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Broca's area (speech formation) is in the __________ lobe. Wernicke's area (language comprehension) is in the ________ lobe.
a. frontal, parietal
b. frontal, temporal
c. temporal, frontal
d. temporal, parietalfrontal, temporalLong-term memory is in the ________ lobe. Short-term memory is in the ________ lobe.
a. frontal, parietal
b. frontal, temporal
c. temporal, frontal
d. temporal, parietaltemporal, frontalWhat is the psychological equivalent of the physical exam, providing a comprehensive description of how the patient looks, thinks, feels, and behaves?Mental Status Examination (MSE)What are the major components of the MSE?Appearance, Motor, Speech, Affect, Thought content, Thought process, Perception, Intellect, InsightA patient's congruence between their mood and expression is characteristic of this component of the MSE.
a. Appearance
b. Affect
c. Thought content
d. Thought processAffectWhat the patient thinks is characteristic of this component of the MSE.
a. Appearance
b. Affect
c. Thought content
d. Thought processThought contentHow the patient thinks is characteristic of this component of the MSE.
a. Appearance
b. Affect
c. Thought content
d. Thought processThought processNeologism, a condition seen in those with __________, is categorized in which component of the MSE?
a. autism, thought content
b. autism, thought process
c. autism, speech
d. schizophrenia, thought content
e. schizophrenia, thought process
f. schizophrenia, speechschizophrenia, thought processHaving no recollection of something you've definitely done before is called ____________, and is categorized in which component of the MSE?
a. jamais vu, insight
b. jamais vu, perception
c. deja vu, insight
d. deja vu, perceptionjamais vu, perceptionThought processing shown through clang association is seen in those with __________, whereas perservation is seen in those with __________.
a. autism, schizophrenia
b. schizophrenia, autism
c. autism, tourette's
d. tourette's schizophreniaschizophrenia, autismThe screening tool for mental status you'll likely see in a chiropractic office is called the ______________ and takes about __________.
a. Mental Status Exam, 10 minutes
b. Mental Status Exam, 1 hour
c. Mini Mental Status Exam, 10 minutes
d. IQ Test, 1 hourMini Mental Status Exam, 10 minutesThe following questions demonstrate which aspect of the MMSE?
- What is the year/season/date/day/month?
- Where are we? (state/country/town/office/floor)
a. Orientation
b. Registration
c. Attention/Calculation
d. Recall
e. LanguageOrientationNaming 3 objects (1 sec/item), then asking the patient to repeat them demonstrates which aspect of the MMSE?
a. Orientation
b. Registration
c. Attention/Calculation
d. Recall
e. LanguageRegistrationHaving the patient count backwards from 100 in 7's (stopping them after 5 answers), or having the patient spell a word like "world" backwards demonstrates which aspect of the MMSE?
a. Orientation
b. Registration
c. Attention/Calculation
d. Recall
e. LanguageAttention/CalculationAsking the patient to repeat 3 items you named earlier in the exam demonstrates which aspect of the MMSE?
a. Orientation
b. Registration
c. Attention/Calculation
d. Recall
e. LanguageRecallThe following tasks demonstrate which aspect of the MMSE?
- Pointing to 2 common objects and asking the patient to name them
- Asking the patient to repeat "no ifs, ands, or buts"
- Asking the patient to follow a 3-step command
- Asking the patient to read and obey the phrase "close your eyes"
- Having the patient write a sentence
- Having the patient copy a drawing of 2 intersecting pentagons
a. Orientation
b. Registration
c. Attention/Calculation
d. Recall
e. LanguageLanguageWhat's the *traditional* threshold for the MMSE?
a. 20+
b. 21+
c. 23+
d. 25+
e. 26+23+Interpreting the MMSE to avoid false-positive results, what does a score of 26-30 indicate? Dementia/cognitive impairment is...
a. highly probable
b. inconclusive
c. highly unlikelyhighly unlikelyInterpreting the MMSE to avoid false-positive results, what does a score of 21-25 indicate? Dementia/cognitive impairment is...
a. highly probable
b. inconclusive
c. highly unlikelyinconclusiveInterpreting the MMSE to avoid false-positive results, what does a score of 0-20 indicate? Dementia/cognitive impairment is...
a. highly probable
b. inconclusive
c. highly unlikelyhighly probableEmotional and behavioral changes are often the first signs of ____________________organic brain diseaseWhy would a DC be more apt to pick up on emotional/behavioral changes than an MD?
