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287 terms

Geography Test 3

Ch1, Ch18, Ch17, Ch16, Ch15,
STUDY
PLAY
True
Gradients usually decrease downstream in a major river system.
Which of the following is the correct definition of stream gradient?
the drop in elevation of a stream divided by the distance the water travels
How does urbanization (paving, etc.) affect runoff and infiltration in a small, previously forested, drainage basin?
infiltration decreases; runoff increases
Which of the following must result in a lower base level for rivers and streams?
sea level falls; land rises
make up the suspended loads of most rivers and streams.
Silt and clay-sized, detrital grains
describes the total sediment load transported by a stream.
Capacity
the head of a delta, the major channel splits into smaller channels that follow different paths to the sea. These smaller channels are known as ________.
distributaries
After a meander is cut off, the gradient through the newly formed cutoff is steeper than the gradient along the abandoned meander loop.
True
A ________ stream pattern is developed only on growing mountains like volcanoes or where the land surface is tectonically doming upward.
radial
Most precipitation in land areas originates by transpiration and by evaporation from lakes and rivers.
False
is an abandoned, cutoff, meander loop.
An oxbow
are characteristics of downcutting streams and a youthful stage of valley evolution.
Rapids and lots of whitewater
are components of the hydrologic cycle that release water vapor directly to the atmosphere.
Evaporation and transpiration
________ river has the largest discharge of any in the world.
Amazon
With the passage of time, deposition and erosion gradually shorten the channel length of a meander loop.
False
Where is erosion concentrated along a meandering stream?
on the outer parts of the meander loops or bends
Which one of the following would cause stream rejuvenation
the land is uplifted
A stream begins at an elevation of 200 meters and flows a distance of 400 kilometers to the ocean? What is the average gradient
0.5 m/km
describes the particle transport mode in streams intermediate between suspension and rolling along the bottom?
Saltation
Which of the following features characterize wide streams and valleys?
natural levees; broad floodplains
Which one of the following materials has the maximum, sustainable, slope angle, as determined by the angle of repose?
dry sand
denotes the exposed, crescent-shaped rupture surface at the head of a slump
Scarp
How do the strength and cohesion of clay-rich regolith or soil change with the addition of water?
Water lowers the strength and cohesion.
Of the following, which one would most likely be triggered by an earthquake?
solifluction
Which of the following was a major factor leading to the Gros Ventre, WY slide?
Soils and shallow bedrock were very wet and locally saturated
Lahars are essentially mudflows associated with volcanoes and volcanism.
True
A triggering mechanism, such as heavy rains or an earthquake, are necessary for mass wasting to occur.
False
What caused the mudflows (1985) on the Nevado del Ruiz volcano
Hot ash fell onto snow near the summit
Why was the Alaskan pipeline built above ground and insulated?
to protect the pipeline against damage due to thawing ground and to keep the crude oil hot and fluid
Which statement best describes slumping, a mass wasting process?
A block or blocks of unconsolidated regolith slide downhill along a curved slip surface
Earthflows and slumps generally involve movement of unconsolidated or weakly consolidated soil and regolith.
True
Submarine landslides are generally much smaller than similar mass wasting events on land.
False
Which mass wasting process has the slowest rate of movement?
creep
All of the following are factors affecting mass wasting except for ________.
geologic age
The most rapid type of mass movement is a ________.
rock avalanche
As an erosional process, how is mass wasting unique from wind, water, and ice
Mass wasting does not require a transporting medium.
Bedding planes and fractures can both act as slip surfaces for rockslides
True
How do freezing, thawing, wetting, and drying contribute to soil creep
The soil expands and contracts, lifting particles and dropping them a slight distance downslope
All of the following are possible indicators that creep is occurring except for ________.
an extremely thick soil profile
are much more abundant in mantle rocks than in crustal rocks
Magnesium silicates
Continental crust is generally thicker than oceanic crust.
True
The ________ is the seismic discontinuity that forms the boundary between the crust and mantle.
