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ACE Group Fitness

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What are the five major functions of the cardiovascular system?
1. distributes oxygen and nutrients to the cells
2. carries carbon dioxide and metabolic wastes from the cells
3. protects against disease
4. helps regulate body temperature
5. prevents serious blood loss after injury through the formation of clots
What are the two components that make up blood?
1. Formed elements, which include different types of living blood cells, including white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets
2. Plasma, the non-living liquid portion of blood. Plasma is about 92% water and 8% dissolved solutes
How many chambers does that heart have?
There are four chambers: the right atrium, the right ventricle, the left atrium and the left ventricle
What are the three major functions of the respiratory systems?
1. supplies oxygen
2. eliminates carbon dioxide
3. helps regulate the acid-base balance (pH) of the body
What are the three general phases of respiration?
1. External respiration is the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the atmosphere and the blood within the large capillaries in the lungs
2. Internal respiration involves the exchange of those gases between the blood and the cells of the body
3. Cellular respiration involves the utilization of oxygen and the production of carbon dioxide by the metabolic activity of the cells
What are the major components of the central nervous system (CNS)?
The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of the brain and the spinal cord.
What are the major components of the peripheral nervous system? (PNS)
The peripheral nervous system (PNS) is made up of nerves that connect extremities and their receptors within the CNS
What are proprioceptors?
Somatic sensory receptors found in muscles, tendons, ligaments, joint capsules, and skin that gather information about body position and the direction of velocity of movement.
List the five important functions of bones
Bones provide...

1. protection for many vital organs, such as the heart, brain, and spinal cord
2. support for soft tissues so that erect posture and the form of the body can be maintained
3. a framework of levers to which muscles are attached
4. the red marrow of bone that is responsible for the production of certain blood cells
5. storage areas for calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, and other minerals
What is Wolff's Law?
According to Wolff's Law, bone is capable of adjusting its strength in proportion to the amount of stress placed on it.
List the five regions that make up the vertebral column.
Cervical vertebrae (7 vertebrae)
Thoracic vertebrae (12 vertebrae)
Lumbar vertebrae (5 vertebrae)
Sacrum (5 fused vertebrae)
Coccyx (4 fused vertebrae)
What are the three structural categories of joints in the body?
Fibrous
Cartilaginous
and synovial
What are the five distinguishing characteristics of synovial joints?
1. have a joint cavity
2. a ligamentous joint capsule made of dense, fibrous connective tissue surrounds each joint cavity.
3. the end of the bones in synovial joints are covered with a thin layer of articular cartilage.
4. the inner surface of the joint capsule is lined with a thin synovial membrane.
5. Synovial fluid acts as a lubricant for the joint, and provides nutrition to the articular cartilage.
What are the three types of human muscle tissue?
Cardiac
visceral (smooth)
and skeletal
Define the terms agonist, antagonist, and synergist.
An agonist is the muscle directly responsible for observed movement; also called the prime mover.
An antagonist is the muscle that acts in opposition to the action of the agonist muscle.
A synergist is a muscle that aids another muscle in its action.
What are the four muscle compartments in the lower leg and the muscles associated with each compartment?
Anterior compartment
Tibialis anterior
Extensor digitorum longus
Extensor hallucis longus
Lateral compartment
Peroneus longus
Peroneus brevis

Deep posterior compartment
Tibialis posterior
Flexor digitorum longus
Flexor hallicus longus

Superficial posterior compartment
Soleus
Gastrocnemius
Popliteus
Plataris
What are the three muscles groups that cross the knee joint and the muscles associated with each group?
Anterior compartment
(quadriceps femoris)
Rectus femoris
Vastus lateralis
Vastus intermedialis
Vastus medialis

Posterior compartment
(hamstrings)
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

Medial compartment
(pes anserine group)
sartorius
gracilis
What are the three muscle compartments that cross the hip joint and the muscles associated with each compartment?
Anterior compartment
rectus femoris
psoas major
psoas minor
iliacus

Posterior compartment
glueus maximus
gluteus medius
gluteus minimus
hamstrings group