a. DCs channel innate so they're able to sense when the patient's energy is off
b. Patients likely tell their DCs more
c. Patients likely see DCs morePatients likely see DCs moreWhere should a patient's mental status be documented in their note?
a. Subjective - history
b. Objective - neurology
c. Subjective - neurology
d. Assessment - historyObjective - neurologyThe MC IQ Test given to kids is called the _______________.
a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test
b. Deviation Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-4)Stanford-Binet Intelligence TestThe MC IQ Test given to adults is called the _______________.
a. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Test
b. Deviation Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
c. Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS-4)Wechsler Adult Intelligence ScaleThe standard deviation on IQ tests is ________.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 2515What percentage of the population has an IQ of 85-115?68What percentage of the population has an IQ of 70-130?95An IQ score less than _____ may indicate learning disability70Self-report clinical inventories like the MMPI-2 (Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory) and BDI (Beck Depression Inventory) are considered ____________.
a. subjective
b. objectiveobjectiveProjective tests like the Rorschach Inkblot Test and Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) are considered ____________.
a. subjective
b. objectivesubjectiveWhich of the following is less popular and valid as of 2020?
a. Rorschach Inkblot Test
b. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)Rorschach Inkblot TestWhich of the following is one of the most widely used psychometric tests for measuring the severity of depression, consisting of 21 multiple-choice questions?
a. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
b. Rorschach Inkblot Test
c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)Which of the following uses 31 provocative yet abiguous pictures to reveal dominant drives, emotions, conflicts, and complexities of personality?
a. Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
b. Rorschach Inkblot Test
c. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
d. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)Measure of changes in the ELECTRICAL ACTIVITY of the brain (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Electroencephalogram (EEG)Useful when clinicians are looking for STRUCTURAL DAMAGE to the brain (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Computed axial tomography (CT scan)Useful for diagnosing diseases that affect the NERVE FIBERS THAT MAKE UP THE WHITE MATTER (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)Ways to take images of the brain SENSITIVE TO ACTIVITY (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Positron emission tomography (PET) scanA variant of the PET scan that permits a LONGER AND MORE DETAILED imaging analysis (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)Measures METABOLIC ACTIVITY OF NEURONS, and therefore may indicate AREAS OF BRAIN DAMAGE (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)Provides a picture of HOW PEOPLE REACT TO STIMULI IN REAL TIME, making it possible to monitor the individual's response (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)Method to investigate ABNORMALITIES IN THE WHITE MATTER OF THE BRAIN AND NEURAL PATHWAYS (neuroimaging).
a. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan
e. Single photon emission computed tomophraphy (SPECT)
f. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
g. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
h. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)If we want to determine areas of *structural* brain damage, what type of neuroimaging should we use?
a. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
d. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Computed axial tomography (CT scan)If we want to determine areas of brain damage via neuronal metabolic activity, what type of neuroimaging should we use?
a. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
d. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)If we want to assess the nerve fibers making up the white matter to diagnose disease, what type of neuroimaging should we use?
a. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
d. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)If we want to investigate abnormalities of the white matter in the brain & neural pathways, what type of neuroimaging should we use?
a. Computed axial tomography (CT scan)
b. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c. Proton magnetic resonance spectroscopy (MRS)
d. Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)Diffusion tensor imaging (DTI)What are the first signs of organic brain lesions?Cognitive dysfunctions, mood disturbances, and psychotic manifestationsWhat theoretical perspective of psychology points to an imbalance of neurotransmitters to explain disturbances in emotions, behavior, and cognitive processes?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticBiologicalWhat theoretical perspective of psychology points to defense mechanisms to explain disturbances in emotions, behavior, and cognitive processes?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticPsychodynamicWhat theoretical perspective of psychology points to faulty learning experiences to explain disturbances in emotions, behavior, and cognitive processes?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticBehavioralWhat theoretical perspective of psychology points to disturbed thoughts to explain disturbances in emotions, behavior, and cognitive processes?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticCognitiveWhat theoretical perspective of psychology believes people are motivated to strive for self-fulfillment and meaning in life?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticHumanisticWhich theoretical perspective of psychology uses the treatments of medications (most commonly), electroconvulsive therapy (ECT), and psychosurgery (least commonly)?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticBiologicalWhich theoretical perspective of psychology uses treatment centered on client self-awareness and understanding of the past's influence on their present behavior?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticPsychodynamicWhich theoretical perspective of psychology uses the treatments of counterconditioning/systematic desensitization, contingency management/token economy, and modeling?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticBehavioralWhich theoretical perspective of psychology uses the treatments of cognitive restructuring, cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), and acceptance & commitment therapy (ACT)?