Moho
The Earth's magnetic field ________.
is a self-generating and self-reversing dynamo in the outer core
The inner core is probably mainly liquid iron because it has the characteristics of a permanent magnet
False
The Earth's magnetic field originates by ________.
weak electrical currents associated with fluid motions in the outer core
As P waves pass from the mantle into the outer core, velocities drop abruptly.
True
High rock temperatures enhance plastic deformation and flow in the asthenosphere and inhibit brittle fracturing
True
upper part of the lithosphere includes this layer
crust
very dense, solidified, iron-rich alloy
inner core
transmits P waves but not S waves
outer core
the top of this layer is marked by the Mohorovicic discontinuity
Mantle
includes the asthenosphere
mantle
The ________ of the Earth has the smallest volume
crust
The fact that ________ is good evidence for a solidified, inner core
P waves are faster in the inner core than in the outer core
The crust and mantle are solids; the inner core is thought to be solid.
True
The ________ of the Earth does not transmit S waves.
outer core
are closest to the average chemical composition of the oceanic crust.
basalt and gabbro
Which one of the following best characterizes the asthenosphere?
a zone of softened peridotite in the upper mantle
Which one of the following statements concerning Earth's magnetic field is true?
At high latitudes, the force lines intersect Earth's surface at steep angles.
Which one of the following statements concerning foci and epicenters is correct?
The epicenter is at the surface directly above the focus where the earthquake initiates
have the highest velocities.
primary waves
Because their energy dissipates rapidly in deep ocean waters, tsunamis seldom pose any danger to coastal areas far away from the causative earthquake.
false
On a typical seismogram, ________ will show the highest amplitudes.
surface waves
Which of the following foundation materials is most stable during earthquake shaking?
bedrock
is the maximum possible damage designation on the Mercalli scale.
XII
Approximately how often do locked segments of the San Andreas Fault (California) break, resulting in major earthquakes?
once every hundred and fifty years
would result in the largest area of ground shaking damage.
shallow-focus quake along the Mississippi Valley fault zone
The ________ is the point of origination for an earthquake.
focus
Approximately how much more energy is released in a 6.5 Richter magnitude earthquake than in one with magnitude 5.5?
30 times
________ is a widely accepted explanation for the mechanism that generates earthquakes.
Reid's elastic rebound theory
What are the smaller magnitude quakes that follow a major earthquake
aftershocks
The ________ is used to record ground shaking and the earthquake-magnitude scale was invented by ________.
seismograph; Richter
The ________ earthquake was accompanied by major damage from tsunamis and ground failures
Anchorage, AK, 1964
________ was struck by three, major earthquakes during the winter and spring months of the years 1811-1812.
New Madrid, Missouri
Which one of the following best characterizes tsunamis?
They have relatively small amplitudes compared to their very long wavelengths.
The ________ earthquake was accompanied by extensive fire damage.
San Francisco, 1906
________ refers to the tendency for a foundation material to lose its internal cohesion and fail mechanically during earthquake shaking.
Liquefaction
The ________ is directly related to the Richter earthquake-magnitude rating.
amplitude of the seismic waves
Which one of the following regarding the San Andreas Fault in California is true?
a sliver of continent west of the fault is moving northward with the Pacific plate
is one of the two, major flow mechanism in a glacier
Basal slip
Where is the world's largest ice sheet located today
Antarctica
Which one of the following applies to a valley glacier that lengthens (extends its terminus downslope) over a period of many years?
Accumulation exceeds wastage.
A ________ cross-valley profile is typical of canyons and valleys eroded and deepened by alpine or valley glaciers.
U
first developed the theory that small variations in the Earth-Sun distance were responsible for short term, climatic oscillations (1000 to 100,000 years).
M. Milankovitch
Which one of the following samples and experimental measurements would provide the most information about the Earth's climate over the last 100,000 years or so?
cores from the Greenland ice sheet; ratios of the oxygen isotopes (0-18/0-16)
A(n) ________ is similar in appearance to a sinkhole of a karst area
Kettle
A fiord is ________.
a stream valley, deepened by glacial erosion, that floods as sea level rises
Which process occurs where a glacier enters the sea?
calving
The ________ of the geologic time scale represents the time of the most recent "Ice Age."
