PSA systems test and oral sample questions
Terms in this set (100)
What information is provided by the flight mode annunciator (FMA)?
Flight director modes
Identify 3 modes in which the flight directors will act independently and supply guidance to their associated Primary Flight Display (PFD).
Takeoff, go-around, approach
The APU is supplying both electrical and pneumatic power simultaneously. As EGT increases, and enters the amber range, what happens automatically?
Load control valve modulates towards closed
If the X-Flow/APU pump fails, the alternate source of fuel for the APU is:
The right engine fuel feed manifold
In-flight, the APU door position is a function of:
Airspeed and altitude
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
To avoid damage to the APU, the interlock feature prevents:
10th stage engine bleed air from back flowing into the APU
The highest priority for the passenger address system is:
Which radios are reversionary to the backup tuning unit?
Com 1 and Nav 1
What do the overhead escape hatch in the flight deck and the aft equipment bay door have in common?
Neither is monitored by the PSEU system
Which door(s) is/are not a plug type door?
Aft equipment bay door
Which door will provide a warning message if 2 or more PSEU sensors detect an unsafe condition?
How are the emergency lights powered?
4 rechargeable batteries that last 15 minutes.
By limitation, how long can EICAS screens remain operating without AC powered cooling fans?
Which EICAS messages can be accompanied by a voice message?
What is the minimum pressure of the flight deck oxygen bottle for 2 crewmembers ?
which aircraft lighting has associated EICAS indications:
Which buttons remain operable on the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) if the micro-processor fails:
STEP, CAS, STAT, PRI
On the ground, with only battery power available, why is operating time limited?
Fans that cool the EICAS displays are AC powered and are not operating
What is the function of the lamp driver unit?
Interprets the DCU signal and lights the associated switch lights
Which message is associated with a single chime?
Which of the hydraulic system components are not depicted on the hydraulic synoptic page?
Accumulators and heat exchangers
The wing and cowl anti-ice valves are colored cyan and labeled CMD to indicate:
The commanded switch position
During normal operation, the AC Essential Bus is powered by:
AC Bus 1
The IDG's are nominally rate from sea level to 35,000 feet to:
In flight, when will the AC Utility busses automatically load-shed?
When only one generator is supplying electrical power
Does the APU have a single or dual loop detection system ?
An acceptable quality of AC external power source is indicated by:
AVAIL in AC switchlight
On which EICAS synoptic page is the active Cabin Pressure Controller (CPC) displayed?
ECS synoptic page
Which page(s) indicate the operating pressure of the 10th stage air condition packs:
When the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is depressed, how is the cabin altitude affected?
The cabin altitude will increase until it reaches 14,250±750 feet
Which portions of the landing gear have overheat detection?
Both main landing gear bays
What is the N1 trigger for configuration warnings?
If smoke is detected in the cargo bay:
Airflow to and from the cargo bay is automatically stopped
The flight control ground lift dumping system includes:
Inboard and outboard ground spoilers, flight spoilers and spoilerons
Which flight control is not hydraulically actuated:
When a single hydraulic Power Control Unit (PCU) for an Elevator jams:
The jam tolerant mechanism ensures that the failed PCU is overpowered by the two remaining operable hydraulic PCU's
The fuel system computer initiates automatic fuel cross flow upon detecting a fuel imbalance of ____.
When is Half-Bank mode automatically engaged?
Upon climbing through FL 316
What is the minimum airspeed for flight spoiler deployment?
Appropriate Vref + 17 knots
The main, scavenge and transfer ejectors are powered by ____.
Motive flow pressure
When will the EICAS fuel quantity indications turn amber?
Total fuel quantity is 900 lbs or less
The power source priority for AC BUS 1 is:
Gen 1, APU GEN, GEN 2, External Power
Ignition B is powered from the ____.
DC Batt bus
What does the green AVAIL light on the APU panel indicate?
The APU is ready for pneumatic loading
Which BUS provides power to the engine and APU fire extinguishers, fuel, and hydraulic SOVs.
At idle power, the FCU _____________:
Hydro mechanically controls the N2 speed
During the first flight of the day, a failed Anti-Ice Check would be determined by which of the following?
No change in ITT when the Cowl or Wing Anti-Ice is selected ON or OFF
(T/F) During engine start, the Air Turbine Starter (ATS) drives the accessory gearbox which drives the N2 rotor.
How is it possible to manually switch from the active to standby cabin pressure controller?
Press the PRESS CONT switchlight twice
The maximum PSA operating altitude of the CRJ200 is ________.
The Captains EMER/NORM switch selected to the EMER position on the audio control panel ____.
bypasses the audio electronics unit &
renders most ACP services inoperative &
limits the captain to COM1 and NAV1
With an APU fire indication, when would the APU shut down and automatically discharge the fire bottle?