a. Biological
b. Psychodynamic
c. Behavioral
d. Cognitive
e. HumanisticCognitiveAntipsychotics are often the only thing prescribed to treat:
a. schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder (MDD)
c. bipolar disorder
d. anxiety disorders
e. ADHDschizophreniaSelective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), and mood stabilizers are often prescribed to treat:
a. schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder (MDD)
c. bipolar disorder
d. anxiety disorders
e. ADHDmajor depressive disorder (MDD)Anticonvulsants, antipsychotics, and antianxiety medications are often prescribed to treat:
a. schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder (MDD)
c. bipolar disorder
d. anxiety disorders
e. ADHDbipolar disorderBenzodiazepines, MAOIs, SSRIs, SNRIs, tricyclics, and stimulants are often prescribed to treat:
a. schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder (MDD)
c. bipolar disorder
d. anxiety disorders
e. ADHDanxiety disordersStimulants and antidepressants are often prescribed to treat:
a. schizophrenia
b. major depressive disorder (MDD)
c. bipolar disorder
d. anxiety disorders
e. ADHDADHDSigmund Freud is associated with the __________ perspective and ________ mechanisms.
a. Behavioral, classical
b. Psychodynamic, classical
c. Behavioral, defense
d. Psychodynamic, defense
e. Behavioral, operant
f. Psychodynamic, operantPsychodynamic, defensePavlov is associated with the __________ perspective and ________ conditioning.
a. Behavioral, classical
b. Psychodynamic, classical
c. Behavioral, defense
d. Psychodynamic, defense
e. Behavioral, operant
f. Psychodynamic, operantBehavioral, classicalSkinner is associated with the __________ perspective and ________ conditioning.
a. Behavioral, classical
b. Psychodynamic, classical
c. Behavioral, defense
d. Psychodynamic, defense
e. Behavioral, operant
f. Psychodynamic, operantBehavioral, operantThe humanistic perspective's person-centered theory, which later sparked use of the term "clients", was developed by who?
a. Rogers
b. Maslow
c. SeligmanRogersThe humanistic perspective's self-actualization theory, also known as the "Hierarchy of Needs", was developed by who?
a. Rogers
b. Maslow
c. SeligmanMaslowPositive psychology was a movement developed by who?
a. Rogers
b. Maslow
c. SeligmanSeligmanRefusing to believe a loved one has died is an example of which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationDenialGetting angry at your child/spouse because you had a bad day at work is an example of which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationDisplacementWhen a person who's let go from a job chooses to spend their time making spreadsheets of job opportunities and leads, they're demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationIntellectualizationAccusing a significant other of having an affair when you're having feelings about someone else is an example of which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationProjectionWhen a person doesn't get your phone number after hitting on you and asking for them digits, then says they thought you were ugly anyway, they're demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationRationalizationA person who is gay yet acts very homophobic is demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationReaction formationA person who returns to sleeping with a cherished stuffed animal while struggling to cope with events or behaviors is demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationRegressionA person who has suffered childhood abuse with no memory of the abuse as an adult, but has difficulty forming healthy relationships may be demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationRepressionA person who channels their frustration into exercise as opposed to lashing out at their employees/peers is demonstrating which defense mechanism?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationSublimationWhich defense mechanism is most common, and socially accepted as "healthy"?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Intellectualization
d. Projection
e. Rationalization
f. Reaction formation
g. Regression
h. Repression
i. SublimationSublimationPavlov's conditioning style focuses on the learning of ____________ responses/behaviors, where connected stimuli provoke ____________ reactions.
a. Automatic, negative and positive
b. Automatic, reflexive
c. Voluntary, negative and positive
d. Voluntary, reflexiveAutomatic, reflexiveSkinner's conditioning style focuses on the learning of ____________ responses/behaviors, where there is ____________ reinforcement.
a. Automatic, negative and positive
b. Automatic, reflexive
c. Voluntary, negative and positive
d. Voluntary, reflexiveVoluntary, negative and positiveFor both chronic and acute anxiety, what type of sex disparity is noted?
a. Females are 2x MC
b. Males are 2x MC
c. There is no sex disparityFemales are 2x MCFor bipolar disorders, what type of sex disparity is noted?
a. Females are 2x MC
b. Males are 2x MC
c. There is no sex disparityThere is no sex disparityA sense of dread about what might happen (something with potential) to you in the future is called:
a. anxiety
b. fearanxietyAn innate alarm response to a presently dangerous or life-threatening situation is called:
a. anxiety
b. fearfearWith the exception of substance use disorders, what type of disorder is the most highly prevalent of all psychological disorders?anxiety disordersPatients with anxiety disorders are often initially seen in a ____________ setting, as they tend to complain of the prominent ____________ symptoms.
a. Counselor, emotional
b. Hospital, emotional
c. Hospital, physical
d. Primary care, emotional
e. Primary care, physicalPrimary care, physicalA discrete period in which there is sudden onset of intense apprehension often associated with feelings of impending doom is known as?Panic/Anxiety attackExcessive sweating, rubbery/"jelly" legs, trembling/shaking, and feeling unbalanced/unsteady are symptoms of a panic/anxiety attack as well as ____________.
a. depression
b. ADHD
c. hypertension
d. hypoglycemiahypoglycemiaPanic/anxiety attacks which are situationally bound are ____________ environmentally or psychologically cued. Panic/anxiety attacks which are situationally predisposed are ____________ environmentally or psychologically cued.
a. always, sometimes
b. sometimes, alwaysalways, sometimesPanic/anxiety attacks can occur in what disorders outside of a panic disorder? (Select all that apply)
a. Specific phobia
b. Social anxiety disorder
c. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
d. PTSD
e. DepressionSpecific phobia, social anxiety disorder, obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), PTSDWhat is often the most disabling feature of panic disorder?Anticipatory anxietyPanic disorder is often associated with what condition?AgoraphobiaAccording to the DSM, ____________ is a suspected condition when a patient has fear/anxiety about ___ of the following 5:
- using public transportation
- being in an enclosed space (like a theater)
- being in an open space (like a parking lot)
- being outside of the home alone
- standing in line or being in a crowdagoraphobia, 2What's the MC anxiety disorder?PhobiasThe difference between a fear and a phobia is that a phobia is ____________________.unreasonable/irrationalWhat's the MC phobia?Spiders/ArachnophobiaMedications, relaxation training, and panic control therapy (PCT) are treatments for what condition(s)?
a. panic disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. phobiasPanic disorder, agoraphobiaSystematic desensitization, flooding, imaginal flooding, graduated exposure, and thought stopping are treatments for what condition(s)?
a. panic disorder
b. agoraphobia
c. phobiasphobiasWhat's known as one of the MC psychological disorders (affecting 12.1% of people in their lifetime), though only ~2% of those afflicted seek treatment?
a. agoraphobia
b. phobias
c. social anxiety disordersocial anxiety disorderWhat's the MC medication for social anxiety? What's 2nd MC?SSRIs, benzodiazepinesTo be diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), persistent and excessive anxiety or worry that interferes with normal functioning must be present for at least ____________6 monthsSystematic desensitization, reassurance-based education, cognitive therapy, and relaxation techniques like biofeedback and meditation are common treatments for which anxiety disorder?Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)Who identified spinous levels and associated them with psychological manifestations (ex: LBP associated with grief/loss/depression)?
a. Meric
b. Goodheart
c. Louise HayGoodheartWho focused on affirmations in handling psychological manifestations?
a. Meric
b. Goodheart
c. Louise HayLouise HayWhat's been rated as one of the top 10 debilitating disorders by the WHO?obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)OCD is more common in young __________ and adult __________.
a. females, females
b. females, males
c. males, males
d. males, femalesmales, femalesClomipramine is a tricyclic antidepressant often prescribed for _______________, though SSRIs have fewer side effects.obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)Habit reversal training is treatment for what condition(s)?
a. Obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD)
b. Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)
c. Trichotillomania
d. Excoriation disorderTrichotillomania, excoriation disorderAcute stress disorder is diagnosed when a trauma experience is accompanied by feelings of intense fear, helplessness, or horror for _______________, and is __________ commonly diagnosed.