Pleistocene epoch
Which of the following is the correct listing of the North American glacial stages from older to younger?
Nebraskan, Kansan, Illinoian, Wisconsinan
Which one of the following statements concerning glaciers is not true?
Long, extended, alpine glaciers occupied valleys in most high, mountainous areas in the United States, Canada, and Europe at one or more times during the past two million years
A(n) ________ is likely to host a waterfall or steep rapids today.
hanging valley
________ are both deposited by meltwater streams.
Outwash plains and valley trains
Where is the world's second largest continental ice sheet?
Greenland
How do icebergs in the North Atlantic Ocean originate?
by calving of large piedmont glaciers in Greenland
Which of the following best describes the term glacial drift
the sedimentary materials outwash and till
Which one of the following could not have significantly affected climatic variations and advances and retreats of ice sheets during the Pleistocene epoch?
movements of Earth's tectonic plates
Which of the following is often associated with a cirque basin in high, mountainous terrain?
tarn lake
All of the following are thought to possibly contribute to the formation of glaciers except for ________.
comets
The law of superposition applies primarily to sedimentary rocks and lava flows
True
In sedimentary rocks, lithification includes
Compaction and cementation
The asthenosphere is a relatively cool and rigid shell that overlies the lithosphere.
false
Aristotle and other prominent Greek philosophers were the first ones to promote the doctrine of uniformitarianism
false
Which of the following best describes the fundamental concept of superposition?
any sedimentary deposit accumulates on older rock or sediment layers
all of the following are possible steps of scientific investigation except for
assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation
What are the basic differences between the disciplines of physical and historical geology?
historical geology involves the study of rock strata, fossils, and geologic events, utilizing the geologic time scale as a reference; physical geology includes the study of how rocks form and of how erosion shapes the land surface
Laboratory assignment problems will be assessed as part of chapter quizzes
false
Where can students find the "Course Calendar" for the entire semester?
in the tools link
is often paraphrased as "the present is the key to the past"
Uniformitarianism
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Metamorphic rocks may crystalize from magma
The relatively stable interior portion of a continent is known as a
craton
The ______ is the thinnest layer of the Earth
crust
is the process by which rocks breakdown in place to produce soils and sediments
weathering
During the late 19th and early 20th centuries, direct observations showed that a glacier in Switzerland flowed forward in the downhill direction while its snout (terminus) was retreating higher up the valley. Which of the following explains these observations in a rational, scientific way?
The melting rate of ice in the glacier exceeded the rate at which new snow and ice were added to the glacier.
_____, a popular natural philosophy of the 17th and early 18th centuries, was based on a firm belief in a very short geologic history for Earth
Catastrophism
The asthenosphere is actually a part of the _______ of the Earth
mantle
The _____- is thought to be a liquid, metallic region in the Earth's interior
outer core
A _____ is a well-tested and widely accepted view that best explains certain scientific observations
theory
The _____ refers to the sum total of all life on Earth
biosphere
In the early part of the 20th century, _____ argued forcefully for continental drift
Alfred Wegener
The former, late Paleozoic super continent is known as
Pangaea
Pull-apart, rift zones are generally associated with a ______ plate boundary
divergent
Deep-focus earthquakes, those between 300 and 700 kilometers below the surface, occur only in association with
subduction zones
Linear, magnetic patterns associated with mid-ocean ridges are configured as
normal and reversed magnetized strips roughly parallel to the ridge
All of the following are possible steps of scientific investigation except for
assumption of conclusions without prior experimentation or observation
In correct order from the center outward, Earth includes which units?
inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
Which type of basaltic lava flow has a fairly smooth, unfragmented, ropy surface?
pahoehoe
Refer to the lab text, page 22, #6 f, 1.3 liters = ________cm3
1300
Refer to lab text, page 22 # 14, How is the distribution of Earth's spheres related to their densities?
Less dense spheres are located above more dense spheres
Refer to lab text, page 29 # 24, How is a mountain like the iceberg in Figure 1.16B?