Medial compartment
adductor magnus
adductor brevis
gracilis
pectineus
adductor longus
What are the four major links of the upper body?
The major links of the upper body are the wrist joint, the elbow joint, the shoulder joint, and the scapulothoracic articulation.
What are the five major muscles that act on the elbow joint?
Beceps brachii,
brachialis,
brachioradialis,
triceps brachii, and
pronator teres
What does the acronym SITS stand for?
The rotator cuff muscles;
Supraspinatus,
Infraspinatus,
Teres minor, and
Subscapularis
What are the five major muscles that act on the trunk?
Rectus abdominus,
external oblique,
internal oblique,
transverse abdominis, and
erector spinae group
What are four major muscles that act on the shoulder?
Pectoralis major
deltoid
latissimus dorsi and
rotator cuff
Describe the law of inertia.
The law of inertia states that a body at rest will stay at rest and that a body in motion will stay in motion (with the same direction and velocity) unless acted upon by an external force.
Describe the law of acceleration.
The law of acceleration states that acceleration (a) is produced when a force (F) acts on a mass (m), and that the greater the mass (of the object being accelerated) the greater the amount of force need to accelerate the object. This is expressed by the formula a=F/m or more commonly, F=ma.
Describe the law of reaction.
The law of reaction states that every applied force is accompanied by an equal and opposite reaction force.
What are the four major muscles that act synergistically to flex the hip joint?
Iliopsoas
rectus femoris
sartorius, and
tensor fasciae latae
Which one of the four quadriceps muscles crosses the hip joint?
A. Vastus medialis
B. Rectus femoris
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Vastus intermedins
B. Rectus femoris
What two muscle groups are the primary hip extensors?
Hamstrings
(beceps femoris
semitendinosus, and
semimembranosus)
and the gluteus maximus
What are three primary hip abductors that are assisted by the tensor fasciae latae?
Gluteus medius
gluteus minimus, and the
superior fibers of the gluteus maximus
List the muscles, from superior to inferior, that externally rotate the hip.
Piriformis
superior gemellus
orburator internus
obturator externus
inferior gemellus, and the
quadratus femoris
What are the three major hip adductors?
Adductor magnus
adductor longus, and
adductor brevis
What three muscles are responsible for controlling ankle dorsiflexion?
Anterior tibialis
extensor hallicus longus, and
extensor digitorum longus
What two muscles are the primary plantar flexors of the ankle joint?
The soleus and the
gastrocnemius
What are the three most common abnormal postures?
Lordosis
kyphosis, and
scoliosis
What three muscles make up the erector spinae group?
Iliocostalis
longissimus, and
spinalis
List the four segments that make up the should joint complex.
S/C sternoclavicular joint
A/C acromioclavicular joint
G/H glenohumeral joint
S/T scapulothoracic articulation
What are the six anatomical movements of the scapulae?
Elevation
depression
adduction
abduction
upward rotation, and
downward rotation
What five muscle groups produce movement at the glenohumeral joint?
Pectoralis major
deltoid
rotator cuff
latissimus dorsi, and
teres major
What two anatomical movements combined can irritate the supraspinatus?
Abduction and internal rotation of the glenohumeral joint.
Describe the characteristics of the three eating disorders: anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, and binge eating disorder.
Anorexia nervosa: Characterized by self-starvation, distorted body image, and an intense fear of becoming obese.

Bulimia nervosa: Characterized by binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting, fasting, or the use of diuretics or laxatives.

Binge eating disorder: Characterized by frequent binge eating (without purging) and feelings of being out of control when eating.
Which one of the following answers is the correct sequence of fuel sources used during physical activity?

A. Fatty acids, ATP and CP, glycogen
B. Glycogen, ATP and CP, fatty acids
C. Glycogen, fatty acids, ATP and CP
D. ATP and CP, glycogen, fatty acids
D. ATP and CP, glycogen, fatty acids
What is the energy content of each of the four classes of nutrients?
Carbohydrates 4 kcal/g
Protein 4 kcal/g
Fat 9 kcal/g
Alcohol 7 kcal/g
What are the two categories of simple carbohydrates? Give examples of each.
Monosaccharides ("single sugars") like galactose
glucose, and fructose

Disaccharides ("double sugars") like lactose, maltose, and sucrose
What are the effects of caffeine on the body?
Caffeine stimulates the central nervous system (CNS), making some people feel more awake and giving others the "jitters." It causes fluid loss and can contribute to elevated blood pressure.

Caffeine's side effects include headache, nausea, muscle tremors, anxiety, nervousness, irritability, and insomnia.
What are the seven functions of proteins in the body?
Proteins:

1. make up the major part of the body's structural components like muscle, skin, etc.
2. form enzymes
3. serve as a neurotransmitter
4. form some hormones
5. help balance fluid and electrolytes
6. serve as transport proteins for many nutrients
7. can provide energy
What are the fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins?
Fat-soluble vitamins: (A, D, E, and K); stored in the body.

Water-soluble vitamins: (C, B1, B2, Niacin, B6, B12, Folic Acid, Pantothenic Acid, and Biotin); are not stored in the body and, thus, need to be supplied on a daily basis.
What are the three types of dietary fat?
Triglycerides
cholesterol, and
lecithin
What is anemia?
A disorder caused by a low hemoglobin content in the blood, which reduces the amount of oxygen available to the body's tissues; symptoms include fatigue, breathlessness after exercise, giddiness, and loss of appetite
What is the daily recommendation for calcium intake for adult women?
Adult women need about 1000 - 1300 mg per day depending on their age and condition (i.e., post-menopausal, pregnant, lactating mothers).
What are micronutrients?
Special chemicals needed in minute amounts; found widely in food; known as vitamins and minerals
What is osteoporosis?
A condition in which the bones weaken and become porous due to progressive loss of calcium.
What is the general daily fluid/water recommendation?
A person consuming 2000 kcal/day needs about 2-3 liters (7-11 cups).
What are the two types of dietary fiber?
Soluble fiber: Form a gel with fluids in the gut and bowel and found in fruits, oats, barley, and legumes.

