and macrophages
c. Macrophages and dendritic cells
d. B cells and dendritic cells
e. B cells or macrophages or dendritic cells
B cells or macrophages or dendritic cells
Macrophages perform all the following functions except:
a. Present antigen on MHC I type molecules
b. Present antigen on MHC II type molecules
c. Phagocytize bacteria
d. Produce antibody
e. Activate T cells
1. IgG is able to bind ____ antigens
What is the first antibody made in the primary immune response?
Which of these is the antibody secreted in the largest amount by the body?
Which of these is the major antibody present in serum?
Which antibody is involved in the initiation of anaphylactic or allergic reactions?
IgG performs all the following activities except one. Which activity does it NOT perform?
a. Degranulation of basophils
b. Toxin neutralization
d. Complement activation
e. Crossing of placenta
degranulation of basophils
IgA in secretions has ____ antigen binding sites
IgM has ___ antigen binding sites
Which of these are B cell receptors able to bind?
a. Only proteins
b. Only polysaccharides
c. Only lipids
d. Only proteins and polysaccharides
e. Proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids
proteins, polysaccharides, and lipids
antibody producing cells
Antibodies protect the host from infections by performing all of the following activities except one. Select the activity it does NOT perform
a. Antigen degradation
b. Complement activation
e. ADCC killing of infected cells by NK cells
Staphylococcus aureus produces a fibronectin-binding protein as a virulence factor to aid in which activity?
a. Host cell lysis
b. Sequestering iron
d. Toxin mediated cell inactivation
e. Avoiding antibodies
large plasma glycoprotein in plasma and extracellular matrix
since fibronectin is everywhere in the body, it is a prime target for pathogen _____
What is the primary effect of lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on the host?
a) Attacks cells of the immune system.
b) Triggers an intense inflammatory response.
c) Acts as a neurotoxin.
d) Causes diarrhea.
e) Lyses epithelial cells.
triggers an intense inflammatory response
Lipoteichoic acids are associated with which of these bacteria?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Shigella sonnei
d. Klebsiella pneumoniae
e. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Lipoteichoic acid is present on ______ cells
Cattle may serve as a reservoir for E.coli strain O157:H7 because this strain does not cause any disease in cattle. This strain of E. coli can cause a potentially lethal Shiga toxin-mediated hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) in humans. Why don't cattle develop HUS?
a) The shiga toxin is not expressed in cattle.
b) E. coli is unable to effectively colonize the bovine intestine.
c) A protease in the cattle destroys the toxin.
d) Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor.
e) They produce antibody against the shiga toxin.
Bovine kidney cells do not have a shiga toxin receptor
Botulinum toxin belongs to a group of toxins called A-B toxins. What does the term "A-B" refer to?
a) Their antigen-binding properties.
b) Their antibody-binding toxins.
c) Their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit.
d) Their action on the brain.
e) Their activation of B-cells.
their enzymatically active subunit and cell binding subunit
Which of these symptoms is caused by a toxin produced by Clostridium botulinum?
a. Uncontrolled twitching
b. Flaccid paralysis
c. Spastic paralysis
Which cells are destroyed by hemolysins?
c. Epithelial cells
d. Red blood cells
e. Heart cells
Toxic shock syndrome is caused by Staphylococcus aureus is mediated by an exotoxin that acts as ___
Siderophores are a virulence factor because they allow the pathogen to perform what action?
a. Lyse lymphocytes
b. Bind the Fc region of the antibody molecule
c. Scavenge for free iron
d. Compete with the host cells for glucose
e. Invade host cells
scavenge for free iron
What is the most common cause of pharyngitis and tonsillitis in children?
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Corynebacterium tuberculosis
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Streptococcus pneumoniae
The HIV can be transmitted by ALL of the following mechanisms EXCEPT:
a. Through a mosquito bite
b. Mother to fetus
c. Blood transfusion
d. Sexual contact
e. Through breast milk
through a mosquito bite
HIV rates in the US have dropped dramatically due to: (3)
1. antiviral drugs
3. discouragingly mothers from breastfeeding newborns
How does the papillomavirus cause tumor formation?
a. By stimulating the host cell to replicate its DNA
b. By inhibiting tumor suppressor proteins in the host cell
c. By cap-snatching
d. By inhibiting apoptosis of the host cell
e. By inducing meiosis in the host cell
by inhibiting tumor suppressor proteins in the host cell
This is an example of a virus known to undergo evolutionary change by reassortment
a. Influenza virus
b. Papilloma virus
c. Hepatitis type B virus
d. Herpes virus
Evolution of viruses by reassortment causes dramatic changes to the virus. This is referred to as ____ ___
Viruses that undergo evolutionary change for reassortment are called ____ viruses
Which of the following is not a mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance?
a. Enzymatic inactivation of the drug
b. Removal of the drug from inside the cell
c. Blocking the uptake of the drug into the cell
d. Incorporation of the drug into cell material
e. Alteration of the drug's target site
incorporation of the drug into cell material
If 90% of a population is immune to a particular disease, they protect the susceptible 10% by a concept known as..
a. Acquired immunity
b. Herd immunity
c. Natural immunity
d. Artificial immunity
e. Passive immunity
The first pertussis vaccine produced used killed whole cells of Bordetella pertussis. A major problem with this vaccine was it...
a. Would only produce a weak immunity against the pathogen
b. Would only produce a cell-mediated immune response
c. Caused severe side-effects in some individuals
d. Required yearly boosters
e. Was only effective in about half the population
caused severe side-effects in some individuals
Subunit vaccines are generally considered safer than attenuated vaccines because...
a. Subunit vaccines do not require booster shots
b. Attenuated vaccines may cause disease in some individuals
c. Attenuated vaccines only elicit a humoral immune response
d. Attenuated vaccines elicit a weak immune response
e. Subunit vaccines elicit both humoral and cell-mediated immune responses
attenuated vaccines may cause disease in some individuals
All of the following are components that may be used by a pathogen for attachment to a host cell except:
b. Lipoteichoic acid
c. Attachment proteins
e. Surface glycoproteins
Which host surface allows for adherence to occur?
viral-induced cellular destruction
The poliovirus and hepatitis A virus are both spread by a ____ route of transmission
hepatitis A and E are what type of transmission?
hepatitis B and C are what type of transmission?
not fecal oral - vertical
zoonotic is what type of transmission
Which of these would lead to a recombination of viruses?
a. Crossover events during meiosis
b. Errors during DNA replication
c. Crossover events during mitosis
d. Errors during RNA replication
e. Co-infection of a cell by two different strains of the virus
co-infection of a ell by two different strains of the virus
Term for clustering of virulence genes on the chromosome of a pathogenic microbe
b. Pathogenicity island
e. Enhancer region
The current Dtap or Tdap vaccine is an example of a _____ vaccine that consists of 1+ isolated protective antigens
The Dtap vaccine is preventing what 3 diseases?
diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
epstein barr is what type of virus
rabies, west nile, lyme disease, SIV, and ebola are what type of viruses
Cellulitis, erysipelas, glomerulonephritis, rheumatic heart disease & rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, impetigo, necrotizing fasciitis, puerperal fever, pharyngitis/tonsillitis, septicemia, and TSS are all caused by ____ ____
Bacteria that inhibits the stomach founded by Barry marshal
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