Due to isostatic rebound, both the mountain and the iceburg will "float" higher if their mass decreases caused by erosion or melting
Refer to lab text, page 34 # 1, What type of fault would likely occur in association with a convergent boundary? (Hint: consider the type of stress)
reverse fault
Refer to the lab text, page 34 # 20, What main kind of faulting and plate boundary would you expect to occur in Earth's thin, egg-shell-like lithosphere if Earth's outer shell fractures but there is no expansion or shrinking of its size?
strike-slip (lateral) fault
What is a naturally occurring, inorganic solid with an orderly crystalline structure and a definite chemical composition?
a mineral
Minerals are classified by
composition
is the process by which rocks breakdown in place to produce soils and sediments.
Weathering
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Metamorphic rocks may crystalize from magma.
The former, late Paleozoic super continent is known as
Pangaea
The volcanoes and deep valleys of east Africa are related to a
continental rift along which parts of the African continent are beginning to slowly separate
What volcanic events formed Crater Lake, OR? When did they take place?
Caldera collapse followed major ash and pyroclastic-flow eruptions: 6000 years ago.
A _________ is an intrusive, igneous rock body that is tabular and concordant.
sill
Refer to Page 41 # 14a, Examine the cross section of a plate boundary in figure 2.9B. What kind of plate boundary is this?
Oceanic-Continental Convergent
Refer to Page 42 #15c, How does the rate of Pacific plate movement during the past 1.6 million years differ from the older (4.7-1.6my) rate of plate motion.
The plate motion has sped up in the past 1.6 million years.
Refer to Page 44 #16a, What direction is the North American Plate moving according to Anders' data?
Southwestward
New oceanic crust and lithosphere are formed at
divergent boundaries by submarine eruptions and intrusions of basaltic magma
The continental drift hypothesis was rejected primarily because Alfred Wegener could not
identify a mechanism capable of moving continents
The Columbia Plateau in Washington and Oregon is
a flood basalt plateau.
Which kind of eruptive activity is most likely to be highly explosive?
Eruptions of big, continental margin, composite cones or stratovolcanoes
Which of the following minerals is in the mineral group known as mica?
muscovite
The strong tendency of certain minerals to break along smooth, parallel planes is known as ________.
cleavage
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is the name of sample 8A?
Quartz
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is the hardness using Moh's scale for sample 12A ?
1
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is mineral 13A used for commercially?
making wallboard for construction
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is the luster of sample 1A?
metallic
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is the name of sample 7A?
galena
Refer to Page 60 #11, Sample 11A has what type of cleavage?
strong in 1 direction
Refer to Page 60 #11, What is a special property of mineral 3A?
double refraction
Which one of the following is not true for minerals?
They can be a liquid, solid, or gas
Which group of minerals are the most abundant in the Earth's crust?
silicates
Which of the following is associated with deep mantle hot spots?
the volcanoes of Hawaii and the Quaternary activity in Yellowstone National Park
An atom's mass number is 13 and its atomic number is 6. How many neutrons are in its nucleus?
7
Refer to Page 84 #3, What is the name of igneous rock sample 4B?
obsidian
Refer to Page 84 #3, What is the Texture of igneous rock sample 6B?
porphoritic
In an igneous rock with a phaneritic texture, the mineral grains are visible to the unaided eye.
True
A ________ texture would be most unlikely to occur in an extrusive igneous rock.
phaneritic
Which igneous rock or magma has the lowest silica (SiO2) content?
basalt
All of the following are factors that affect the generation of magma except for
crystal size
What are the lightest or least massive of the basic atomic particles?
electrons
Which carbonate mineral reacts readily with cool, dilute hydrochloric acid to produce visible bubbles of carbon dioxide gas?
calcite
Which of the following minerals is a silicate?
muscovite
Refer to Page 105 #3a, What kind of igneous body is labeled "A"?
volcanic neck
Refer to Page 1 (as it relates to Page 103 Fig. 5.19), What caused the texture of igneous rock in picture "b" on figure 5.19?
gas bubbles in lava
Mohs scale is used to determine what property of minerals?
hardness
What determines whether a mineral will show cleavage or break in irregular fractures?
internal atomic structure
When large masses of magma solidify far below Earth's surface, they form igneous rocks that have a _____.
coarse-grained texture
As the rate of cooling of igneous rocks increases, the size of the crystals that form
decreases
Why can two igneous rocks have the same minerals but different names?
