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2020
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The pathogenesis in Trimethylaminuria is
A. Mutation in an intestinal enzyme
B. Mutation in a liver enzyme
C. Mutation in flavinmonooxygenase
D. Mutation in a blood protein
E. B & CE. B & CWhat over-the-counter medication would you use to demonstrate reduction in body odor in a suspected TMAU patient?
A. Aspirin
B. Laxative
C. Tetracycline
D. Garlic
E. Derafil
F. IbuprofenE. DerafilA protein rich in tryptophan will lead to what odorous breakdown products?
A. Rotten eggs
B. Urine (ammonia) odor
C. Decaying body
D. Excrement, fecesD. Excrement, feces
(indole, skatole)Which of the following risk factors are associated with poor oral hygiene?
a. Reduced salivation
b. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
c. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
d. None of the aboveb. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
c. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with periodontitis?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with oral infections and/or ulcerations?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with oral cancer?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with mouth breathing?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveA. Reduced salivationWhich of the following risk factors are associated with xerostemia?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveA. Reduced salivationWhich of the following risk factors are associated with retronasal drip?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with tongue pathology (fissured tongue, geographic tongue, median rhomboid glossitis, black hairy tongue)?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavityWhich of the following risk factors are associated with faulty restorations?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveB. Increased retentivity for food and bacteriaWhich of the following risk factors are associated with anti-Parkinson's medication?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveA. Reduced salivationWhich of the following risk factors are associated with hypersalivation?
A. Reduced salivation
B. Increased retentivity for food and bacteria
C. Increased bacterial load of the oral cavity
D. None of the aboveD. None of the aboveName 4 ingredients in a mouthwash that were shown to be effective in reducing symptoms of halitosis:A: zinc chloride, chlorine dioxide, sodium chlorite, essential oilsWhat amino acid(s) is(are) the source of oral malodor that smells like rotten egg? [Select all that apply]
A. Methionine
B. Cysteine
C. Glutamine
D. Aspartic acid
E. Serine
F. Glycine
G. Glutamic acidA. Methionine
B. Cysteine
(also cystine; not listed)What is the most frequent cause of halitosis?
A. Oral problems
B. Metabolic disorders
C. Enzyme deficiency
D. Mouth breathing
E. Gastric problemsA. Oral problemsWhat are major risk factors in development of halitosis? [Select all that apply]
A. Retentive oral surfaces
B. Xerostomia
C. Diet rich in citrus fruit
D. Poor oral hygiene
E. Fissured tongueA. Retentive oral surfaces
B. Xerostomia
D. Poor oral hygiene
E. Fissured tongueWhat ingredient would you recommend for inclusion into an effective mouthwash against halitosis? [Select all that apply]
A. chlorine dioxide
B. sodium dioxide
C. zinc sulfate
D. sodium bicarbonate
E. zinc chlorideA. chlorine dioxide
E. zinc chlorideWhat amino acid breakdown produces hydrogen sulfide? [There may be more than one correct answer]
A. Methionine
B. Trypotophan
C. Serine
D. Cystine
E. CysteineA. Methionine
D. Cystine
E. CysteineHalitosis is the product of bacterial metabolism / interacting with protein substrate from saliva or food.
A. Both statements are correct
B. Both statements are incorrect
C. First statement is correct, second is incorrect
D. First statement is incorrect, second is correctA. Both statements are correctWhat two amino acids are used by bacteria to generate sulfur containing compounds?
A. Leucine and tryptophan
B. Methionine and arginine
C. Lysine and arginine
D. Cysteine and arginine
E. Cysteine and methionineE. Cysteine and methionineHere is the list of events involved in the primary mechanism of halitosis. Place these items in the correct order.
- Increased permeability
- Protein substrates are degraded
- Bacteria are trapped
- Volatile compounds are generated
- Amino acids are generated- 1- Bacteria are trapped
- 2- Protein substrates are degraded
- 3 - Amino acids are generated
- 4 - Volatile compounds are generated
- 5 - Increased permeabilityFill in the blank:__________ bacteria are the predominant cause of halitosis.(gram-negative) anaerobicWhich simple test is the best way to self diagnose halitosis?
A. The lick test
B. Hand cuppingA. The lick testHigh caries rates affected human civilization even during ancient times. Similarly, periodontal disease was a prevalent condition.
Both statements are true
Both statetments are false
The first statement is false, the second statement is true
The first statement is true, the second statement is falseThe first statement is false, the second statement is trueCarbohydrates are primarily digested by amylase secreted by:
A. the salivary gland
B. gastric mucosa
C. duodenum
D. pancreas
E. ileumD. pancreasGlycolysis leads to lactic acid through:
A. respiration
B. fermentation
C. cellular respiration
D. electron transport chainB. fermentationCariogenic bacteria have what type of glycolytic pathway?
A. Facultative aerobic
B. Facultative anaerobic
C. Obligate anaerobic
D. Obligate aerobic
E. Bacteria do not use the glycolytic pathwayB. Facultative anaerobicBacterial carbohydrate metabolism involving the GTF enzyme generates what?
A. glycogen
B. glucose
C. glucans
D. gluculose
E. GTFC. glucansWhat are glucans?
A. glucose polymers
B. an extracellular matrix
C. a sticky polysaccharide
D. a substrate for GTFA. glucose polymers
B. an extracellular matrix
C. a sticky polysaccharide
D. a substrate for GTFWhat are the three virulence factors of cariogenic bacteria like Streptococcus mutans?1. acidogenic
2. aciduric
3. glucan synthesisFluoridation started in:
A. DC in 1932
B. Maryland 1928
C. Iowa 1950
D. Michigan 1945D. Michigan 1945Fluoride has anticaries activity through the following mechanisms
A. substitutes calcium in HA
B. stabilizes HAP
C. increases enamel dissolution coefficient
D. substitutes hydroxyl groups
E. lowers the critical pH by a factor of 1B. stabilizes HAP
D. substitutes hydroxyl groupsFluoride has anticaries activity through the following mechanisms:
A. substitutes phosphate in HA
B. inhibits bacterial enolase
C. lowers enamel dissolution
D. inhibits bacterial glycolysis
E. lower the critical pH by a factor of 10B. inhibits bacterial enolase
C. lowers enamel dissolution
D. inhibits bacterial glycolysis
E. lower the critical pH by a factor of 10Fluoride has anticaries activity through the following mechanisms:
A. inhibits bacterial intracellular polysaccharide synthesis
B. increases intracellular pH
C. lowers enamel lattice structure
D. inhibits bacterial sugar uptake
E. lower the critical pH by a factor of 100A. inhibits bacterial intracellular polysaccharide synthesis
C. lowers enamel lattice structure
D. inhibits bacterial sugar uptakeIndicate the type(s) of sugar(s) our organism can gain from as part of our diet (select all that apply)
A. Glycogen
B. Sucrose
C. Starch
D. LactoseA. Starch
B. Sucrose
C. LactoseHow many molecules of ATP are generated by anaerobic glycolysis in bacteria?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32A. 2What is the end product of the glycolytic anaerobic pathway?
A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Pyruvate
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Lactic acid
E. GTPD. Lactic acidIndicate the mechanisms that fluoride uses in anti-caries activity (select all that apply)
A. Inhibits bacterial glycolysis
B. Lowers the critical pH by a factor of 10
C. Substitutes phosphates in HA
D. Lowers enamel dissolution
E. Inhibits bacterial enolaseA. Inhibits bacterial glycolysis
B. Lowers the critical pH by a factor of 10
D. Lowers enamel dissolution
E. Inhibits bacterial enolaseIf a systemically administered drug or drug metabolite is detected in the saliva, then what salivary gland function caused this?