Insoluble fiber: Do not tend to bind to water, fluids, or cholesterol and are found in wheat bran, whole-grain foods, bread and cereals, and vegetables.
List, from bottom to top, the six food groups found within the Food Guide Pyramid.
1. Bread, cereal, rice
2. Vegetable group
3. Fruit group
4. Milk, yogurt, and cheese group
5. Meat, poultry, fish, dry beans
6. Fats, oils, and sweets
What is the difference between saturated fat and unsaturated fat?
Saturated (e.g., butter, margarine) have no double bonds, which makes them typically solid at room temperature.

Unsaturated fats (e.g., corn oil, sunflower oil) have at least one carbon-carbon double bond, which makes them typically liquid at room temperature.
What are the critical levels for the following serum lipids?
A. total serum cholesterol
B. low-density lipoproteins (LDL)
C. high-density lipoproteins (HDL)
A. total serum cholesterol should not exceed 200 mg/dL
B. low-density lipoproteins (LDL) should not exceed 130 mg/dL
C. high-density lipoproteins (HDL) should be above 35 mg/dL
What is the energy deficit in calories/day necessary to lose 1lb. per week?
A. 500 kcal/day
B. 1000 kcal/day
C. 1500 kcal/day
D. 3500 kcal/day
500 kcal deficit created a day will cause a 1-pound weight loss in one week.
What is the difference between Type 1 and Type 2 diabetes?
Type 1 diabetes usually strikes children and is caused by the non-functioning of the insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas.

Type 2 diabetes, which is more common among the overweight, is the most common form of diabetes millitus, resulting from an inability to use insulin produced by the pancreas.
What are the current recommendations on nutrition for fitness?
Consume a diet rich in carbohydrates, particularly complex carbohydrates, and moderate in protein and fat.
What are four lifestyle factors that affect hypertension?
Obesity, high-salt diets, alcohol consumption, and smoking
What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
A congenital heart defect involving a thickening of the heart muscle.
What is the function of the health appraisal questionnaire?
It is used to classify a potential exercise participant according to disease risk, and facilitate exercise programming.
What is the recommended course of action when a participant answers "yes" to one or more PAR-Q survey questions?
The participant must discuss the results of the PAR-Q with a physician prior to engaging in a fitness appraisal or becoming more physically active.
What are the characteristics of a participant classified into risk strata A-1?
Children, adolescents, men under 45 years old, no symptoms of disease, apparently healthy with no known disease, no cardiovascular risk factors.
What are the characteristics of a participant classified into risk strata A-2?
Men 45 years of age and over, women 55 years of age and over, no symptoms of disease, apparently healthy with no known disease, no cardiovascular risk factors.
What are the characteristics of a participant classified into risk strata A-3?
Men 45 years of age and over; women 55 years of age and over, no symptoms of disease, apparently healthy with no known disease, two or more cardiovascular risk factors.
What are the characteristics of a participant classified risk strata B?
Presence of known, stable cardiovascular disease with low risk for vigorous exercise, but slightly greater than for apparently healthy persons.
What are characteristics of a participant classified into risk strata C?
Those at moderate-to-high risk for cardiac complications during exercise and/or who are unable to self-regulate activity or understand the recommended activity level.
What are the characteristics of a participant classified into risk strata D?
Patients with unstable cardiovascular conditions; in this population, no physical activity is recommended for conditioning purposes.
What are the exercise guidelines for apparently healthy participants (classes A-1, A-2, and A-3) for beginning a moderate exercise program?
Participants that are apparently healthy can begin a moderate exercise program without the need for exercise testing or medical examination.
Moderate exercise is defined as 45-59% VO2 max or heart rate reserve, or 11-12 on the rating of perceived exertion (RPE) scale (6-12 version).
What are the exercise guidelines for apparently healthy participants (classes A-1, A-2, and A-3) for beginning a vigorous exercise program?
Class A-1 participants (younger) can begin a vigorous exercise program without the need for exercise testing or medical examination.

Class A-2 (older) and A-3 participants (risk factors), should have a medical examination and undergo a graded exercise test under the supervision of a physician prior to beginning a vigorous exercise program.