The rocks may have different textures
A volcano that is fairly symmetrical and has both layers of lava and pyroclastic deposits is a
composite cone volcano
Which of the following plays a major part in determining the form of a volcano?
magma composition
Magma tends to rise towards Earth's surface primarily because___________.
rocks become less dense when they melt.
The active Hawaiian volcanoes are situated directly above a major boundary between two of the Earth's largest tectonic plates.
False
Which region has the greatest concentration of currently active volcanoes
the circum-Pacific area
Which one of the following shows the correct order (left to right) of decreasing magma viscosity
rhyolite, andesite, basalt
Why do magmas rise toward Earth's surface?
Magmas are mainly liquid and contain dissolved fluids such as water; most are less dense than the adjacent solid rock.
Refer to Page 106 #8, Name the rock sample 1B
granite
Which of the following best describes the "Dust Bowl"?
areas of severe wind erosion on the Great Plains, 1930s
Which one of the following is an important, mechanical weathering process for enlarging fractures and extending them deeper into large boulders and bedrock?
frost wedging
Which term best describes those processes that move weathered rock materials and soils downslope?
mass wasting
Which term best describes an accumulation of angular rock fragments at the base of a steep, bedrock slope or cliff?
talus slope
Radiometric dating is possible because the rates of decay of radioactive isotopes
are constant
Refer to page 119, figure 6.10, your sample 9B is an example of which type of sedimentary rock?
detrital
Refer to page 119, Figure 6.10, your sample 11B is called
shale
Refer to page 119, Figure 6.10, your sample 13B is called
fossiliferous limestone
Refer to page 129 Figure 6.13, b. What is the name of this kind of stratification
cross bedding
What is probably the single most important, original, depositional feature in sedimentary rocks?
bedding or stratification
Which statement concerning sedimentary rocks is not true?
They were originally deposited at depth below the bottom of the sea
Sedimentary rocks account for about what percentage of the Earth's outermost 10 kilometers of rock (first percentage). Also, what percentage of the Earth's continental area is covered by sedimentary rocks (second percentage)?
5%;75%
Which characteristic is absolutely necessary for a sedimentary rock to have potential as a possible reservoir rock for oil or gas?
high porosity
The primary agent of contact metamorphism is
heat
Which of the following is a use for fossils found in sedimentary rocks?
all of these
An unconformity is a(an)
gap in the rock record
Which of the following represents the correct order of the processes involved in sedimentary rock formation?
weathering, erosion, deposition, compaction, cementation
Refer to page 147 your sample 16B. Which best describes the grade of metamorphism of this sample?
low grade metamorphism
Refer to page 147, your sample 18B. The metamorphic texture of this sample can best be described as_________
foliated
Refer to page 147, your sample 21B. The name of this metamorphic rock is
marble
Refer to page 145, #4 d. (figure 7.18) What was the parent rock?
sandstone
Why can two igneous rocks have the same minerals but different names?
The rocks may have different textures
According to the principle of cross-cutting relationships, an intrusive rock body is
younger than the rocks into which it intrudes
The three groups of rocks are classified by
how they formed
How old is Earth?
4.56 billion years
is a strong, parallel alignment of coarse mica flakes and/or of different mineral bands in a metamorphic rock.
foliation
Which of the following best describes the conditions of contact metamorphism?
Pressures are fairly low, the rock is in the upper part of the crust, and heat is supplied from a nearby magma body
Which of the following lists the rocks in the order of increasing grain size and increasing grade of metamorphism?
slate, phyllite, schist
In which setting would regional metamorphism be most likely?
at great depths in the crust where two continents are colliding
From page 153 #1, which refers to figure 8.9 at the top of page 156, Which of the following rock units is the oldest?