A. Salivary gland endocrine function
B. Salivary gland exocrine function
C. Salivary gland excretory function
D. Salivary gland paracrine functionC. Salivary gland excretory functionWhich of the following glands is serous in nature, a function that leads to a watery secretion (there may be more than one correct answer, please use all available resources on your VitalBook, including Anatomy and Histology books to answer this question).
A. Parotid gland
B. Von Ebner's glands
C. Sublingual glands
D. Submandibular glands
E. Minor salivary glands of the lip and palateA. Parotid gland
B. Von Ebner's glandsWhich of the following glands is (are) mucous in nature, a function that leads to a viscous secretion (there may be more than one correct answer, please use all available resources on your VitalBook, including Anatomy and Histology books to answer this question
A. Parotid gland
B. Von Ebner's glands
C. Submandibular
D. Sublingual
E. Minor salivary glands of the lip and palateC. Submandibular
D. SublingualIf you were an oral surgeon and had to remove the submandibular salivary gland because of a salivary stone, how would you approach it?
To answer this question you need to review the regional anatomy of the submandibular salivary gland. Please do that before answering this question.
A. Intraoral
B. Extraoral
C. Both are acceptable
D. OtherB. ExtraoralWhat salivary gland has the highest percentage of salivary stones?
A. Sublingual gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Parotid gland
D. Minor salivary glandsB. Submandibular gland
- it has a long and bent duct that slows the flow of saliva, has a viscous secretion and the large duct allows oral inflow of bacteria containing seeds around which salivary calcium phosphate precipitatePick the components of the oral fluid from the following list. There may be more than one correct answer. To answer this question, you will need to review the previous section and the anatomy of the oropharyngeal region to locate the various glands involved. Search your VitalBook.
A. Blood
B. Serum
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Urine
E. Bile
F. GCF
G. Parotid saliva
H. Minor salivary gland
I. Von Ebner's gland secretion
J. Mucosal transudateF. GCF
G. Parotid saliva
H. Minor salivary gland
I. Von Ebner's gland secretion
J. Mucosal transudateWhat increases the amount of gingivocrevicular fluid in the oral fluid?
A. Periodontal inflamation
B. Parotid gland inflammation
C. Submandibular gland inflammation
D. Minor salivary gland inflammationA. Periodontal inflamationWhat is the nature of saliva when first secreted in the gland?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. EndotonicA. Isotonic
- same tonicity as bloodWhat is the nature of saliva when secreted into the oral cavity under resting conditions (no stimulation)?
A. Isotonic
B. Hypertonic
C. Hypotonic
D. EndotonicC. Hypotonic
- tonicity less than bloodWhat two ions are reabsorbed in the ductal system of the salivary gland?
A. Potasium and chloride
B. Sodium and potassium
C. Sodium and calcium
D. Chloride and sodium
E. Calcium and potassiumD. Chloride and sodiumWhat is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: amylase (note: there may be multiple correct answers for this question)
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and Viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationC. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coatingWhat is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: Mucins (note: there may be multiple correct answers)
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and Viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationA. Anti-viral
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
G. Lubrication and ViscoelasticityWhat are the main two reasons one can become xerostomic (low saliva production)?
A. Removal of a sublingual salivary gland
B. Polypharmacy
C. Sjogren's disease
D. Suction during dental treatmentB. Polypharmacy
C. Sjogren's diseaseWhat is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: Proline-rich proteins (note: there may be multiple correct answers)
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationE. Tissue coating
H. MineralizationWhat is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: Statherin (note: there may be multiple correct answers).
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationE. Tissue coating
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationHow is the calcium phosphate concentration in saliva
A. Subsaturated
B. Supersaturated
C. Undersaturated
D. IsotonicB. SupersaturatedHow is starch degraded in the oral cavity? (more than one answer could be correct)
A. With delta-amylase
B. With alpha amylase
C. Breaking the alpha 1-4 link
D. Breaking the delta 1-6 linkB. With alpha amylase
C. Breaking the alpha 1-4 linkWhat is (are) the amino acid(s) that accept O-linked carbohydrates?
A. Serine
B. Tryptophan
C. Threonine
D. Asparagine
E. Aspartic acid
F. Arginine
G. Lysine
H. HistidineA. Serine
C. ThreonineWhat is (are) the amino acid(s) that accept N-linked carbohydrates (note: there may be multiple correct answers).
A. Serine
B. Tryptophan
C. Threonine
D. Asparagine
E. Aspartic acid
F. Arginine
G. Lysine
H. HistidineD. AsparagineWhat is the name of the structure that is formed on the tooth surface shortly after the enamel has been cleaned in a dental office?
A. Acquired dental film
B. Acquired enamel pellicle
C. Bioprotective film
D. Acquired bioprotectionB. Acquired enamel pellicle
(or biofilm)What is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: lysozyme (Note: there may be multiple correct answers).
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationA. Anti-viral
D. Anti-bacterialWhat is (are) the function(s) of the following protein: defensins (Note: There may be multiple correct answers).
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationA. Anti-viral
D. Anti-bacterialWhat are the two membrane components that lysozyme cleaves (Note: there may be multiple correct answers).
A. N-methyl aspartate
B. N-acetyl glutamic acid
C. N-acetyl glucosamine
D. N-phenyl glutamate
E. N-acetyl muramic acidC. N-acetyl glucosamine
E. N-acetyl muramic acidWhat is the mechanism by which defensins work?
A. Cleave the alpha 1-4 linkage
B. Create a pore in the membrane
C. Cleave the NAM-NAG bond in the membrane
D. Both A and B are correctB. Create a pore in the membraneWhat salivary function is covered by the largest number of proteins?
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Anti-bacterial
D. DigestionC. Anti-bacterialWhat salivary function is covered by the fewest number of proteins?
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Anti-bacterial
D. MineralizationB. Anti-fungalWhat is the status of calcium phosphate in saliva?
A. Hypotonic
B. Supersaturated
C. Saturated
D. IsotonicB. SupersaturatedWhat is the fate of sodium and chloride in the salivary ductal system
A. Sodium is excreted, chloride reabsorbed
B. Sodium is reabsorbed, chloride is excreted
C. Both sodium and chloride are reabsorbed
D. Both sodium and chloride are excretedC. Both sodium and chloride are reabsorbedWhat is the first layer of the biofilm, the one closest to the tooth surface
A. Bacterial pathogen layer 1
B. Gram negative pathogenic layer
C. Salivary proteins
D. Salivary mucinC. Salivary proteinsAfter eating a potato chips what primary enzyme starts the breakdown of the carbohydrates