Vigorous exercise is defined as VO2 max 75% and above or rating of perceived exertion (RPE) 13 or above (6-20 version).
What is the Ratings of Perceived Exertion (RPE) Scale?
A scale that measures the participants' perceptions of exercise effort.
Which of the risk strata classifications should be the starting point for undergoing a medical examination and exercise testing before participating in any type of exercise program?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
B. Class B
Which of the risk strata classifications should avoid exercise testing of any type of exercise program for conditioning purposes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
D. Class D
What is the 1998 ACSM Position Stand on Fitness for Healthy Adults for cardiovascular training?
Frequency: 3-5 days per week
Intensity: 60-90% of max heart rate (HR) and 50-85% of VO2 max
Duration: 20-60 continuous minutes or 10-minute bouts accumulated throughout the day to equal 20-60 minutes
Mode: Walk, run, row, stairs, cycle, aerobics
What is the 1998 ACSM Position Stand on Fitness for Healthy Adults for resistance training and flexibility?
Resistance training: One set of 8-12 reps for participants less than 50 years old and 10-15 reps for participants older than 50 years old; a minimum of 2 times per week; 8-10 major muscle groups worked.
List the four outcomes of
teacher-centered instruction.
Dependence, intimidation, unattainable goals, and quick fixes
List the four outcomes of
student-centered instruction.
Independence, encouragement, attainable goals, and reality.
What are the body-fat ranges for the women and men in the "athletes" and the "acceptable" categories?
Athletes: Women, 14-20; Men, 6-13
Acceptable: Women, 25-31; Men, 18-25
What is oxygen uptake? What is its symbol?
The process by which oxygen is used to produce energy for cellular work; also called oxygen consumption
Symbol: VO2
Which is more accurate, indirect or direct measurement of VO2 max?
The direct measurement of VO2 max using gas exchange is more accurate and is considered the gold standard
What is a metabolic equivalent (MET)?
METs is a system for classifying physical activities. One MET is equal to resting oxygen consumption: approximately 3.5 milliliters of oxygen per kilogram of body-weight per minute (3.5 mL/kg/min).
Write the formula for body mass index (BMI).
BMI = Weight (kg) / Height 2(squared) (m)
Two hundred and twenty pounds is equal to how many kilograms?
A. 22 kg
B. 44 kg
C. 50 kg
D. 100 kg
D. 100 (the conversion factor is 2.2 lbs. per 1 kg)
What is the goal of the cardiorespiratory segment?
This portion follows the warm-up and is aimed at improving cariorespiratory endurance and body composition and keeping the heart rate elevated for 10-30 minutes.
What is the purpose of the warm-up portion?
The warm-up is designed to prepare the body for the more rigorous demands of the cardiorespiratory and/or muscular strength and conditioning segments by raising the internal temperature. This can be done by elevating internal temperatures 1 to 2 degrees F, so that sweating occurs.
What are rehearsal moves?
Movements that are identical to, but less intense than, the movements participants will execute during the workout phase.
What are the recommended decibel (dB) levels for the music and the instructor's voice during a group fitness class?
90 dB for music and 100 dB for the instructor's voice.
What are the three main reasons to gradually increase intensity?
1) It allows the blood flow to be redistributed from internal organs to the working muscles.

2) It allows the heart muscle time to adapt to the change from a resting to a working level.