A
From page 153 # 1, referring to figure 8.10 bottom of page 156, Which of the following roc units is the youngest?
F
Refer to page 162 #8a, About how many half-lives of the Uranium 235 to Lead -207 decay pair have elapsed in the zircon crystals?
0.5 half lives
Page 162 #12 c, referring to figure 8.17 on page 163, asks: Locate the fault. How much displacement has occurred along this fault? ( hint: notice the scale on the lower right hand side of the photo)
2m
What fundamental concept states that in a horizontal sequence of conformable sedimentary strata each higher bed is younger than the bed below it?
law of superposition
Which of the following is an essential characteristic of an index fossil?
the organism only lived for a short period of geologic time
What is the age of the Earth accepted by most scientists today?
4.5 billion years
Which of the following denotes the divisions of the geologic time scale in correct order of decreasing lengths of time beginning with the longest time interval and ending with the shortest?
eon, era, period, epoch
The chemical weathering of feldspar produces
clay minerals
Where are most transform faults found?
joining two segments of a mid-ocean ridge
During the process of erosion and deposition, sediments that are the _____ in size will be carried the greatest distances before being deposited.
smallest
The San Francisco earthquake of 1906 occurred along what fault?
the San Andreas fault
Page 185 # 2 refers to figure 9.1 on page 169, What are the latitude-longitude coordinates of Point B?
40oS 20oW
Page 186 # 18a refers to figure 9.20 on page 188. The contour line on this map are labeled in meters. What is the contour interval of this map?
20 m
page 186 # 18c refers to figure 9.20 on page 188. What is the gradient from y to x?
13.3m/km
page 186 #17 refers to figure 9.19 on page 187. What is the exact elevation along the innermost hash-marked isocline, closer to the coastline.(hint: hash marks indicate a depression and the first hashed isocline repeats the last regular isocline in elevation.)
20m
In which of the following settings would a metamorphic rock most likely form?
8 kilometers below Earth's surface
Index fossils allow geologists to
match rocks of the same age in different regions
What type of unconformity consists of tilted sedimentary rocks that are overlain by younger, more flat-lying sedimentary rocks?
angular unconformity
In general, the law of superposition states that in an undeformed sequence of sedimentary rocks, each layer is
older than the one above it
If the half-life of an unstable isotope is 10,000 years, and only 1/8 of the radioactive parent remains in a sample, how old is the sample?
30,000 years old
Which of the following changes may occur during metamorphism?
all of the above
Page 206 # 21 refers to figure 10.13 on page 207. What type of geologic structure is depicted in "C"?
monocline
Page 206 #21 refers to figure 10.13 on page 207. What type of geologic structure is depicted in "A"?
syncline
Referring to Cardboard Model 4 as it pertains to question 13 on page 204. What type of unconformity is at the base of formation J?
nonconformity
Page 206 # 21 refers to figure 10.13 on page 208. Which type of geologic structure is depicted by "L"?
basin
Which one of the following is consistent with deformation by folding?
Horizontal distance is shortened perpendicular to fold axes
The mountains and valleys of the Basin and Range Province of the western United States formed in response to
tensional stresses and normal-fault movements
is defined, recognizable, mappable, rock unit with a known age
formation
The Michigan geologic map shows older, Paleozoic strata (in a roughly circular patterns) surrounding a core area of Pennsylvanian rocks. What is this structure?
basin
In what type of rocks are most fossils found?
sedimentary rocks
What is the ultimate base level of a stream?
the ocean
Springs form where
the water table intersects the ground surface
What factor commonly triggers mass movements
all of these
Refer to page 299, figure 16.2 questions 6-8. Based on the kinds of Earth Materials upon which buildings have been constructed in this portion of SanFrancisco, which region posses the least risk of earthquake damage
location X
Refer to question 17 on page 302 dealing with figure 16.6, the s-minus p time for Charlotte, NC is______
5 min
Refer to page 304 # 21 b relating to figure 16.8, How much has the San Andreas Fault offset the present-day channel of Wallace Creek?