A. Salivary lipase
B. Salivary amylase
C. Salivary mucins
D. Salivary proteasesB. Salivary amylaseWhat protein function as buffering agent?
A. Mucins
B. Carbonic anhydrases
C. Amylase
D. gp340B. Carbonic anhydrasesIndicate all the functions and roles of salivary amylase (select all that apply.)
A. Lubrication and Viscoelasticity
B. Tissue coating
C. Anti-viral
D. Anti-fungal
E. Digestion
F. Mineralization
G. Anti-bacterial
H. BufferingB. Tissue coating
E. Digestion
G. Anti-bacterialIndicate all the functions and roles of salivary mucins (select all that apply.)
A. Mineralization
B. Digestion
C. Anti-viral
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Anti-fungal
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and Viscoelasticity
H. Tissue coatingB. Digestion
C. Anti-viral
D. Anti-bacterial
G. Lubrication and Viscoelasticity
H. Tissue coatingIndicate the two main reasons that leads to dry mouth.
A. Sjögren's disease
B. Aging
C. Polypharmacy
D. Removal of a sublingual salivary gland
E. Radiation treatment
F. MouthbreathingA. Sjögren's disease
C. PolypharmacyIndicate the functions and roles of statherins (select all that apply.)
A. Anti-viral
B. Anti-fungal
C. Digestion
D. Anti-bacterial
E. Tissue coating
F. Buffering
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationE. Tissue coating
G. Lubrication and viscoelasticity
H. MineralizationWhat salivary functions are covered by the largest number and least number of proteins, respectively?
A. Anti-viral and anti-bacterial
B. Anti-fungal and mineralization
C. Anti-bacterial and anti-fungal
D. Digestion and mineralizationC. Anti-bacterial and anti-fungalWhat salivary agent functions as a buffer?
A. Statherin
B. Amylase
C. Bicarbonate
D. MucinsC. BicarbonateWhich of the following diets requires attention with regard to B12 intake?
A. Protein-rich Atkins diet
B. Strict vegan diet
C. Lacto-ovo vegetarians
D. b and cD. b and cWhich of the following foods is NOT a good source of calcium?
A. Peeled shrimp
B. Almonds
C. Broccoli
D. TahiniA. Peeled shrimpWhich of the following macronutrients produces the least calories per gram?
A. Water
B. Protein
C. Fats
D. CarbohydratesA. WaterWhich of the following fat soluble vitamins acts as a true enzyme cofactor?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin EB. Vitamin KFolate or folic acid is important for fetal development because (choose best answer):
A. It boost kidney function in the mother
B. It increases neuron-synapse connections in developing brain
C. It amplifies red blood cell production
D. It improves capillary circulationC. It amplifies red blood cell productionWhich of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
A. Met
B. Lys
C. Cys
D. PheC. CysVegan diets offer which of the following benefits?
A. Lessened risk of cardiovascular disease
B. Low percentage of joint diseases
C. Higher levels of circulating LDL
D. Lower risk of food allergiesA. Lessened risk of cardiovascular diseaseWhich food is enriched in the "reference protein"?
A. Cheese
B. Plain omelet
C. Salami
D. SushiB. Plain omeletAn acceptable animal protein source for non-strict vegan diets is caviar.
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueChoose the correct ranking of daily protein requirements for the following individuals (i.e., who needs more protein?)
A. Angry Toddler > High School Female > Elderly man
B. High School Male Quarterback > Curious Toddler > Tom Brady
C. Kim Kardashian > Donald Trump > Selena Gomez
D. Keith Richards > 5th grader > Pacified ToddlerD. Keith Richards > 5th grader > Pacified ToddlerMost people in the US overconsume protein. After energy/calorie needs are met, what happens to the excess protein in their systems?
A. Used to build skeletal muscle
B. Stored as fat
C. Excreted
D. Converted to ketone bodiesB. Stored as fatBased upon USDA adequate intake recommendations, how much total fiber in grams does one need to consume on a daily basis if the daily caloric intake is 1500 calories?
A. 1500
B. 21
C. 25
D. 2000B. 21A deficiency in Vitamin E will result in
A. tachycardia
B. poor blood clotting time
C. lower oxygen content in peripheral tissues
D. night blindnessC. lower oxygen content in peripheral tissuesA deficiency in Vitamin B12 will result in
A. kidney disorders
B. problems with distance vision
C. problems with taste organs
D. dementiaD. dementiaSoluble fibers help to reduce certain digestive tract carcinomas
A. True
B. FalseB. FalseIn terms of carbohydrate intake, our diets should ideally include
A. natural simple and refined simple carbohydrates
B. natural complex and refined complex carbohydrates
C. natural simple and natural complex carbohydrates
D. natural complex and refined simple carbohydratesC. natural simple and natural complex carbohydratesWhich of the following enzymes is responsible for the initial digestion of carbohydrates?
A. Sucrase
B. Salivary amylase
C. Intestinal amylase
D. MaltaseB. Salivary amylaseA strict vegan diet is a zinc-deficient diet.
A. True
B. FalseB. FalseWhich of the following vitamins can be found in adipose tissue?
A. Vitamin B6
B. Folic acid
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin CC. Vitamin B12For strict vegans, how many daily servings of protein are recommended (hint: the pyramid)?
A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 3 to 4
D. more than 4B. 2 to 3Which of the following amino acid pairs MUST be obtained from dietary sources (i.e., both are essential)
A. Leu, Asp
B. Lys, Glu
C. His, Met
D. Gly, TrpC. His, MetAnimal products have a higher bio-availability index (BV) than animal flesh.
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueIf a patient of yours limits their diet to consuming only nuts and seeds, what amino acids will they be lower or deficient in?
A. Trp/Met
B. Asp/Glu
C. Lys/Ile
D. Lys/ThrC. Lys/IleWhat is another name for Vitamin B9?
A. Cobalamin
B. Folate
C. Niacin
D. RiboflavinB. FolateHydroxyapatite crystal size is inversely proportional to the
A. rate of matrix vesicle rupture
B. rate of crystal formation
C. rate of Type I collagen fibril formation
D. rate of SIBLING protease cleavageB. rate of crystal formationWhere is ACP forming during the biomineralization of dentin and bone?
A. matrix vesicles of both the odontoblast and ameloblast
B. matrix vesicles of the odontoblast
C. matrix vesicles of the ameloblast
D. within Type I collagen fibrilsB. matrix vesicles of the odontoblastHydroxyapatite is
A. highly crystalline, highly ordered, and non-porous
B. comprised of calcium, phosphate and high sulfate content
C. easily dissolved by acid
D. not very wear resistantA. highly crystalline, highly ordered, and non-porousWhich of the following is NOT true with regard to dentin formation?
A. Type I collagen controls the direction of HAP crystal growth
B. SIBLINGS and proteoglycans control HAP crystal size
C. Matrix vesicles act as a delivery system for transporting ACP, proteins, and proteoglycans to the extracellular matrix
D. Dentin-generating tissues derive from mesenchymeC. Matrix vesicles act as a delivery system for transporting ACP, proteins, and proteoglycans to the extracellular matrixWhat is the first step in the biomineralization process?
A. ECM self-assembly and mineral maturation occur
B. Mineral and ECM components are transported to the boundary space
C. Cells become synthetically active, mineral precursors and ECM components are made
D. Cells organize together to create a boundary spaceD. Cells organize together to create a boundary spaceWhich genes are implicated in the disease amelogenesis imperfecta?
A. ENAM, AMELX, TUFT1
B. AMBN, AMTN, AMELX
C. ENAM, AMTN, TUFT1
D. AMELX, AMBN, ENAMA. ENAM, AMELX, TUFT1With regard to tissue engineering of bone, what are the major drawbacks of synthetic bone replacement materials?
A. They are difficult to stabilize within large bone defect sites
B. Remodeling of replacement materials may be slow relative to autografts
C. In the case of bioactive glasses, they are typically brittle in nature
D. All of the aboveD. All of the aboveOsteoporosis results in the net loss of bone matrix. This happens due to
A. a decrease in osteoclast activity, increase in osteoblast activity
B. an increase in osteoclast activity, no change in osteoblast activity
C. a decrease in osteoblast activity, no change in osteoclast activity
D. a decrease in both osteoblast and osteoclast activitiesC. a decrease in osteoblast activity, no change in osteoclast activityDentinogenesis imperfecta arises as a result of
A. Defects in Type I collagen genes
B. Defects in proteoglycan processing
C. Defects in specific non-collagenous protein genes
D. Defects in matrix vesicle formationC. Defects in specific non-collagenous protein genesAmelogenesis imperfecta manifests in the oral cavity as
A. Incomplete dentin formation
B. White, shiny enamel
C. Insufficient enamel mineralization
D. Large crown-to-root ratiosC. Insufficient enamel mineralizationACP formation begins in
A. Golgi
B. Matrix vesicles
C. Cytosol
D. MitochondriaD. MitochondriaThe incipient carious lesion is the first clinical sign of caries. Why does this lesion appear white against the normal enamel surface?
