200 terms

A&P lecture final

Questions on all tests will be on the final. Questions 1-50--Exam 5, Ch 11,13 Questions 50-100--Exam 4, Ch 8,9 Questions 100-150--Exam Questions 150-200--Exam 4,5 Questions 200-250--Exam 1,3
Aortic arch, left subclavian artery, left axillary artery, left brachial artery
Which of these pathways correctly traces blood as it travels from the aortic arch to the left arm?
simple diffusion
Exchange of both oxygen and carbon dioxide through the respiratory membrane occurs by:
Oxygen binds with hemoglobin in the blood to form:
4500 mL/minute (beats per minute multiplied by stroke volume equals cardiac output)
A person with a heart rate of 75 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 60 mL per beat has a cardiac output of:
vital capacity
The respiratory movement representing total amount of exchangeable air is:
both lungs have two lobes
Which one is NOT true of the lungs?
The lipid molecule critical to lung function that coats the gas-exposed alveolar surfaces is called:
a decrease in both heart rate and cardiac output
An increase in parasympathetic activity (primarily by the vagus nerves) causes:
deoxygenated blood into the right atrium
The superior vena cava empties:
Cessation of breathing is called:
In which of the following blood vessels is blood pressure the highest:
Following the removal of the larynx, a person would be unable to:
right atrium
The sinoatrial node is located in the:
The opening between the vocal cords is called the:
the thick layer of the heart wall that contains contractile cardiac tissue is the:
The right and left renal veins empty blood from the:
visceral pleura
The serous membrane covering the surfaces of the lungs is called the:
pulmonary ventilation
Air moving in and out of the lungs is called:
tricuspid valve
The right AV valve is known as the:
arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, venules, veins
The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:
pulmonary trunk
Which one of the following vessels receives blood during right ventricular systole:
right atrium
Which area of the heart receives blood from the systemic veins:
right common carotid artery
Which one of the following does NOT receive blood directly from the aortic arch:
internal respiration
The gas exchange that occurs between blood and tissue cells at systemic capillaries is called:
The flap of elastic cartilage that protects food from entering the larynx when swallowing is the:
often have valves to prevent backflow of blood
The conducting passageways of the respiratory system include all of the following structures except:
the intrapulmonary volume must increase
In order to inspire:
transport oxygenated blood to the heart
Pulmonary veins:
stroke volume
The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle with each beat of the heart is called the:
The pharyngotympanic tubes, which drain the middle ear, open into the:
three cusps and opens when the left ventricle contracts
The aortic semilunar valve is composed of:
they are olfactory receptors for smell
Which one is NOT a function of the paranasal sinuses:
interventricular septum
What structure divides the left from the right ventricle:
incompetent venous valves
Varicose veins are caused by:
Air from the nasal cavity enters the superior portion of the pharynx called the:
tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima
Which one is the correct sequence going from the outermost to the innermost layer of a blood vessel wall:
left ventricle to the left atrium
When the ventricles contract, the bicuspid (mitral) valve prevents blood from flowing from the:
COPD and lung cancer
Which of the following are currently the most damaging and disabling respiratory diseases in the United States:
primary bronchi
Which one of the following structures is NOT a part of the respiratory zone:
drains blood from the radial and ulnar veins, then empties that blood into the axillary vein
The brachial vein:
lingual tonsils
Tonsils that lie at the base of the tongue are called:
A heart rate over 100 beats per minute is called:
trap incoming bacterial and other foreign debris
What is the role of mucus in the nasal cavity:
sinoatrial (SA) node, atrioventricular (AV) node, atrioventricular (AV) bundle, right and left bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
Which one of the following represents the correct path for transmission of an impulse in the intrinsic conduction system of the heart:
pulmonary vein
Which one of the following blood vessels carries the oxygenated blood:
toward the throat to be swallowed or spat out
Cilia of the trachea that beat continually propel contaminated mucus:
exchange gases
The respiratory conducting passageways that perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:
extremely slow breathing
Hypoventilation dramatically increases carbonic acid concentration and involves:
most patients have a genetic predisposition to COPD
Which one of the following is NOT a feature of COPD:
The fibrous outermost tunic seen anteriorly as the "white of the eye is the:
The transparent central portion of the sclera through which light enters the eye is called the:
The middle coat of the eyeball that contains pigment which prevents light from scattering in the eye is called the:
Which layer of the eye contains rods and cones:
blue, green, and red
The three sets of color receptors within the retina are sensitive to wavelengths of visible light that are:
The pigmented portion of the eye that has a rounded opening through which light passes is the:
lacrimal duct
The gland that produces tears in the eye is called the:
vitreous humor
The gel-like substance that reinforces the eyeball and prevents it from collapsing inward is the:
What structure of the eye focuses light on the retina:
The inability to see distant objects is termed "nearsighted" or:
cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
Which one of the following correctly lists the order of the parts through which light passes as it enters the eye:
tympanic membrane