a. up to a month, less
b. up to a month, more
c. more than a month, less
d. more than a month, moreup to a month, lessPost-Traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is diagnosed when a trauma experience is accompanied by feelings of intense fear, helplessness, or horror for _______________, and is __________ commonly diagnosed.
a. up to a month, less
b. up to a month, more
c. more than a month, less
d. more than a month, moremore than a month, moreThe lifetime prevalence of PTSD is __________. For combat veterans, the prevalence of PTSD is __________.6.8%, 12-18%Eye movement desensitization reprocessing (EMDR) is a treatment for 1st responders and those suffering from what condition?PTSDWhat is among the 5 MC disorders seen by a primary car physician?DepressionAs many as __________ of cases of depression go unrecognized by the patient and the doctor.50%Depression is MC in (males/females)femalesIn primary care settings, how many patients have CURRENT major depression?6-10%Alzheimer's, end-stage renal failure, Parkinson's, stroke, cancer/AIDS, chronic fatigue/fibromyalgia, and chronic pain are general health conditions with a high prevalence of what mental health condition?DepressionWhat's a good question to ask patients that may be demonstrating a drastic difference in emotion/mood (particularly depression)?Have you had any changes in your medications?Antihypertensives, hormones, anticonvulsants, steroids, digitalis, anti-Parkinsonian agents, anti-neoplastic agents, and antibiotics may cause what mental health condition?depressionOne of the 7 "Secrets" of depression is that it's considered __________ treatablehighlyWhat does the PHQ-9 screen for?depressionFor the PHQ-9, depression should be considered if there are at least ____ checks.4For the PHQ-9, major depressive disorder should be considered if there are at least ____ checks.5A score of __________ on the PHQ-9 suggests minimal depression.
a. 1-4
b. 5-9
c. 10-14
d. 15-19
e. 20-271-4A score of __________ on the PHQ-9 suggests mild depression.
a. 1-4
b. 5-9
c. 10-14
d. 15-19
e. 20-275-9A score of __________ on the PHQ-9 suggests moderate depression.
a. 1-4
b. 5-9
c. 10-14
d. 15-19
e. 20-2710-14A score of __________ on the PHQ-9 suggests moderately severe depression.
a. 1-4
b. 5-9
c. 10-14
d. 15-19
e. 20-2715-19A score of __________ on the PHQ-9 suggests severe depression.
a. 1-4
b. 5-9
c. 10-14
d. 15-19
e. 20-2720-27Major depressive disorder is considered ________. It involves loss of interest/dysphoria for at least ____________ with at least _____ additional symptoms of depression.
a. acute, 4 weeks, 2
b. acute, 2 weeks, 4
c. chronic, 4 weeks, 2
d. chronic, 2 weeks, 4acute, 2 weeks, 4A subtype of major depression which occurs yearly in the fall and winter and may spark an individual to move to the midwest/northwest (like Colorado) is known as:
a. seasonal pattern (SAD)
b. atypical features/paradoxical
c. Postpartum onsetseasonal pattern (SAD)A subtype of major depression which involves mood reactivity and leaden paralysis is known as:
a. seasonal pattern (SAD)
b. atypical features/paradoxical
c. Postpartum onsetatypical features/paradoxicalA subtype of major depression which resolves within 12 months and has a prevalence of 10-15% within 6 months is known as:
a. seasonal pattern (SAD)
b. atypical features/paradoxical
c. Postpartum onsetpostpartum onsetA depressive disorder involving chronic depression of lower intensity, where a patient has only 3 depressive symptoms for at least 2 years:
a. major depressive disorder
b. persistent depressive disorder/dysthymia
c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)
d. premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)persistent depressive disorder/dysthymiaA depressive disorder in children who have frequent outbursts, which are developmentally inappropriate and occur >3 times a week (b/t outbursts, child is extremely irritable/angry):
a. major depressive disorder
b. persistent depressive disorder/dysthymia
c. disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)
d. premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)disruptive mood dysregulation disorder (DMDD)Your patient comes in petrified that they will develop bipolar disorder in their lifetime because one of their parents has been diagnosed with the condition. What are their odds of having bipolar disorder?
a. 25-30%
b. 50-75%
c. 75-100%25-30%Most with bipolar disorder are diagnosed around __________, with their cycles reaching stability around __________.