A. Bacteria are releasing chemical products that reflect light
B. Collapse of enamel rods leads to changes in surface reflectivity at lesion region
C. Demineralization of enamel surface allows dentin to show through the enamel
D. Plaque biofilm is shinyB. Collapse of enamel rods leads to changes in surface reflectivity at lesion regionThe presence of a collagenous tissue layer interface between cortical bone and a dental implant surface is evidence of
A. osseointegration
B. poor tissue-to-implant adaptation
C. fibro-osseous integration
D. overloading of implant by opposing dentitionC. fibro-osseous integrationA patient received a titanium implant for replacement of a surgically extracted mandibular first molar. Within months, the implant fails. Removal of the implant and subsequent clinical exam reveal that the surgical site and surrounding dentition are normal, but the implant titanium surface was found to be very smooth. Why did the implant fail?
A. Poor preparation of the implant tissue site
B. Absence of surface roughness or porosity in the titanium
C. Imbalance of occlusal forces in the oral cavity
D. Lack of proximal contacts between restorative crown and surrounding dentitionB. Absence of surface roughness or porosity in the titaniumCurrently, why are autografts the "go-to" therapy for large bone defects?
A. implantable materials lack decent tissue compatibility
B. large defects require stabilization that autografts provide
C. bone tissue resorption is suppressed by autografts
D. osteoclasts are more responsive to autograftingB. large defects require stabilization that autografts provideWhich of the following proteins is NOT a member of the SIBLING class?
A. DMP-1
B. Type-I Collagen
C. BSP
D. MEPGB. Type-I CollagenWhich of the following are used as labels for nucleic acid probes?
A. Fluorescent molecules
B. Radioactive atoms
C. Nanoparticles
D. All of the aboveD. All of the aboveIn nucleic acid hybridization procedure, which step allows single stranded nucleic acids to bind to one another?
A. heating step
B. cooling or annealing step
C. mixing step
D. labeling stepB. cooling or annealing stepFlush cut restriction endonucleases are not as useful as staggered cut restriction endonucleases when it comes to assembling DNA fragments into new constructs.
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueThe staggered cut restriction endonuclease generates "sticky ends" as a result of:
A. generating single stranded regions from asymmetric cleavage of DNA
B. generating single stranded regions from symmetric cleavage of DNA
C. generating double stranded regions from symmetric cleavage of DNA
D. generating double stranded regions from asymmetric cleavage of DNAA. generating single stranded regions from asymmetric cleavage of DNAMicrofluidics may eventually replace gel electrophoresis as a nucleic acid separation technique because:
A. microfluidics can handle smaller quantities of nucleic acids
B. gel electrophoresis can't separate nucleic acids by 1 base pair
C. gel electrophoresis can't be used in probe hybridization schemes
D. all of the aboveA. microfluidics can handle smaller quantities of nucleic acidsWhat purpose does the oligo-dT molecule serve in reverse transcriptase synthesis of cDNA?
A. acts as a ligase
B. acts as a primer for 3' to 5' cDNA synthesis
C. acts as a primer for 5' to 3' cDNA synthesis
D. hydrolyzes RNA once the enzyme has completed DNA synthesisC. acts as a primer for 5' to 3' cDNA synthesisIn PCR amplification, what is the minimum requirement for starting DNA material?
A. 1 mole of DNA
B. 1 molecule of DNA
C. 1 milligram of DNA
D. 1 picomole of DNAB. 1 molecule of DNAIn the RFLP technique, how does one detect the mutation within a known gene region?
A. only by the size of the fragments generated by restriction fragmentation
B. by the size and number of fragments generated by restriction fragmentation
C. only by the number of fragments generated by restriction fragmentation
D. none of the aboveB. by the size and number of fragments generated by restriction fragmentationFluorescent proteins such as green fluorescence protein (GFP) can be used to study RNA stability and promoter activity
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueWhich of the following statements is false?
A. Following the appearance of AIDS, it was important to isolate causative agent for study
B. The retrovirus HIV-1 contains DNA genomes in their virions
C. Restriction maps of different HIV-1 genome allow analysis of sequence diversity among the viruses
D. A fusion protein consists of a single polypeptide with amino acids from two proteinsB. The retrovirus HIV-1 contains DNA genomes in their virionsTo study and detect HIV DNA and its presence in cells, one would perform a
A. Northern Blot
B. Southern Blot
C. Eastern Blot
D. Western BlotB. Southern BlotThe GFP protein does which of the following?
A. adsorbs blue light, emits blue light
B. adsorbs blue light, emits green light
C. can emit other wavelengths of light depending on sequence mutations
D. b and cD. b and cWhich of the following features would make a good nucleic acid probe?
A. Has a high A, T content
B. Self-associates and forms hairpin
C. Probe length larger than 20 base pairs
D. Is unlabeledC. Probe length larger than 20 base pairsIf RNA is run on a gel, and the corresponding bands are transferred to a support for subsequent nucleic acid probe analysis, then we would call this blotting technique:
A. Northern
B. Southern
C. Western
D. Nor' easterA. Northern3. For PCR amplification, either single or double stranded DNA can be used as a starting sample.
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueDNA fingerprinting and RFLP mapping are similar techniques in that both rely on probe hybridization to identify genes or changes in genes.
A. True
B. FalseB. FalseWhich of the following enzymes joins DNA fragments together?
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. DNA ligase
C. RNA polymerase
D. Restriction endonucleasesB. DNA ligaseIn the dideoxy DNA sequencing method, what does the incorporation of dideoxy nucleotides (dDNTPs) achieve?
A. Terminates the growing DNA chain
B. Extends the growing DNA chain
C. Potentially can be used to label the end of the chain
D. A and CD. A and CTo make a recombinant protein, which of the following tools would be useful for inserting a foreign gene into a recombinant plasmid?
A. Flush cut restriction endonuclease
B. Staggered cut restriction endonuclease
C. DNA ligase
D. B and CD. B and CWhich of the following is not necessary for transcription?
A. RNA polymerase
B. DNA
C. Ribonucleoside triphosphates
D. A primerD. A primerWhy do eukaryotic cells have a nucleus?
A. To separate transcription from translation
B. To protect the DNA
C. To keep ribosomes out of the nucleus
D. So that no other RNA's can interfere in transcriptionA. To separate transcription from translationWhy are there three different isoforms of RNA polymerase in eukaryotic cells?
A. To copy the large number of genes in eukaryotes
B. Due to the different promoters, this increases the number of different promoters
C. Increases the number of possible initiator sequences
D. Increases how many genes can be transcribed at the same timeB. Due to the different promoters, this increases the number of different promotersWhich is the smallest RNA molecule on the list below?
A. Piwi-interacting RNA
B. Small nucleolar RNA
C. Small interfering RNA
D. Small nuclear RNAC. Small interfering RNAWhy does the presence of lactose induce the lac operon to be transcribed and translated?
A. Lactose activates the transcription of the gene by binding to the promoter
B. Lactose binds to the repressor and allows the RNA pol to bind and transcribe the DNA
C. Lactose activates mRNA binding to ribosomes
D. Lactose binds to the Shine-Delgarno sequenceB. Lactose binds to the repressor and allows the RNA pol to bind and transcribe the DNAWith the exception of U in place of T, the primary mRNA transcript produced during transcription is identical to which of the following?
A. the template strand of DNA
B. the coding strand of DNA
C. the sense strand of DNA
D. the nonsense strand of DNAB. the coding strand of DNAWhich strand of the DNA is copied to transcribe to the mRNA?
A. The coding strand
B. Either strand
C. The templating strand
D. The one oriented in the 3' to 5' directionC. The templating strandWhat is the direction of the synthesis of RNA?
A. In the 5' to 3' direction
B. In the 3' to 5' direction
C. It depends on which strand is being transcribed
D. Either direction, depending on the RNA polymeraseA. In the 5' to 3' directionIn the initiation of transcription, what is the function of the promoter region?