80 m
Refer to page 302 # 18, Sitka, AK is ___ kilometers away from the epicenter.
3800
If you were to examine the profile of a typical stream, you would probably find that the gradient is ____.
steepest near the head
Caverns most commonly form in what type of bedrock
limestone
Which one of the following is NOT an effect that Pleistocene glaciers had on the landscape?
extinction of the dinosaurs
Limiting development on floodplains is effective because it
allows floodplains to absorb floodwaters with little harm to structures
Refer to page 220, figure 11.5, b) The elevation of point X is
240 ft.
Refer to page 220, figure 11.5 h) Trout Run flows (drains downhill) in what direction
North
Refer to page 221 # 5a) as it pertains to figure 11.3 on page 217. What drainage pattern currently is developed in this area?
dendritic
Refer to page 226 # 17 b) What main steam channel type is present on the Cedar Creek alluvial fan?
straight
As an erosional process, how is mass wasting unique from wind, water, and ice?
Mass wasting does not require a transporting medium
Material deposited directly by a glacier is called
till
What is the minimum number of seismic stations that is needed to determine the location of an earthquake's epicenter?
three
Which of the following is associated with areas of karst topography?
all of the above
Refer to page 256 #2, pertaining to figure 13.9. What is the name of feature like Marmot Mountain and Conical Peak?
horn
Refer to page 256 #5 pertaining to figure 13.9. What type of lake is at the headwaters which form the falls? (Hint: the lake is just left of "x")
tarn
Refer to page 262 # 15 pertaining to fiugure 13.12 & 13.13. What kind of glaciation (mountain vs. continental) has shaped this landscape?
continental
Refer to page 265 #26a) pertaining to figure 13.15. How are modern glaciers of this region distributed in relation to the Continental Divide?
more glaciers west of the continental divide
When groundwater enters underground fractures or caverns in hot igneous rocks, where it is heated to boiling temperatures, what feature can form?
geyser
A cavern is an underground chamber formed by
erosion
If granite and marble were exposed in an area with a hot and humid climate, ____.
the marble would weather most rapidly
Refer to page 241 # 4a) pertaining to figure 12.2. Which new home construction site is the most hazardous?
B
Refer to page 241 # 3, How is Figure 12.5 related to figure 12.4?
All of these are true
Refer to page 249 # 15a) pertaining to figure 12.11. What was the total subsidence at San Jose from 1934-1967?
10 ft.
Refer to page 249 # 20a) pertaining to figure 12.14. What was the level of the water in the San Jose well in 1915?
0 ft (at land surface)
The atmospheric gas that forms a mild acid when dissolved in water is
carbon dioxide
One characteristic of glacial movement is that
the movement depends on the balance between accumulation and wastage
Which of the following affects the amount of destruction caused by earthquake vibrations?
all of the above
Refer to page 287 #1 as it pertains to figure 15.4. What has been the average annual rate of Po Delta progradation in cm/yr since Adria was a thriving seaport on the coastline of the Adriatic Sea?
1500 cm/yr
Refer to page 288 #4. What type of coastline is in figure 15.5?
submergence
Refer to page 292 # 18a) pertaining to figure 15.8. Why did Assateague Island migrate landward?
Construction of the seawall at the north end starved the beach of incoming sand
Refer to page 292 # 20 pertaining to figure 15.8. How does the wesward migration of Assateague Island increase the risk of hurricane damage to Ocean City?
The island will no longer provide a buffer zone for hurricane storm surge since when the island has migrated even farther westward
After ice sheets and glaciers, ________ contain(s) the next highest percentage of the Earth's freshwater.
groundwater
Which common, rock-forming mineral or mineral group is most readily dissolved by groundwater?
calcite
The water table is
a boundary between saturated rock below and unsaturated rock above
are specific features of karst topography
Streams flowing into depressions and continuing underground
According to the theory of plate tectonics
the lithosphere is divided into plates
A tectonic plate consists of
the crust and uppermost mantle