Sounds waves entering the external auditory canal hit the eardrum also known as the:
malleus, incus, stapes
The pathway of vibrations through the ossicles from the tympanic membrane, or eardrum, also known as the:
inner ear
Equilibrium receptors are located in the:
The auditory ossicle called the "anvil" is also called the:
Which one of the following is NOT part of the inner ear:
semicircular canals
Dynamic equilibrium receptors are found in the:
Gustatory hairs are to taste as olfactory hairs are to:
Which one of the following is NOT a primary taste sensation:
Stimulation of sour receptors occurs in response to:
body coordination
Which one of the following is NOT one of the major processes controlled by hormones:
The chemical messengers of the endocrine system are known as:
An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from deficiency of dietary iodine is called:
The element necessary in the diet for proper thyroid function is:
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body:
Which one of the following is NOT produced by the adrenal cortex:
Which of these hormones is released by the adrenal medulla:
reabsorb sodium
Rising blood levels of aldosterone cause the kidney tubules to:
The enzyme produced by the kidneys when blood pressure drops, stimulating a release of aldosterone, is called:
regulate salt content of the blood
Glucocorticoids do all of the following EXCEPT:
The "fight-or-flight" response triggers the release of:
beta cells
Insulin is produced by cells of the pancreatic islets called:
Insulin works as an antagonist to:
a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose
Insulin causes:
The pineal gland produces:
The hormone that appears to help regulate our sleep-awake cycles is:
stimulate growth of facial hair
Estrogens do all of the following except:
antidiuretic hormone
Which of these hormones does NOT play a role in reproduction:
Which of these hormones is NOT produced by the anerior lobe of the pituitary gland:
development of breasts
The secondary sex characteristics brought about by testosterone secretion do NOT include:
Which hormone works with estrogen to bring about the menstrual cycle:
thyroid hormone
The body's major metabolic hormone is called:
below the Adam's apple
The thyroid gland is located:
most hormones
Negative feedback mechanisms regulate:
hormonal stimulus
Most endocrine organs are prodded into action by other hormones; this type of stimulus is called:
stimulate other endocrine glands to secrete hormones
Tropic hormones:
promotes growth in long bones and skeletal muscles
Growth hormone:
antidiuretic hormone
Which one of the following is NOT an anterior pituitary hormone:
luteinizing hormone
The hormone that triggers ovulation of an egg from the female ovary is:
pituitary hormone
The hypothalamus is most closely associated with the:
cardiac muscle and smooth muscle
Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction is:
skeletal muscle only
The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with very obvious striations is:
The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the:
Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system:
the contractile unit between two Z discs
A sarcomere is:
thick filaments
Which one of the following is composed of myosin protein:
neuromuscular junction
The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the:
a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones
The mechanical force of contraction is generated by:
a neotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle
Acetylcholine is:
synaptic cleft
The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:
actin filaments
During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to active sites of:
regulate intracellular calcium concentration
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction is to:
the arrangements of myofilaments
The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic striped appearance are produced, for the most part, by:
pushing against a stationary wall
Which one of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an ISOTONIC contraction:
insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption
The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by:
synergist only
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n):
closes, purses, and protrudes the lips
Which one of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris:
While doing "jumping jacks" during exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called:
hamstring muscle group
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee:
the soleus
Which of the following muscles inserts on the calcaneus:
brain and spinal cord
The term central nervous system refers to the:
the spinal and cranial nerves
The peripheral nervous system consists of:
Schwann cells
Which of these cells are not a type of neuroglia found in the central nervous system (CNS):
The Schwann cell forms a myelin sheath around the:
The neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:
Collections of nerve cell bodies inside the central nervous system (CNS) are called:
association neuron
A neuron with a cell body located in the CNS whose primary function is connecting other neurons is called a(n):
White matters refers to myelinated fibers in the:
Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:
is essential for nerve impulse propagation
An action potential:
The ability to respond to a stimulus is termed:
synaptic cleft
The gap between two communicating neurons is termed:
a neurotransmitter
The substance that is released at axonal endings to propagate a nervous impulse is called:
receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
Which of the following is the correct sequence in a typical arc reflex:
Muscles and glands are:
midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata
The three major parts of the brain stem are:
gyri: sulci
The elevated ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are known as________, while the shallow grooves are termed as ____________.