A. It activates the gene to be copied
B. It is the site for the binding of transcriptional activating factors to the DNA
C. It is the site for the binding of RNA polymerase to bind to the DNA upstream of transcription initiation
D. It the site for the binding of DNA polymeraseC. It is the site for the binding of RNA polymerase to bind to the DNA upstream of transcription initiationNitrogenous bases on mRNA are organized into three letter codes known as
A. triplets
B. anticodons
C. codons
D. triadsC. codonsWhich of the following types of RNA is primarily responsible for joining amino acids together to form a polypeptide chain during translation?
A. tRNA
B. miRNA
C. mRNA
D. siRNAA. tRNAWhich is true of bacterial transcription?
A. One of the promoter sites is the Pribnow box.
B. One of the promoter sites is the TATA box.
C. One of the promoter sites is the CAAT box.
D. One of the promoter sites is the GC box.A. One of the promoter sites is the Pribnow box.The consensus sequence found for the Pribnow box, also known as the -10 site, is
A. TATAAT
B. GGGGAA
C. TGTGTG
D. GAGAAGA. TATAATWhat is the difference between core and holoenzyme?
A. The binding of sigma factor to holoenzyme
B. The binding of upstream transcription factors
C. The binding of sigma factor to core enzyme
D. The binding of rho factorC. The binding of sigma factor to core enzymeWhich is true during the elongation phase of transcription?
A. The sigma subunit remains bound to RNA polymerase.
B. The coding strand of the DNA is transcribed.
C. Transcription occurs in the 5' to 3' direction of the RNA.
D. RNA polymerase alternately binds and releases DNA.C. Transcription occurs in the 5' to 3' direction of the RNA.Transcription begins:
A. upstream from the promoter region
B. upstream from the Shine-Delgarno sequence
C. downstream from the promoter region
D. when repressor protein bindsC. downstream from the promoter regionWhat is present at the 3' end of eukaryotic mRNA?
A. The methyl cap
B. The stop codons
C. The poly A tail
D. The poly G tailC. The poly A tailWhich of the following represents post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
A. 5' methylated capping
B. polyadenylation of the 5' end
C. aminoacylation
D. phosphorylation of serine or theonineA. 5' methylated cappingRibosomes
A. are made of proteins and RNA.
B. are the sites of protein synthesis.
C. can spontaneously self assemble.
D. all the aboveD. all the aboveWhich of the following concerning tRNA's is false?
A. They have cloverleaf structures.
B. They bind to mRNAs at the anticodon.
C. They bind the amino acid at the 3' end.
D. They consist only of the nucleotides AMP, UMP, CMP and GMP.D. They consist only of the nucleotides AMP, UMP, CMP and GMP.Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genetic code?
A. The code is degenerate
B. The code is universal across all forms of life
C. Three nucleotides encode an amino acid
D. The code has directionality, 5' to 3'B. The code is universal across all forms of lifeWhy is the triplet code degenerate?
A. Because there is only one start codon
B. Because there are three stop codons
C. Because there are 64 codons for 20 amino acids
D. Because only 61 of the possible 64 codons code for amino acidsC. Because there are 64 codons for 20 amino acidsWhich of the following is involved only with prokaryotic translation?
A. the AUG start codon
B. rRNAs
C. Shine-Delgarno sequences
D. aminoacyl-tRNAsC. Shine-Delgarno sequencesWhich is true?
A. There are three initiation codons.
B. The initiation codon is AUG.
C. There are four termination (nonsense) codons.
D. There is one termination codon.B. The initiation codon is AUG.In prokaryotic cells the initiator AUG codes for
A. cysteine
B. alanine
C. methionine
D. tryptophanC. methionineWhich represents post-transcriptional modification of mRNA
A. 5' capping
B. polyamidation
C. aminoacylation
D. phosphorylation of serine or theonineA. 5' cappingBacterial transcription begins
A. downstream from the Pribnow box
B. at the Shine-Delgarno sequence
C. upstream from the promoter region
D. when TFIID bindsA. downstream from the Pribnow boxWhat is the Shine-Delgarno sequence?
A. It is the RNA initiator of translation region found on the mRNA
B. It is the ribosomal binding site on the mRNA
C. It is the enhancer region
D. It is the sequence for tRNA binding to the ribosomeB. It is the ribosomal binding site on the mRNAWhich is not true of Eukaryotic mRNA?
A. it has a 3' methylated cap
B. it usually has introns spliced out
C. it contains exons
D. it as a 3' poly A tailA. it has a 3' methylated capWhich is true of bacterial transcription?
A. One of the promoter sites is the CAAT box
B. One of the promoter sites is the Pribnow box
C. Introns are spliced out of mRNA
D. There are two promoter sites, the Pribnow box and the GC boxB. One of the promoter sites is the Pribnow boxA feature which distinguishes DNA polymerases from RNA polymerases is that?
A. the former requires both a template and a primer
B. the latter requires both a template and a primer
C. the former enzyme is not processive during replicative synthesis
D. the latter has proofreading capacityA. the former requires both a template and a primerWhat is the anti codon?
A. The complementary sequence to the codon of mRNA that codes for an amino acid
B. The sequence of bases at the 3' end of tRNA to attach an amino acid
C. The initiator sequence for translation to begin
D. The tRNA site that binds to the ribosomesA. The complementary sequence to the codon of mRNA that codes for an amino acidWhich is not true of tRNA?
A. tRNA contains 3 loop-like regions
B. tRNA contains an anticodon
C. tRNA contains "unusual" bases
D. tRNA binds sigma factorD. tRNA binds sigma factorWhich statement about codons is true?
A. There are three initiation codons.
B. The initiation codon is AUG.
C. There are four termination codons.
D. There is one termination codon.B. The initiation codon is AUG.What does it mean that the Genetic Code is degenerate?
A. Most organisms use the same genetic code.
B. A minimum of three bases is needed to encode the 20 basic amino acids
C. The code is read from the 3′ end to the 5' end of the mRNA
D. Some amino acids are encoded by more than one codonD. Some amino acids are encoded by more than one codonWhich of the following represents post-transcriptional modification of mRNA?
A. 5' capping
B. phosphorylation of serine or threonine
C. aminoacylation
D. polyamidationA. 5' cappingA feature which distinguishes DNA polymerases from RNA polymerases is that
A. the latter has proofreading capacity
B. the former requires both a template and a primer
C. the former enzyme is not processive during replicative synthesis
D. the latter requires both a template and a primerB. the former requires both a template and a primerIn eukaryotic organisms there are three different types of RNA polymerase and transcription occurs within a membrane bound nucleus. RNA polymerases 1 & 3 are responsible for the transcription of what?
A. mRNA
B. iRNA
C. rRNA & tRNA
D. iRNA, rRNA & tRNAC. rRNA & tRNAThe nucleic acid polymer is held together by
A. 3'-5' ribose phosphate bond
B. 5'-3' ribose phosphate bond
C. Mg2+ bridges
D. Hydrogen bondsB. 5'-3' ribose phosphate bondDNA replication of each strand
A. occurs in 5' to 3' direction
B. occurs in 3' to 5' direction
C. can be in either direction
D. can occur in both directions simultaneouslyA. occurs in 5' to 3' directionThe gaps in the lagging strand are closed by
A. DNA polymerase 1
B. DNA polymerase 3
C. Primase
D. DNA ligaseD. DNA ligaseThymine dimers are caused by which of the following?
A. Reactive oxygen species
B. Deamination
C. Mutagens
D. UV radiationD. UV radiationWhen does recombination normally occur?
A. Replication of all cells during mitosis
B. Replication of mucosal cells during mitosis
C. Replication of gametes cells during meiosis
D. Replication of all cells during meiosisC. Replication of gametes cells during meiosisChromatin consists mainly of
A. DNA
B. RNA
C. Histones
D. DNA and HistonesD. DNA and HistonesNative DNA consists of
A. B-helix
B. Antiparallel strands
C. Equal moles of purines and pyrimidines
D. All of the aboveD. All of the aboveWhich is false?
A. deoxynucleotides in DNA have a negative charge
B. deoxyribose lacks a 2'-hydroxyl
C. nucleic acid bases are covalently linked to ribose sugars by glycosidic bonds
D. in B-DNA the 2 strands run in the same direction and are held together by G-C and A-T base pairsD. in B-DNA the 2 strands run in the same direction and are held together by G-C and A-T base pairs
--> They are running in opposite directions (anti-paralell)Which is false?