3) It allows for an increase in respiratory rate.
List four recommended locations for heart-rate monitoring.
Carotid pulse site (neck)
radial pulse site (wrist)
apical pulse site (over the heart), and
temporal pulse site (temple)
What is the age-adjusted maximal heart rate formula?
Estimated Maximal HR = 220 - Age in years.
What is the major difference between the percentage of maximal HR method and the Karvonen method?
The Karvonen method takes resting heart rate into account when determining target heart rate.
220-age = MHR
MHR - RHR = HRR
(HRR X 0.5 to 0.85) + RHR = Target Heart Rate
What are the four ratings of the dyspnea scale?
+1 Mild, noticeable to participant, but not to observer
+2 Mild, some difficulty that is noticeable to oberver
+3 Moderate difficulty, participants can continue to exercise
+4 Severe difficulty, participant must stop exercising
What are the purposes of the cool-down/stretch segment?
This portion allows the cardiorespiratory system to recover. It reduces stiffness due to trapped metabolic wastes and it prevents blood from pooling in the lower extremities.
What are the five general cues for muscular endurance exercises?
1) Perform each exercise slowly, smoothly, and with control.
2) Key into the muscle group(s) being worked and try to relax other body parts.
3) Stop when you feel tired or change to the other side or alternate sides as desired.
4) Correct form is more important than the number of repetition, keeping to the music tempo, or the amount of resistance used.
5) Concentrate on breathing.
What is the myotatic stretch reflex?
An involuntary motor response that, when stimulated, causes a suddenly stretched muscle to respond with a corresponding contraction.
What are the three domains of human behavior?
Cognitive domain: describes intellectual activities and involves gaining knowledge
Affective domain: describes emotional behaviors
Motor domain: refers to those activities requiring movement
What are the three stages of learning a motor skill?
Cognitive: the learners make many errors and have highly variable performances
Associative: the learners make errors that tend to be less gross in nature and can concentrate on refining their skill
Autonomous: the skill becomes automatic or habitual
What are program goals?
Goals established by the instructor to aid participants in developing personal fitness goals, reflecting what the instructor expects students to gain from participation in the group exercise program.
What should a daily lesson plan include?
Class objective, planned activities and the time allotted for each activity, necessary equipment, and patterns of class organization.
What are class objectives?
Specific objectives for each class meeting, clarifying what the instructor expects the participants to accomplish during each exercise session; objectives help the instructor focus on the purpose of each selected exercise and activity.
What are the five specific teaching styles that apply to an exercise class?
Command style
practice style
reciprocal style
self-check style, and
inclusion style
What are upbeats and downbeats?
Strong pulsations in the music are called downbeats, while weaker pulsations in the music are called upbeats.
What is a measure?
A measure is a group of beats formed by the regular occurrence of a heavy accent on the first beat or downbeat of each group.
What is physiological balance as it relates to movement?
The balance of movement intensity (when sequencing moves) combined with movement selection based on the duration of the class.
What is biomechanical balance as it relates to movement?
Balancing the musculoskeletal stress of various movements.
What is psychological balance as it relates to movement?
Balancing movement complexity with simplicity to avoid compromising form, technique, and safety, and to limit participant frustration.
What are the four components of a cue?
Body part
action
direction
and any other elaboration necessary to understand the movement.
Which one of the following techniques is NOT recommended to prevent voice injury?
A. Avoid cueing while performing curl-ups.
B. Do not lower the pitch of the voice.
C. Clear the throat often.
D. Drink small amounts of water frequently.
C. Clear the throat often.
What are two factors that affect exercise intensity?
Music tempo and the size of arm and leg movements.
What are the four levels of energy expenditure in group fitness instruction?
Level one: small leg motions, in place.
Level two: small leg motions, traveling.
Level three: large leg motions, in place.
Level four: large leg motions, traveling.
What are the four characteristics of feedback?
Informational
specific
immediate, and
based on performance standards
What are value statements?
Feedback that projects a feeling about a performance, using words such as "good," "well done," or "poor job."
What are the four components of a complete corrective teaching statement?
What your observed
performance standard
rationale, and
corrective teaching
What are natural reward systems?
Natural reward systems focus on increased feelings of self-esteem
a sense of accomplishment, and
increased energy levels.
What is the recommended method of preparing a class for a new instructor?
Advanced introductions of the new exercise instructor are beneficial. Having the regular and new instructor team-teach several classes can lower the anxiety for class participants.
Compare diets and smoking habits of non-exercisers and exercisers.
There is no significant difference between exercisers and non-exercisers when comparing diet and smoking habits.
What is a good definition of exercise dependence or addiction?
When the commitment to exercise assumes a higher priority than commitments to family, work, or interpersonal relationships.
What are four signs of exercise dependency/addiction?
1) Continuing to exercise in spite of injuries or illness.
2) Extreme levels of thinness.
3) Problems in interpersonal relationships.
4) Feelings of extreme guilt, irritability, or depression when unable to exercise.
What is the 6-point rating scale of exercise enjoyment?
A method of evaluating exercise enjoyment by asking the participants to respond on a 6-point scale with one equaling "extremely unenjoyable" and six equaling "extremely enjoyable."
What are five environmental factors that can affect exercise adherence?
The ambiance of the exercise site, cues and reminders for exercise, weather conditions, time limitations, and the amount of support and feedback that is provided.
What are three recommendations for instructing the new participant?
1) Keep his/her RPE below 14 until accustomed to the workout.
2) Include short breaks.
3) Maintain a non-condescending attitude toward all participants.
What are the three characteristics unique to individuals that are at increased risk for dropout?
Smokers
people with lower socio-economic status, and the overweight.
What are the five characteristics unique to individuals that tend to adhere to physical activity programs?
1) A past participation in an exercise program
2) Psychological/behavioral skills necessary to exercise appropriately and regularly.
3) Self-efficacy
4) An ability to perceive exercise as enjoyable
5) The ability to overcome typical barriers to regular participation.
What are the three factors that affect exercise adherence?
Personal factors
program factors, and
environmental factors
What is exercise adherence?
The amount of programmed exercise someone engages in during a specified time period compared to the amount of exercise recommended for that time period.