brain stem
The midbrain, pons,and medulla oblongata are housed in the:
The pituitary gland is most closely associated with the:
Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the:
parasympathetic nervous system
The effects of the sympathetic nervous system are essentially opposite of the:
decreases heart rate
Which of the following effects is characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system:
sympathetic nervous system
Preparing for the "fight or flight" response during threatening situations is the role of the:
skeletal muscle
Which one of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system:
autonomic nervous system
The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are subdivisions of the:
Which of the nerve plexuses serves the shoulder and arm:
sensory nerves; efferent nerves
Afferent nerves are callled __________, and the motor nerves are called __________.
epineurium, perineum, endoneurium
Which one of the following is the correct sequence in connective tissue sheaths, going from outermost to innermost layer:
cervical spine nerves, lumbar spinal nerves, thoracic spinal nerves, sacral spinal nerves
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of nerves that exit the spinal cord, going from superior to inferior:
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
Which one of the following represents the correct sequence from outermost to innermost layers of the meninges:
stresses of gravity and muscle pull on the skeleton
The factor(s) that determine here bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are):
What type of cell does parathyroid hormone activate:
Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of:
blood vessels and nerve fibers
The canal that runs through the core of each osteon contains:
99% water, sodium chloride, and trace amounts of wastes, lactic acid, and vitamin C
The secretions of the eccrine glands are:
What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn:
calcium and phosphorus
The most important minerals stored in the body are:
greenstick fracture
A fracture that is common in children whose bones have relatively more collagen in their matrix and are more flexible than those of adults is a(n):
compact bone
Osteons are characteristic of:
Fingers and toes are referred to as:
using the "rule of nines"
A physician estimates the volume of fluid lost in a severely burned patient by:
Which of these bones is NOT associated with the foot:
Which of these are bone-forming cells:
flat bone
Which of the following bone categories is composed of two layers of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone between them:
true ribs, false ribs, floating ribs
Which is the correct order of rib from superior to inferior:
stratum corneum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
A need would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order:
Sharpey's fibers
The periosteum is secured to the underlying bone by dense connective tissue fibers called:
The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called
stratum basale
Melanocytes are found in the:
stratum basale
A splinter penetrates to the deepest layer of the epidermis on your foot. This layer is:
skull, ribs and sternum, vertebrae
The axial skeleton contains:
The "tanning" effect (darkening of the skin) that occurs when a person is exposed to the sun is due to:
mucous, cutaneous, and serous membranes
The categories of epithelial tissue membranes are:
the broken bone is exposed to the outside
A compound fracture can be described as when:
both by high temperatures and by hormones, especially male hormones
The secretion of sweat is stimulated:
dermal papillae
Finger-like upward projections of the dermis into the epidermis are called:
the arrector pili muscles contract to stand hairs upright
In order to warm the body up when cold:
coxal bones - irregular bones
Which of the following groups of bones in the human body, categorized by shape, is correct:
it is the deepest layer of skin
Which of the following is NOT a true statement about the papillary layer of the dermis:
The sella turcica is part of the ___________ bone.
hematoma formation, fibrocartilage formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling
There are four stages in the healing of a bone fracture. Which of the following best illustrates the sequence of these stages:
parietal pericardium--covers the outer surface of the heart
Which of the following relationships is correct:
The tailbone is the:
Male pattern hair loss has a genetic switch that turns on in response to:
stratified squamous epithelium
The epidermis is composed of:
Which type of membrane contains fluid between the visceral and parietal layers:
it is the only bone of the body that does not directly articulate with any other bone
The hyoid bone is unique because:
first cervical vertebra
The atlas is the:
adipose tissue
The hypodermis consists of:
Although you get wet while swimming, a tough protein within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is:
it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin D
Which of the following is a vital function of the skin:
hyaline cartilage
What kind of tissue is the forerunner of long bones in the embryo:
cutaneous membrane
The only dry membrane is the:
seven cervical
There are _________ vertebrae in the neck region.
body heat regulation
Sudoriferous glands are important for:
Bone formation can be referred to as:
store adipose tissue
In adults, the function of the yellow marrow is to:
bone length is increasing
The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that:
Nails are composed of:
The bone cells within lacunae receive nourishment from blood vessels through passageways called: