How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

118 terms

Biology Tests With answers only

1. A typical animal would be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
E) All of these are true.
2. Which of the following is true about scientific theories?
E) All of these are correct.
3. We use the scientific method every day. Imagine your car doesn't start one morning before school. Which of these is a reasonable hypothesis regarding the problem?
B) I'm out of gas.
4. What determines the atomic number of an atom?
D) number of protons in the atomic nucleus
5. Carbon-14 is often used for carbon dating, where scientists measure the rate of carbon-14 decay to determine the age of items. It contains six protons and eight neutrons. During the process of carbon-14 decay, one of its eight neutrons becomes a proton and an electron is emitted. Which of the following is the BEST explanation of what has occurred?
B) The resulting atom is now a different element because the number of protons has changed.
6. The formation of sodium chloride (NaCl) is the result of
C) attraction between opposite charges.
7. An atom's nucleus is composed of
D) protons and neutrons.
Which following atoms have partially full outermost electron shells?
D) 1, 3 and 4
9. Scientists now recommend a diet rich in antioxidants to stay healthy. What occurs at the atomic level to explain the reasoning behind this recommendation?
A) Antioxidants stop the chain reaction of cellular damage caused by free radicals.
10. Nonpolar covalent bonds form when
A) electrons are shared equally between atoms.
11. The fact that salt dissolves in water is BEST explained by
B) the polar nature of water molecules.
12. Sweating is a useful cooling device for humans because
A) water takes up a great deal of heat in changing from its liquid state to its gaseous state.
****13. Which of the following correctly matches an organic polymer with its respective monomers?
A) protein and amino acids
****14. Which of the following BEST summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
A) Dehydration reactions assemble polymers and hydrolysis breaks them down.
15. Keratin and silk are examples of ___________ while glucose and sucrose are examples of _____________.
B) proteins; carbohydrates
****16. Why do cows have the ability to breakdown cellulose into glucose and humans can not digest cellulose?
C) Cows have special bacteria in their digestive tract that break down cellulose for them.
****17. Phospholipids are unusual and important to cell structure because
C) they have a polar and a nonpolar end.
****18. An example of a structural polysaccharide is____________, while an example of a disaccharide is __________.
B) chitin, table sugar
19. You go the store and buy some lard for cooking. You notice when you get home that the lard is solid at room temperature. What does this tell you about the fats in lard?
B) The lard is composed of saturated fats.
20. In a biological membrane, the phospholipids are arranged with the fatty acid chains facing the interior of the membrane. As a result, the interior of the membrane is
B) hydrophobic.
****21. Specifically, a peptide bond forms between which groups?
B) carboxyl and amino groups
****22. What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
C) hydrogen bonds
23. How is a denatured protein different from a normal protein?
B) A denatured protein has no secondary or tertiary structure.
****24. A nucleotide is
C) phosphate, sugar, base.
25. You have discovered a new virus and have isolated its nucleic acids. What feature could you look for to determine if the nucleic acids of this virus are RNA or DNA?
C) If it is RNA, it will be single strand containing uracil.
26. Your friend is trying to learn about how to kill bacteria. She reads that preservatives such as citric acid are added to foods because the acidic environment kills bacteria by denaturing their proteins. She thinks this sounds like a lot of scientific jargon and asks if you know what this means. How can you explain?
B) Denaturing means that the proteins of the bacteria lose their structure and can't function, so the bacteria die.
27. The inner membrane of mitochondria have highly folded cristae, which is very similar to cells that line the intestine have many foldings in plasma membranes on the absorptive surface of the intestine. This is because
A) this will increase surface area to volume ratio, making chemical reactions effectively occur on the surfaces.
28. What is NOT characteristic of a prokaryotic cell?
B) a nuclear membrane
29. The cytoskeleton is to the cell what
A) bones are to humans.
B) a frame is to a house.
**D) A and B
****30. If all the lysosomes within a cell suddenly ruptured, what could occur?
A) The macromolecules in the cell cytosol would begin to degrade.
31. Ribosomes are the site of synthesis of
E) proteins.
32. Researchers have been able to study the pathway of a secreted protein by "tagging" it with a fluorescent marker. Using this method, you would observe fluorescence moving from the ER to which organelle?
E) Golgi bodies
33. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about both mitochondria and chloroplasts?
B) Both capture the energy of sunlight to meet metabolic demands.
34. Which cellular component packages hydrolytic enzymes and forms lysosomes?
A) Golgi bodies
****35. In metabolically active cells, you would expect to find a large number of
E) mitochondria.
36. A biologist ground up some plant cells and then centrifuged the mixture. She obtained some organelles from the pellet in the test tube that took up CO2 and gave off O2. The organelles are most likely
B) chloroplasts.
37. DNA is located in which of the following?
A) prokaryotic cells
B) plant cells
C) animal cells
D) chloroplasts
E) all of the above
****38. What is the function of a plant cell vacuole?
A) storage of nutrients
B) support of the cell
D) A and B
39. A cell from a wheat plant would contain which of the following?
A) Cell wall
B) Chloroplast
C) Mitochondria
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
Where is ATP production in an animal cell?
1. To say a cell is selectively permeable means
C) only certain molecules can pass through.
2. The ________ portion of the cell membrane is responsible for the isolating functions of the membrane, while the ________ portion regulates exchange and communication with the environment.
A) lipid; protein
****3. According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which is the mosaic portion referred to?
D) proteins
4. The sodium-potassium pump is a (an) __________ mechanism.
A) Active transport
5. About diffusion, which of the following statement is NOT right?
C) Diffusion can move molecules rapidly over long distances
6. Which of the following requires ATP?
C) active transport
7. Beaker A has a 10% sucrose solution, and beaker B has an 8% sucrose solution. Choose the correct statement.
B) Beaker B is hypotonic the Beaker A.
C) Beaker A is hypertonic to Beaker B.
*D) Both B and C are correct.
8. What does a cell use exocytosis for?
B) to release substances from the cell
9. You fill a shallow tray with water and place a drop of red ink in one end of the tray and a drop of green ink in the other end. Which of the following is TRUE at equilibrium?
B) The red and green inks are both uniformly distributed throughout the tray.
10. Which of the following has potential energy?
A) water droplet on top of a waterfall
B) glucose molecule
C) 9V battery
D) all of the above
11. Entropy is a measure of
D) increase in randomness.
****12. When solid sodium hydroxide is added to water, the solution gets hot. This is an example of
B) an exergonic process.
13. Which of the following BEST illustrates the first law of thermodynamics?
A) the process of photosynthesis where solar energy is converted to chemical energy
B) the burning of fossil fuels to heat a home
C) the use of gasoline to allow your car to run
D) all of the above
14. What is the ultimate source of energy for most forms of life on Earth?
B) solar energy
15. In exergonic chemical reactions
A) reactants have more energy than products.
16. The structure that Amoeba use to engulf food particles is termed
D) pseudopods
17. Why are enzymes important?
D) because they allow reactions to occur at body temperature
18. Look at the chemical reaction curves below, which is an endergonic reaction?
The one starting high on the top and ending low with CO2+h2o
19. Sulfa antibiotics damage bacteria by affecting a certain bacterial enzyme. The sulfa antibiotic looks similar to a substrate normally required by the bacterial cells to live. The sulfa antibiotic occupies the active site of the required enzyme and blocks entry of its normal substrate. This prevents the bacteria from making nucleotides that are required for their reproduction and survival. Based on this information, the action of sulfa antibiotics is an example of
B) competitive inhibition
20. What structural feature of a leaf allows a leaf to obtain CO2 from the air?
A) stomata
21. Specifically, molecules of chlorophyll are located in membranes of sacs called
B) thylakoids.
22. Imagine a plant in your garden doesn't receive an adequate amount of water. Which of the following would be most affected by this?
C) Both the light dependent and light independent reactions of photosynthesis
23. The pigment(s) that absorb light energy to drive photosynthesis is/are
A) chlorophyll.
B) carotenoids.
D) A and B
****24. Photosystem I generates _________, while PSII genereates ________.
****25. Where does the O2 released during photosynthesis come from?
B) H2O
****26. The final electron acceptor of ETC in cellular respiration is _______, while the final electron acceptor of ETCs in photosynthesis is _________.
C) O2 , NADP+
27. Why do you see leaves green color?
B) because it only reflect green color wavelength
****28. The NADPH required for carbon dioxide fixation (C3 cycle) is formed
C) during the light reactions.
29. You are conducting an experiment to track what happens to the carbons from CO2 molecules used in the light independent reactions of photosynthesis. You add a radioactive tag to the carbons of the CO2 reactants and then collect the products following the reactions. Which products would then be radioactive?
B) Glucose
****30. Where does glucose synthesis take place?
C) stroma
31. The anaerobic breakdown of glucose is called
A) fermentation.
32. The main function of cell respiration is to produce
33. During glycolysis, what is the net gain of ATP molecules produced?
A) 2
34. Which of the following is common to both fermentation and cellular respiration?
C) glycolysis
35. When sprint, your muscle cells perform ___________ fermentation, while yeast cells perform ___________ fermentation.
B) lactic acid, alcohol
36. Which of the following are examples of an electron carrier molecule?
D) both A and C
37. How many ATPs does the aerobic respiration generate when break down one molecule of glucose?
C) 36-38 ATPs
****38. Where does the electron transport chain occur during cellular respiration?
C) cristae.
39. The function of electron transport chains in both cellular respiration and photosynthesis is to
A) generate energy
****40. Both plants and animals perform
A) glycolysis.
****1. The sequence of subunits in the DNA "backbone" is
B) --phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar--phosphate--sugar.
2. The DNA of a certain organism has adenine as 40% of its bases. What percentage of its bases would be cytosine?
B) 10%
3. In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the rungs of the ladder represent
A) nitrogenous bases linked together
4. During DNA replication, in which strand new DNA is synthesized in pieces?
B) lagging
5. Semiconservative DNA replication means
D) each new DNA molecule has half of the old one.
6. Which of the following are NOT involved in the leading strand during DNA replication process?
B) DNA ligase
7. __________ breaks the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs during DNA replication.
A) DNA helicase
8. When comparing DNA and RNA, we find
D) adenine pairs with different bases in DNA and RNA.
9. If a bacterial protein has 30 amino acids, how many nucleotides are needed to code for it?
C) 90
10. If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is TAGGCTAA, what is the corresponding sequence of bases in mRNA?
11. The number of nucleotides in a codon is
A) 3.
Suppose one strand of a "mini-gene" has the following base sequence: TACCCGGATTCA
12. The polypeptide encoded by this gene has how many amino acids?
B) 4