What are the two most common reasons given for not continuing an exercise program?
Lack of time and boredom
What percentage of American adults do not get the minimum amount of recommended physical activity?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. Nearly 80%
B. 60%
Of those that start an exercise program, what percentage drops out within the first six months?
A. 50%
B. 60%
C. 75%
D. Nearly 80%
A. 50%
What are secondary conditions of disability?
Examples of secondary conditions of disability are obesity, pressure sores, infections, and osteoporosis.
What is obesity?
Excessive storage of body fat, defined as at least 20% above ideal weight; typically more than 30% body fat for women and more than 23% body fat for men.
What are the BMI standards for overweight men, overweight women, and obesity?
Overweight: 27.3 in men
27.8 in women
over 30.0 is generally defined as obese
What one of the following is NOT a cornerstone for treatment of obesity?
A. Exercise
B. Diet
C. Insulin hormone therapy
D. Behavior modification
C. Hormone therapy is NOT one of the cornerstone treatments for obesity.
What is the caloric balance equation?
energy input = energy output
What is diabetes mellitus?
A metabolic disorder where the body cannot control blood glucose level by either a total or partial lack of the hormone insulin, resulting in an inability to metabolize carbohydrates.
What is insulin?
A hormone secreted into the bloodstream by the pancreas that regulates carbohydrate metabolism.
What is hypoglycemia?
A blood sugar deficiency caused by too little glucose, too much insulin, or too much exercise in the insulin dependent diabetic.
What are the three major types of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Asthma
chronic bronchitis, and
emphysema
What is a beta-adrenergic agent?
Medication used for cardiovascular and other medical conditions that block or limit sympathetic nervous system stimulation; commonly called "beta blockers."
What is dyspnea?
Difficult or labored breathing.
What are two ways to avoid spikes in breathing rate during weight training?
Avoid spikes in breathing rate by making sure that the weight is not too heavy and the person is not holding his or her breath.
What are the two major types of arthritis?
Osteoarthritis (wear and tear type) and
rheumatoid arthritis (whole-body autoimmune disease).
What is osteoporosis?
A condition in which bones weaken and become porous due to progressive loss of calcium.
What is the recommendation for strength training progression with participants with advanced osteoporosis?
Individuals with advanced osteoporosis will require more time to adapt to a
resistance-training program and must progress at a much slower rate than a healthy older adult to avoid injury.
What are the four major conditions classified as physical disabilities?
Spinal cord injury
spina bifida
cerebral palsy, and
amputations
What is multiple sclerosis?
A common neuromuscular disorder involving the progressive degeneration of muscle function, including increased muscle spasticity.
What are the two major types of stroke?
Hemorrhagic strokes (ruptured blood vessel in the brain) and
ischemic strokes (reduced blood supply to the brain).
Which one of the following persons is most qualified to evaluate a pregnant participant's fitness status in relation to her pregnancy?
A. The group fitness leader
B. The physician assistant
C. The participant's physician
D. The pre-/post-natal exercise specialist
C. The participant's physician
Which one of the following contraindications of exercise is not absolute?
A. active cardiac disease
B. preterm rupture of membranes
C. pregnancy-induced hypertension
D. preterm labor during prior pregnancy
A. active cardiac disease
What is tachycardia?
Elevated heart rate over 100 beats per minute.
How does pregnancy affect the formula CO = HR X SV during exercise?
All three, cardiac output, heart rate, and stroke volume, increase.
Name the two hormones that are released during the first trimester and indicate their effect on the body.
Relaxin and progesterone act to soften the ligaments surrounding the joints of the pelvis in order to increase the mobility and joint laxity.
What is supine hypotension?
An abnormal reduction in blood pressure related to position (lying on the back).
What is hypoxia and how does it affect the fetus?
Hypoxia is a lack of oxygen. After the first trimester of pregnancy, prolonged and/or repetitive supine exercises can cause a state of hypoxia, which can increase the potential for developmental disorders to occur.
What are the three areas of concern when discussing fetal risks associated with exercise?
Uterine-placental blood flow
carbohydrate utilization, and
thermoregulation.
What are three physiological adaptations that enhance thermoregulation in pregnant women during exercise?
1) downward shift in sweating threshold
2) better skin-to-environment heat transfer
3) increased heat loss through the respiratory tract
What are the three final recommendations for pregnant women in regards to exercising and thermoregulation?
1) exercise in a cool, well ventilated, low humidity environment
2) drink plenty of cool water to avoid dehydration
3) avoid very high-intensity activities
What are the five muscle groups that are identified as "weak" when considering muscle imbalances?
Scapula retractos
low lumbar paravertebral
gluteus maximus and medius
abdominals, and
quadriceps
What is the most frequent complaint during pregnancy?
A. varicose veins
B. backache
C. weight gain
D. frequent urination
B. backache
What is the pelvic floor?
The five layers of muscle and fascia attached to the body ring of the pelvis.
What is diastasis recti and when does it occur?
This is a partial or complete separation of the rectus abdominis muscle. Diastisis recti occurs as the linea alba widens and finally gives way to the mechanical stress of the pregnancy.
What are the three ligaments most commonly irritated or strained during pregnancy?
The round
the inguinal, and
the broad ligaments.
What is symphysitis and what is it caused by?
An irritation of the symphysis pubis caused by the increased motion at the fibrocartilaginous joint between the pelvic bones in the midline of the body.
What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
A nerve compression syndrome caused by the compression of the median nerve within the wrist; characterized by numbness and tingling sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers.
What is chondromalacia?
A gradual softening and degeneration of the articular cartilage, usually involving the back surface of the patella (knee cap); may produce pain and swelling or a grinding sound or sensation when the knee is flexed and extended.
What is the recommended method of monitoring exercise intensity when teaching exercise classes for pregnant women?
RPE, to rate the pregnant exerciser's subjective intensity ratings.
What position is recommended in place of supine abdominal exercises?
The semirecumbent position
Why should overhead lifting be avoided during pregnancy?
To prevent irritation or injury to the low back due to the lessened ability of the weakened abdominals to stabilize the torso against the pull of the belly.
What recommendations are made for the number of repetitions during strength training for new pregnant participants and for those pregnant participants that lift weights regularly?
10-15 repetitions for new participants and 8-12 repetitions for regular participants.