A. During replication one original strand of DNA remains in one of the daughter cells
B. RNA is mainly double helical
C. Strands of DNA are held together by GC and AT base pairs
D. In eukaryotes, histones are bound to DNAB. RNA is mainly double helicalWhich of the following is false?
A. Replication is bidirectional.
B. The timing of replication in eukaryotic cells is tightly controlled.
C. Only genes are replicated.
D. Both strands of DNA are replicated.C. Only genes are replicated.The discontinuous synthesis of one strand of DNA during replication results in
A. DNA primers
B. reverse transcription
C. Okazaki fragments
D. MutationsC. Okazaki fragmentsTelomerase
A. helps replicate the ends of chromosomes
B. shortens the ends of chromosomes during replication
C. creates Okazaki fragments
D. all of the aboveA. helps replicate the ends of chromosomesDNA polymerases extend the primer by joining deoxynucleotides with
A. the 3'OH of the primer
B. the 5' phosphate of the primer
C. the promoter site
D. the complementary strandA. the 3'OH of the primerWhich of the follow enzyme(s) is required for excision repair of DNA damage?
A. DNA polymerase
B. DNA polymerase and DNA ligase
C. endonuclease
D. DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, and exonucleaseD. DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, and exonucleaseWhich of the following is not a source of damage to DNA?
A. Errors that occur naturally during the replication process
B. Exposure to mutagenic chemicals
C. Exposure to ultraviolet (UV) radiation
D. All of the above are sources of DNA damageD. All of the above are sources of DNA damageWhich of the following DNA repair mechanisms require the formation of Holliday junctions?
A. Excision repair
B. Nucleotide-excision repair
C. Recombination
D. None of the aboveC. RecombinationWhich of the following enzymes is not required in nucleotide-excision repair of DNA damage?
A. AP endonuclease
B. DNA gyrase
C. DNA polymerase
D. Deoxyribose phosphodiesteraseB. DNA gyraseWhich is false?
A. During replication one original strand of DNA remains in one of the daughter cells
B. In eukaryotes, histones are bound to RNA
C. DNA is double helical
D. Strands of DNA are held together by GC and AT base pairsB. In eukaryotes, histones are bound to RNAWhich of the following is false?
A. Only genes are replicated
B. Replication is bidirectional
C. Both strands of DNA are replicated.
D. The timing of replication in eukaryotic cells is tightly controlledA. Only genes are replicatedOkazaki fragments result because
A. DNA synthesis is discontinuous
B. RNA synthesis is discontinuous
C. DNA polymerase is conservative
D. proof reading has occurredA. DNA synthesis is discontinuousDNA polymerases extend the primer by joining deoxynucleotide triphosphates nucleotides with:
A. the 3'OH of the primer
B. the complementary strand
C. the promoter site
D. the 5'OH of the primerA. the 3'OH of the primerWhich of the following best describes the role of helicase in the replication of DNA?
A. Add nucleotides to the growing DNA strand
B. Prevent the supercoiling of DNA
C. Unwinds double stranded DNA
D. Removes mismatched nucleotide basesC. Unwinds double stranded DNAWhich of the following is true concerning thymine?
A. The presence of thymine in DNA instead of uracil ensures genetic fidelity
B. Dimerization between adjacent thymine residues can not be repaired in e. coli
C. Thymine bases are present in both RNA and DNA
D. None of the above are true concerning thymineA. The presence of thymine in DNA instead of uracil ensures genetic fidelityWhich of the following best describes a nucleosome?
A. DNA wrapped around a core of 4 histone proteins
B. RNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins
C. DNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteins
D. RNA wrapped around a core of 4 histone proteinsC. DNA wrapped around a core of 8 histone proteinsWhich of the following is the abbreviation for a nucleotide containing the nitrogenous base cytosine, a hydrogen at the 2' carbon of its pentose sugar, and a di-phosphate group attached to the 5' carbon of its pentose sugar?
A. CDP
B. CMP
C. dCDP
D. dCMPC. dCDPWhich of the following is the name of a nucleotide containing the nitrogenous base thymine, a hydrogen at the 2' carbon of its pentose sugar, and a monophosphate group attached to the 5' carbon of its pentose sugar?
A. deoxythymidine
B. thymidylate
C. thymine
D. thymidineB. thymidylateWhich of the following is the name of a nucleoside containing the nitrogenous base uracil and a hydroxyl group at the 2' carbon of its pentose sugar?
A. uridylate
B. uracil
C. deoxyuridine
D. uridineD. uridineNucleotides and nucleosides differ by one
A. Hydroxyl
B. Ribose
C. Deoxyribose.
D. PhosphateD. PhosphateStructurally, what is the difference between adenine/guanine, and uracil/cytosine/thymidine?
A. Adenine/guanine have one ring while uracil/cytosine/thymidine have two rings
B. Adenine/guanine have ribose sugar while uracil/cytosine/thymidine have deoxyribose sugar
C. Adenine/guanine are pyrimidine rings while uracil/cytosine/thymidine are purine rings
D. Adenine/guanine are purines while uracil/cytosine/thymidine are pyrimidine ringsD. Adenine/guanine are purines while uracil/cytosine/thymidine are pyrimidine ringsWhich of the following enzymes controls the committed step in purine biosynthesis?
A. adenylosuccinate synthetase
B. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
C. amidophosphoribosyl transferase
D. thymidylate synthaseC. amidophosphoribosyl transferaseThe starting substrates for pyrimidine biosynthesis are
A. glutamine and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphate
B. carbamoylphosphate and glutamine
C. carbamoylphosphate and aspartate
D. asparatate and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphateC. carbamoylphosphate and aspartateThe starting substrates for purine biosynthesis are
A. glutamine and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphate
B. carbamoylphosphate and aspartate
C. carbamoylphosphate and glutamine
D. asparatate and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphateA. glutamine and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphateThe end products of purine and pyrimidine de novo synthesis are
A. AMP and IMP
B. TMP and GMP
C. GMP and IMP
D. IMP and UMPD. IMP and UMPIndicate the correct anti-tumoral compound and its mode of inhibition used in the chemotherapy of rapidly dividing cancer cells.
A. fluorouracil....competitive inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
B. methotrexate....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthase
C. fluorouracil....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthase
D. methotrexate....suicide inhibition of dihydrofolate reductaseC. fluorouracil....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthaseWhy do cells prefer purine and pyrimidine salvage pathways over de novo synthesis?
A. Because salvage pathways require more pentose phosphate pathway activity
B. Because de novo synthesis requires too many amino acids as substrate
C. Because de novo synthesis puts demands on the need for increase pentose phosphate pathway activity
D. Because salvage pathways require less energetic input than de novo synthesisD. Because salvage pathways require less energetic input than de novo synthesisWhich of the following amino acids is NOT a building block for pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A. Gln
B. Ser
C. Asp
D. None of the above are building blocksB. SerWhich of the following amino acids is NOT a building block for pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A. Gly
B. Asp
C. Gln
D. none of the aboveA. GlyWhich of the following is a common drug and its general mode of inhibition used in the chemotherapy of rapidly dividing cancer cells?
A. fluorouracil....competitive inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
B. methotrexate....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthase
C. methotrexate....suicide inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase
D. fluorouracil....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthaseD. fluorouracil....suicide inhibition of thymidylate synthaseWhich of the following molecules directly inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus helps to correct high levels of urate?