****13. The anticodon of the tRNA that carries the first amino acid will be
14. The transcription start site is ______ and termination site is ______; while translation starts with a _____ and end with a ______.
A) promoter, terminator, start codon, stop codon
The central dogma is a framework for understanding the transfer of sequence information between DNA, RNA and protein. (see the picture.) Please label the name of each process from 1-3: DNA with circle around it=>RNA=>Proteins
C) replication, transcription, translation
16. A part of an mRNA molecule with the following sequence (5'-CCGACG-3') is being translated by a ribosome. The following activated tRNA molecules are available. Two of them can correctly match the mRNA so that a dipeptide can form

tRNA anticodon Amino acid
GGC proline
CGU alanine
UGC threonine
CCG glycine
ACG cysteine
CGG alanine

The dipeptide that will form will be
B) proline-threonine.
17. A bacterial cell splits into two new cells by
D) binary fission.
****18. Which of the following is true of chromosome duplication?
A) occurs prior to meiosis I
19. Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have 8 chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a Drosophila gamete have?
B) four
****20. Homologous chromosomes
A) exchange materials and pair up in meiosis I
B) don't exist in gamete cells
C) consist of two chromosomes the same size and with the same genes
D) all of these.
21. How many chromosomes did you get from your father?
B) 23
22. During anaphase of meiosis II, what segregates?
A) sister chromatids
25. Which of the followings is not the characteristic of cancer cells?
D) Controlled cell growth
****26. Which event doesn't show up in mitosis?
A) Crossing over
B) Separation of homologues
D) both A and B
27. What are the major sources of genetic variation in sexual reproduction?
A) shuffling of homologues during meiosis I B) crossing over
C) random fusion of gametes D) A, B, and C all contribute genetic variation.
****28. According to the Law of Segregation, in an organism with the genotype Aa
C) half the gametes will have A and half will have a.
29. A recessive gene is one
B) whose effect is masked by a dominant allele.
30. If the allele for inflated pea pods (I) is dominant to the allele for constricted (i), the cross Ii x ii is expected to produce
C) half with inflated and half with constricted pods.
Use the information below to answer the next 2 questions:
Plant height: T= tall and t= short,
Flower color: P= purple flowers, p= white flowers
We cross a short plant that is heterozygous for flower color with a plant that is heterozygous for both plant height and flower color.

****31. What proportion of the offspring would we expect to be tall and have purple flowers?
C) 3/8

32. What proportion of the offspring would we expect to be short and have white flowers?
B) 1/8
33. If you cross pea plants that are heterozygous for purple flowers and yellow seeds (PpYy), and you examine 800 offspring for flower and seed color, about how many do you expect to have white flowers and green seeds?
D) 50
34. In humans, the sex of the offspring is determined by the
D) sex chromosome carried by the sperm cell.
35. In snapdragons, red x white → pink. This pattern of inheritance is explained by
B) incomplete dominance.
36. Human skin color is the result of
A) polygenic inheritance
37. You cross a pea plant with genotype of YYSs with one having Yyss. (Y = yellow, y = green; S = smooth, s = wrinkled, where yellow is dominant to green, smooth is dominant to wrinkled). Please answer the following question:
What is the percentage of the offspring with heterozygous for both traits?
C) 25%
38. A disorder caused by non-disjunction of chromosome 21 resulting in a trisomy 21 child is
B) Down syndrome
39. Red-green colorblindness is
A) Sex-linked recessive
40. Human ABO blood type is an example of
D) multiple alleles.