a. year 5, college
b. college, year 5college, year 5For an episode to be considered manic, there must be at least ____ symptoms lasting for at least ____ week.
a. 1, 3
b. 3, 1
c. 1, 4
d. 4, 13, 1Bipolar disorder type defined by mania.
a. I
b. II
c. CyclothymicIBipolar disorder type defined by depressive episodes with some mania.
a. I
b. II
c. CyclothymicIIBipolar disorder type defined by chronicity (at least 2 years) & lower severity than other types. These individuals meet criteria for a hypomanic episode with numerous periods of depressive symptoms, though never meet the criteria for a major depressive episode.
a. I
b. II
c. CyclothymicCyclothymicLithium is a medication for ________________, specifically to address ________ symptoms.bipolar disorder, maniaThose with cyclothymia may benefit most from what treatment approach?Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT)"Attention-seeking" behaviors or "cries for help" are known as __________ on the suicide spectrum.gesturesIn what phase of the suicide spectrum do people often appear suddenly happy/resolved, which may spark their loved ones into thinking they've "turned the corner"?Thinking & doingWhat is the MC overdosed medication (associated with suicide attempts)?TylenolFemales have ________ suicide attempts which are MC via __________________.
a. fewer, gun violence
b. fewer, Tylenol OD
c. more, gun violence
d. more, Tylenol ODmore, Tylenol ODMales have ________ suicide attempts which are MC via __________________.
a. fewer, gun violence
b. fewer, Tylenol OD
c. more, gun violence
d. more, Tylenol ODfewer, gun violenceWhich group has the highest suicide rates by age?
a. teens
b. 45-54 yrs
c. 60+ yrs45-54 yrsWhat is considered one of the top 10 causes of death in all age groups, and one of the top 3 causes of death in young adults/teenagers?SuicideOver 90% of suicides occur in people with ___________________________.a psychological disorderWhat 3 factors indicate a high risk of suicide?Intent, Hopelessness, a PlanSuicide is common in __________ __________ disorder, with 25-50% of patients attempting suicide at least once.
a. treated depression
b. untreated depression
c. treated bipolar
d. untreated bipolaruntreated bipolar_______ college students will become depressed, with _______ considering suicide.
a. 10%, 50%
b. 50%, 10%50%, 10%Most patients who eventually commit suicide visit a primary care physician in the ________ before they take their lives.monthAbility to solve problems, Confidence in problem-solving skills, high self-esteem, strong social and family support, secure attachment, and suicidal beliefs are all factors that __________ suicide risk.bufferWhat's the phone number for the national suicide prevention lifeline?1-800-273-TALK (8255)Do people who want to access a resource for suicide prevention have to talk to someone over the phone?No!Delusions and hallucinations are considered __________ symptoms, technically speaking.psychoticA delusion is a false __________, whereas a hallucination is a false __________.
a. belief, perception
b. perception, beliefbelief, perceptionNeologisms are a component of disorganized speech seen in what condition?schizophreniaBleuler's Four A's are:Association, Affect, Ambivalence, AutismAre all people with schizophrenia autistic (i.e. Do Bleuler's Four A's associate autism with schizophrenia?)?NoSchizophrenic symptoms which last for less than a month but more than a day is considered:
a. brief psychotic disorder
b. schizophreniform disorder
c. schizoaffective disorder
d. delusional disorderbrief psychotic disorderSchizophrenia with co-occurring MDD or bipolar disorder is considered:
a. brief psychotic disorder
b. schizophreniform disorder
c. schizoaffective disorder
d. delusional disorderschizoaffective disorderSchizophrenic symptoms which last from 1 to 6 months is considered:
a. brief psychotic disorder
b. schizophreniform disorder
c. schizoaffective disorder
d. delusional disorderschizophreniform disorderDelusional disorder involves the only symptoms being delusions, which have lasted for ___________________.at least 1 monthWhat is the common medication treatment for schizophrenia/psychotic disorders?NeurolepticsWhat are some adverse consequences of schizophrenia medication?Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) & tardive dyskinesiaWhat are the most commonly utilized psychological/behavioral treatments for schizophrenia/psychotic disorders?
a. CBT
b. Cognitive training
c. Psychotherapy
d. Family therapy
e. Vocational rehabilitationPsychotherapy, family therapy, vocational rehabilitation
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Clinical Psychology Exam I
100 terms
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