What recommendations are made for pregnant women during stretching exercises?
Participants should be cautioned to stretch in an average to normal range of motion in order to protect potentially hypermobile joints.
What are the five suggestions and modifications that can be implemented for the prenatal exerciser?
1. Design longer warm-ups
2. Emphasize proper alignment
3. Keep legs moving to stimulate venous return
4. Choose positions to give the student the best workout within her comfort zone while maintaining proper body alignment.
5. Replace supine position with semirecumbent positions and replace prone positions with an all-fours position or an elbows-and-knees position.
What is the suggested time for returning to group exercise activities after delivery?
Generally speaking, after the post-partum doctor appointment, or six weeks after deliver; time will vary for each woman depending on complications of labor and delivery.
What are the three injury-related responsibilities of group fitness instructors?
1) prevent injury by careful preparation and carrying-out of every exercise session.
2) provide modifications for participants with injury limitations.
3) properly handle injuries that may occur during a class.
What are the five symptoms of injury?
Pain
swelling and discoloration
loss of range of motion
loss of strength, and
loss of functional capacity of use
What are the two main classifications of injuries?
Acute and chronic
What is the main cause of overuse injuries?
A. Improper body alignment during exercise
B. A sudden strain or tear in the muscle
C. A lack of appropriate recovery time
D. Improper warm-up and stretching activities
C. A lack of appropriate recovery time (too much, too soon).
Give two examples of chronic injuries.
Stress fractures and tendonitis
What are the three characteristics of proper footwear?
Good cushioning
support, and
flexibility
What are three signs of over-training?
Sleep loss
elevations in resting heart rate, and
injury
What is a sprain?
Overstretching or tearing of a ligament and/or joint capsule, resulting in discoloration, swelling, and pain.
What is a strain?
A strain is overstretching or tearing of a muscle or tendon.
What is plantar fasciitis and what are its causes?
Inflammation of the plantar fascia, a broad band of connective tissue running along the sole of the foot; caused by the stretching or tearing the tissue, usually near the attachment of the heel.
What is rotator cuff strain and what are its causes?
The overstretching, overextension, or overuse of the musculotendonus unit of one or more of the rotator cuff muscles.
What is anterior shoulder instability and what are its causes?
A weakness in the anterior wall musculature and/or stretching of the anterior capsule and ligaments that allows the humeral head to sublux or dislocate anteriorly. This condition can be caused acutely from a fall or blow to the shoulder. Chronic instability is a gradual onset of muscle weakness and progressive damage of the anterior structures.
What is tennis elbow?
Lateral epicondylitis; an overuse injury affecting the musculotendonus junction of the wrists extensor muscles or the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
What are patellofemoral pain disorders (PFPD)?
A majority of PFPDs are considered overuse syndromes and, thus, are associated with overload and repetitive microtrauma to the knee (e.g. chondromalacia).
What are the possible causes of shin splints?
Poor running surface, shoes with old or insufficient cushioning, weak arches, and poor flexibility in the posterior muscles of the lower leg.
What is low back pain (LBP) and what are its possible causes?
A general term to describe a multitude of back conditions, including muscular and ligament strains, sprains and injuries; the cause of LBP is often elusive; most LBP is probably caused by muscle weakness and imbalance.
What are the four exercise guidelines for lower back pain (LBP)?
1) Avoid motion that causes an increase in pain.
2) Always engage the abdominal muscles for protection of the lumbar spine during motion.
3) Enforce the maintenance of good posture.
4) Encourage stretching of the trunk and lower extremities to maintain full range of motion.
What are the four main areas of information to be included in an emergency plan?
1) How to contact emergency services.
2) Necessary emergency medical supplies.
3) Who to alert within the facility in the event of an emergency.
4) Documentation
What are the supplies necessary for blood clean-up?
Latex gloves (multiple sizes)
resuscitation masks
liquid soap
mixture of water and
household bleach
What are the six procedures used to organize an efficient response?
1. Evaluate
2. Get help
3. Alert facility
4. Continue victim support
5. Clean up
6. Document
What is standard of care?
Appropriateness of an exercise professional's actions in light of current professional standards and based on the age, conditions, and knowledge of the participant.
What is negligence?
Failure of a person to perform as a reasonable and prudent professional would perform under similar circumstances.
What are the four elements that must be shown to exist in order to substantiate a charge of negligence?
1) the defendant had the duty to protect the plaintiff.
2) the defendant failed to exercise that standard of care necessary to perform that duty.
3) such failure was the proximate cause of the injury.
4) the damage or injury to the plaintiff did occur.
What is recommended for situations when a participant asks for advice about an injury?
Suggest they contact their doctor. In general, only physicians and certain primary healthcare providers are allowed to diagnose, prescribe, and treat injuries.
What are the five steps of a comprehensive risk-management review?
1) Identification of risk areas
2) Evaluation of specific risks in each area
3) Selection of appropriate treatment for each risk
4) Implementation of a risk-management system
5) Evaluation of success
What is general liability insurance?
Insurance for bodily injury or property damage resulting from general negligence such as wet flooring, an icy sidewalk, or poorly maintained equipment.
What is professional liability insurance?
Insurance to protect an instructor against professional negligence of failure to perform as a competent and prudent professional would under similar circumstances.
What is disability insurance?
Insurance that provides income protection in the event of an injury to the instructor.
What is an independent contractor?
Someone who conducts business on their own on a contract basis and is not an employee of an organization.
What is the purpose of an informed consent form?
This form is used to make the dangers of a program or test procedure known to the participant and thereby provide an additional measure of defense against lawsuits.
What are the four basic defenses against negligence claims?
Assumption of risk
contributory negligence
comparative negligence, and
acts of God
What are the two major performing rights societies?
American Society of Composers
Authors, and
Publishers (ASCAP) and
Broadcast Music, Inc. (BMI)
What are the five major components of physical fitness?
Muscular strength
Muscular endurance
cardiovascular endurance
flexibility, and
body composition
What is body composition and essential body fat?
Body composition is the make-up of the body in terms of body fat (adipose tissue) and lean body mass (muscles, bones, blood, and organs, etc.).