A. allopurinol
B. amethopterin
C. alloxanthine
D. fluorodeoxyuridylateC. alloxanthineGout is one of the leading causes of arthritis in the United States. It is caused by the formation of _______ ________ crystals in the joint tissue.
A. phosphoric acid
B. uric acid
C. acetic acid
D. amino acidB. uric acidThe degradation of pyrimidine bases ultimately forms which two compounds?
A. uridylate and thymidylate
B. uric acid and water
C. xanthine and hypoxanthine
D. urea and waterD. urea and waterA deficiency of which of the following enzymes results in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
A. thymidine phosphorylase
B. adenine phosphoribosyltransferase
C. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase
D. uridine kinaseC. hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferaseAllopurinol, used to treat gout inhibits, affects
A. the salvage pathway of purines, inhibiting the enzyme HGPRT
B. the activity of xanthine oxidase to inhibit the production of uric acid
C. the salvage pathway of AMP to IMP
D. the de novo synthesis pathway of purinesB. the activity of xanthine oxidase to inhibit the production of uric acidN10-formyl tetrahydrofolate (N10-formyl THF) is used in which of the following reactions?
A. Building of AMP
B. Building of UMP
C. Building of TMP
D. All of the aboveA. Building of AMPGuanine and guanosine differ by one
A. ribose
B. phosphate
C. deoxyribose
D. hydroxylA. riboseWhich of the following is the abbreviation for a nucleotide containing the nitrogenous base adenine, a hydroxyl group at the 2' carbon of its pentose sugar, and a tri-phosphate group attached to the 5' carbon of its pentose sugar?
A. dATP
B. ATP
C. ADP
D. dADPB. ATPA deficiency of the the enzyme hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyltransferase is the cause of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. Which biochemical reaction(s) does this enzyme catalyze?
A. the conversion of guanine to GMP
B. the conversion of hypoxanthine to IMP
C. All of the above
D. None of the aboveC. All of the aboveWhich of the following molecules is used in both pyrimidine and purine de novo synthesis?
A. formyl-tetrahydrofolate
B. 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate
C. carbamoyl phosphate
D. glycineB. 5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphateAn excess of GTP will stimulate the formation of which of the following molecules?
A. AMP
B. UMP
C. TMP
D. CMPA. AMPWhich of the following enzymes is(are) involved in the early events of pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A. carbamoyl phosphate synthetase
B. amidophosphoribosyltransferase
C. aspartate transcarbamoylase
D. A and CD. A and CIdentify the correct statement that relates ribose and a deoxyribose nucleotide.
A. Both ribose and deoxyribose have a 3'C with H and a 2'OH
B. Ribose has a 2'C with H and deoxyribose a 2'C with an OH
C. Ribose has a 2'C with OH and deoxyribose a 2'C with an H
D. Both ribose and deoxyribose have a 2'C with H and a 3'OHC. Ribose has a 2'C with OH and deoxyribose a 2'C with an HWhich are the starting substrates for pyrimidine biosynthesis?
A. Glutamine and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphate
B. Aspartate and 5'phosphribosyl-1-pyrophosphate
C. Carbamoylphosphate and glutamine
D. Carbamoylphosphate and aspartateD. Carbamoylphosphate and aspartateFill in the blank: Purines are salvaged by the addition of _________ to form nucleotide monophosphates.
A. Activate inosine 5'PO4
B. Activated ribulose 5'PO4
C. Activated creatine phosphate
D. Activated phosphoribosyl pyrophosphateD. Activated phosphoribosyl pyrophosphateDeficiency of the enzyme HGPRT is the cause of what disease?
A. Gout
B. SCID
C. Lesch-Nyhan
D. Build-up of uric acidC. Lesch-NyhanBoth serine and threonine are directly deaminated to
A. Acetyl-CoA
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Alpha ketoglutarate
D. PyruvateD. PyruvateThe transamination of oxaloacetate forms
A. Glutamate
B. Asparagine
C. Aspartate
D. ThreonineC. AspartateThe serine-glycine complex plays a role in
A. Adenylation of methionine to S-adenosyl-methionine
B. Remethylation of MTHF for the remethylation of homocysteine to methionine
C. Methylation of macromolecules by S-adenosyl-methionine
D. Formation of cysteine through transcultural ion pathwayB. Remethylation of MTHF for the remethylation of homocysteine to methionineThe product of S-adenosyl-methionine methylation is S-adenosyl -homocysteine, which is then de-adenylated. How is the cleaved adenosine utilized?
A. Recycled to ATP
B. Adenosine is excreted
C. Purine salvage pathway
D. Utilized to re-adenylation of methionineC. Purine salvage pathwayWhat is the difference between essential and non-essential amino acids?
A. Essential amino acids are synthesized by liver cells; non-essential amino acids are not needed in the body and cells can do without them
B. Essential amino acids are obtained from diet; non-essential amino acids are produced in the liver by metabolic pathways
C. Non-essential amino acids are produced in the liver; essential amino acids are produced in all cells by metabolic pathways
D. Essential amino acids are made by liver cells; non-essential amino acids cannot be produced by the liver and are obtained from dietB. Essential amino acids are obtained from diet; non-essential amino acids are produced in the liver by metabolic pathwaysGlucogenic amino acids are utilized as substrate for
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Fatty acid synthesis
C. Gluconeogenesis
D. None of the aboveC. GluconeogenesisThe synthesis Glutamine from glutamate requires
A. ATP
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. ATP & NH3+
D. NADH & ATPC. ATP & NH3+In the transaminase reaction between glutamate/pyruvate, the amino acid produced is
A. Aspartate
B. Alanine
C. Alpha ketoglutarate
D. SerineB. AlanineThe metabolism of serine to pyruvate is an example of
A. Oxidative deamination
B. Transamination
C. Anaerobic metabolism
D. Substitution reactionA. Oxidative deaminationThe cofactor found in the active site of ALL transaminase enzymes is
A. Cobalamin phosphate
B. Pyridoxal phosphate
C. Ferrodoxin
D. BiotinB. Pyridoxal phosphateAlanine is transported from the skeletal muscle to liver to be back converted to pyruvate. The pyruvate in the liver is then used for
A. Glycolysis
B. Homolactic Fermentation
C. Gluconeogensis
D. Fatty Acid synthesisC. GluconeogensisGlutamate is back converted to alpha ketoglutarate in liver mitochondria by
A. Glutaminase
B. Glutamate synthase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
D. All of the aboveC. Glutamate dehydrogenaseIn the mechanism of all transaminases, the pyridoxal phosphate
A. becomes reduced and the amino acid is oxidized
B. receives the amine group through a Schiff's base reaction
C. becomes carboxylated
D. All of the aboveB. receives the amine group through a Schiff's base reactionWhich statement about cysteine is NOT correct?
A. Cysteine is a non-essential amino acid
B. Homocysteine is metabolized by the transulfuration pathway to cysteine
C. Cysteine can be remethylated to form methionine
D. All of the aboveC. Cysteine can be remethylated to form methionineThe biochemical function of AdoMet is
A. Methylation of macromolecules
B. Methylation of tetrahdyrofolate
C. Methlyation of nucleic acids only
D. None of the aboveA. Methylation of macromoleculesDecarboxylated AdoMet becomes a donor of
A. Methyl groups to macromolecules
B. Adenosine for the salvage pathway
C. Aminopropyl donor to form larger polyamines
D. All of the aboveC. Aminopropyl donor to form larger polyaminesThe remethylation of homocysteine to methionine requires which two cofactors?