Essential body fat is the amount of fat thought to be necessary for maintenance of life and reproductive function.
What are the four elements necessary in order to form a binding contract?
1) An offer and acceptance
2) Consideration
3) Legality
4) Capacity
What is adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
ATP is the immediately usable form of chemical energy needed for all cellular function, including muscular contraction. ATP -> ADP + energy for biological work + P
What are the three nutrients of a given diet and what are their simplest components?
The foods we eat are made up of carbohydrates, fat, and proteins.

The process of digestion breaks these nutrients into glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids.
What is creatine phosphate (CP)?
Creatine phosphate is a high-energy phosphate compound found within muscle cells, used to resynthesize ATP for immediate muscle contraction.
What is anaerobic glycolysis?
A metabolic pathway that does not require oxygen, the purpose of which is to transfer the bond energy contained in glucose (or glycogen) to the formation of ATP.
What is aerobic glycolysis?
A metabolic pathway that requires oxygen to facilitate the use of glycogen for energy.
What are the characteristics of slow-twitch and fast-twitch muscle fibers?
Slow twitch: A Type 1 (red) muscle fiber characterized by its slow speed of contraction and a high capacity for aerobic glycolysis. Example: a marathon runner.

Fast twitch: A Type 2 (white) muscle fiber characterized by its fast speed of contraction and a high capacity for anaerobic glycolysis. Example: 100-meter dash sprinter.
What are the functions of sensory neurons and motor neurons?
Sensory neurons convey electrical impulses from sensory organs in the periphery (such as skin) to the spinal cord and the brain.

Motor neurons conduct impulses from the central nervous system (CNS) to the muscle cells in order to regulate muscle movement.
What are two types of isotonic muscular contractions?
Concentric contractions occur when the muscle shortens when it is stimulated.

Eccentric contractions occur when the muscle lengthens when it is stimulated.
What are isometric and isokinetic muscular contractions?
Isometric muscular contractions occur when the muscle is stimulated to generate tension but no joint movement occurs.

Isotonic muscular contractions occur when tension within the muscle changes throughout the range of motion.
Which of these does current research suggest is the most likely source of Delayed Onset Muscle Soreness (DOMS)?

A. Lack of proper warm-up and strtching
B. Eccentric muscle contractions
C. Low levels of muscle glycogen
D. Microscopic damage to the muscle cell ultra-structure
D. Microscopic damage to the muscle cell ultra-structure
Name the three kinds of blood vessels and their functions.
Arteries, capillaries, and veins.

Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart. The exception is the pulmonary artery. Capillaries are where the exchange of nutrients takes place between the blood and the cells of the body. Veins carry deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart. The exception is the pulmonary vein, which carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.
What is cardiac output?
What is stroke volume?
Cardiac output: The amount of blood that flows from each ventricle in one minute. The cardiac output from the left and right ventricles is exactly the same.

Cardiac output = heart rate X stroke volume (CO = HR X SV)

Stroke volume: The amount of blood pumped from each ventricle each time the heart beats.
What is the difference between systole and diastole?
Systole refers to the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle. Diastole refers to the relaxation phase.
What is steady state?
The point at which the energy needs of the body during exercise are being met aerobically.
What is anaerobic threshold (AT)?
The point at which exercise intensity can no longer meet the metabolic demands of the muscles aerobically and the muscles have to rely on anaerobic metabolism for ATP production.