A. N5,N10-methylene & B6
B. FAD & B12
C. N5,N10-methyleneTHF & B12
D. B2 & B6C. N5,N10-methyleneTHF & B12The biological location of the Urea Cycle is
A. Kidney tubule cells
B. Pancreatic exocrine cells
C. Skeletal muscle cells
D. Hepatic cells of the liverD. Hepatic cells of the liverThe cleavage of argininosuccinate to arginine involves this TCA intermediate
A. Succinate
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Fumarate
D. Alpha ketoglutarateC. FumarateThe source of the first NH3+ for the formation of carbamoyl phosphate in the mitochondria is aspartate.
A. True
B. FalseB. FalseThe Urea Cycle intermediate that intersects with the AdoMet pathway is
A. Ornithine
B. Arginine
C. Citrulline
D. UreaA. OrnithineGlucogenic amino acids are utilized in the gluconeogenic pathway of the liver.
A. True
B. FalseA. TrueGlutamate is aminated to glutamine by the enzyme
A. Glutamate dehydrogenase
B. Glutaminase
C. Glutamine synthetase
D. Glutamine oxidaseC. Glutamine synthetaseN-acetyl-glutamate regulates the following pathway
A. TCA Cycle
B. ETS/ OX-Phos
C. Glycolysis
D. Urea CycleD. Urea CycleHow is glutamate dehydrogenase allosterically controlled?
A. Activated by ADP and GDP
B. Inhibited by ADP and GTP
C. Activated by ATP and GTP
D. Activated by UTP and CTPA. Activated by ADP and GDPWhich two amino acids are NOT substrate for aminotransferases?
A. Alanine and aspartate
B. Serine and threonine
C. Oxaloacetate and malate
D. Leucine and isoleucineB. Serine and threonineHMG CoA reductase is regulated by
A. kinase and glucagon
B. phosphatase and kinase
C. insulin and phosphatase
D. glucagon and insulinB. phosphatase and kinaseWhich organ is responsible for bile salt synthesis?
A. kidney
B. gonads
C. liver
D. adrenal glandC. liverThe most endogenous cholesterol in the liver is usually converted into
A. Glucose
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Steroids
D. Cholic acidD. Cholic acidWhich of the following is (are) responsible for transporting dietary fats and cholesterol to the liver? (select all that apply)
A. HDLs
B. chylomicrons
C. bile salts
D. VLDLsB. chylomicrons & C. bile saltsWhich lipoprotein complexes are associated with the overflow pathway of cholesterol transport?
A. LDL and chylomicrons
B. IDD, LDL and VLDL
C. LDL, HDL and chylomicrons
D. LDL and HDLD. LDL and HDLWhich lipoprotein complexes handle TAG transport in the bloodstream?
A. LDL and HDL
B. VLDL and chylomicrons
C. HDL and chylomicrons
D. LDL and VLDLB. VLDL and chylomicronsWhat is the role of HDL?
A. carry dietary TAGs to liver and other tissues
B. carry synthesized cholesterol from liver to tissues and back if not used
C. collect cholesterol from tissues and return it to the liver
D. carry synthesized TAGs from liver to adipose tissueC. collect cholesterol from tissues and return it to the liverWhich lipoprotein complexes are rarely detected in the plasma:
A. VLDL
B. LDL
C. IDL
D. HDLC. IDLWhich enzyme controls the committed step in cholesterol biosynthesis?
A. Carnitine acyl transferase
B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase
C. HMG CoA reductase
D. Fatty acid synthetaseC. HMG CoA reductaseBisphosphonates act as inhibitors of which step(s) in cholesterol biosynthesis?
A. Formation of farnesyl PP from isopentenyl-5-pyrophosphate
B. Formation of mevalonic acid from 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA
C. Formation of isopentenyl-5-pyrophosphate from mevalonate-5-pyrophosphate
D. Formation of geranyl PP from isopentenyl-5-pyrophosphateD. Formation of geranyl PP from isopentenyl-5-pyrophosphateHMG CoA reductase is inhibited by (select all that apply)
A. phosphatase
B. kinase
C. glucagon
D. insulinB. kinase & C. glucagonHMG CoA reductase levels in liver cells is regulated by (select all that apply)
A. specific proteases
B. transcriptional factors
C. geranyl-modified proteins
D. apolipoproteinsA. specific proteases & B. transcriptional factorsWhat product does HMG CoA reductase create?
A. mevalonate-6-phosphate
B. mevalonate
C. Acetyl CoA
D. acetoacetlyl-CoAB. mevalonateCholesterol consists of four fused rings and (select all that apply)
A. a hydroxyl group
B. a hydrocarbon tail
C. a ketone group
D. an aldose groupA. a hydroxyl group & B. a hydrocarbon tailBesides the hydroxyl group and the hydrocarbon tail, what other chemical groups can be found on cholesterol? (select all that apply)
A. a ketone
B. a methyl
C. an ethyl
D. an aldehydeB. a methylWhat properties allow lipid assembly into a membrane bilayer?
A. hydrophobic headgroup / polar FA tail
B. hydrophobic headgroup / hydrophobic FA tail
C. polar headgroup / polar FA tail
D. polar headgroup / hydrophobic FA tailD. polar headgroup / hydrophobic FA tailWhich compound is produced in both the gonads and the adrenal cortex?
A. progesterone
B. cholesterol
C. estradiol
D. testosteroneA. progesteroneWhat bile salt acts as precursor for other bile salts?
A. glycocholic acid
B. taurocholic acid
C. deoxycholic acid
D. cholic acidD. cholic acidThe physiologically active form of vitamin D produced in the kidney is:
A. Cholecalciferol
B. 7-dehydrocholesterol
C. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol
D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferolD. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferolWhich organ is responsible for the final processing step in Vitamin 1,25-D synthesis?
A. Kidney
B. Gonads
C. Adrenal gland
D. LiverA. KidneyThe most abundant non-phospholipid component of the cell membrane is:
A. Cholesterol
B. Deoxycholate
C. Macroglobulin
D. TriacyglycerideA. CholesterolWhich of the following phospholipid headgroups has a positive charge? (select all that apply)
A. Phosphatidylinositol
B. Sphingomyelin
C. Phosphatidylserine
D. PhosphatidylcholineD. Phosphatidylcholine & B. SphingomyelinWhich of the following phospholipid headgroups contributes no charge? (select all that apply)
A. Phosphatidylserine
B. Phosphatidylinositol
C. Phosphatidylcholine
D. Phosphatidic acidA. Phosphatidylserine & B. PhosphatidylinositolCerebrosides are phospholipids
A. True
B. FalseFalseSphingosine forms an amide bond with the fatty acid chain
A. True
B. FalseTrueWhich chemical group on sphingosine attaches to the phosphate group to make sphingomyelin?
A. Carboxylate
B. Alcohol
C. Ketone
D. AldoseB. AlcoholWhat role does HDL play in cardiovascular disease?
A. Major contributor to plaque deposits
B. Can scavenge deposited cholesterol from vessel walls
C. Reduces inflammatory response to vessel lumen damage
D. None of the aboveB. Can scavenge deposited cholesterol from vessel wallsBesides contributing to microtearing of arterial walls, what else does TMAO contribute to cardiovascular disease? (select all that apply)
A. Regulates membrane fluidity
B. Increases stress-strain of coronary arteries
C. Alters cholesterol metabolism
D. Increases LDL depositionC. Alters cholesterol metabolism & D. Increases LDL depositionWhich of the following factors contributes to microtearing / microdamage of arterial lumen walls? (select all that apply)
A. peroxides
B. progesterone levels
C. anti-inflammatory molecules
D. hypertensionA. peroxides & D. hypertensionWhy does omega-3 consumption reduce the effects of cardiovascular disease?
A. lowers trans-fat levels
B. lowers LDL levels
C. reduces inflammation
D. raises HDL levelsC. reduces inflammationWhat current treatments are used to correct arterial blockage? (select all that apply)
A. Nanoparticle drug delivery
B. TMAO administration
C. Lower serum cholesterol
D. Stent insertionA. Nanoparticle drug delivery & D. Stent insertion
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