On the ground
The rudder has a/an ______ to prevent flutter in the event of a loss of hydraulic pressure
Gust lock via remaining pressure
In the event a Flap PDU fails, the flaps ____.
Will operate at half speed
How many Hydraulic Systems are normally used to power the rudder?
Pressing the TOGA button prior to takeoff will command the Flight Director to ____.
You are taxiing out on the left engine only with the flaps 0. Which hydraulic pumps are running during normal operations?
1A & 3A
The Glare-Shield Amber Roll Select Switch/Lights illuminate when ____.
The Roll Disconnect handle has been pulled after a 20 second delay
Stabilizer trim is adjusted how?
By an electric jackscrew driven by 2 trim motors
When would the bungee breakout mechanism automatically transfer control of both spoilerons to the operable circuit?
When detecting a PCU runaway
The default Lateral mode of the Flight Director is ____.
If the FD is not engaged and the autopilot button is pressed what will happen?
The FD will engage into PTCH for vertical and ROLL for lateral mode
Which control surfaces on the CRJ 200 have flutter dampers?
Ailerons / Elevators
The TEST WARN position on the FIRE DETECTION Panel is used to ____.
Check the continuity of the loops (opens and shorts)
A thrust lever will automatically retard to IDLE when ____.
Its associated reverser deploys inflight
How many PCUs does each aileron have?
The air speed trend vector predicts the speed of the aircraft in ____ seconds if conditions remain unchanged.
(T/F) Hydraulic Pump 1B will turn on automatically (regardless of switch position) in the event of a failure of the 1A pump.
The Green Line on the Airspeed Tape indicates ____.
1.27 Vs / low speed awareness cue
In flight, a BLEED MISCONFIG message appears when ____.
10th and 14th Stage SOVs open, ANTI ICE selected on, flaps or gear deployment
A failure of CPAM results in the following:
Loss of automatic deployment of PSU masks
Conditions for arming the APR system:
Both thrust levers above 79% N1 with both speed switches on and APR switch in ARM
Continuous ignition is automatically activated ____.
By the stall warning computer when the angle of attack threshold is reached
Which of the following is required in order to engage the autopilot?
Both Flight Control Computers (FCC) operative.
One Yaw Damper engaged
One Air Data Computer (ADC)
How is it possible to manually switch from the active to manual pressurization control?
Press the PRESS CONT switchlight once.
(T/F) With the wing anti-ice switch selected NORM, the wing leading edge is maintained at a constant temperature as controlled by the anti-ice temperature controller.
Once armed, the APR will remain armed for ____.
(T/F) In the event that an electrical signal is lost to all 14th stage pneumatic valves, the valves will automatically close.
When not encountering icing conditions in flight how are the Ice Detector Probes heated?
The probes are not heated
(T/F) It is possible to heat both engine cowls from one engine.
The Integrated Drive Generators IDGs consist of two parts:
a constant speed drive and a generator.
When are landing gear indications removed from EICAS ?
30 seconds after the gear is up and locked and the flaps are at 0 degrees if the BTMS indications are normal
Which pitot static system provides information for the standby altimeter ?
What does the "FAIL" position on the fire test switch do?
Simulates a system failure
On the CRJ 200, in manual pressurization mode how do the outflow valves operate?
Which DC bus ties are manual vs automatic ?
Ties 1 and 2 are automatic or manual, ESS tie is manual only
When the emergency depressurization switch is selected in flight, the highest cabin pressure altitude is ____.
14,250 +/- 750ft
(T/F) Automatic Deployment of the passenger oxygen system occurs at or above a cabin altitude of 14,000 feet.
(T/F) The low pressure air cart air bypasses the packs allowing for conditioned air in the cabin
(T/F) On landing or during a rejected takeoff with the wing anti-ice system operating, activation of the thrust reversers takes priority.
Pulling the landing gear manual release handle will permit the main landing gear to lower under its own weight and lock into position ____.
With the MLG Aux actuators, which are powered by the number 2 hydraulic system
(T/F) During Weight on Wheels a solenoid lock prevents the landing gear lever from being moved to the UP position.
A "CABIN PRESSURE" aural warning will be heard when the ____.
Cabin altitude is greater than 10,000 feet
Which valves cycle when the right engine starter switchlight is pressed?
The left and right bleed air SOVs, the isolation valve and the right start valve.
Which loops are tested when the DUCT MON switch is selected to test?
10th and 14th stage loops
At takeoff power, the FCU controls the engine speed by the ____.
N1 Amplifier Controller
The air driven generator provides:
AC Essential bus and hydraulic pump 3B, regardless of switch position
What types of messages are normally displayed on ED2 ?
Advisory and status
(T/F) If all AC power is lost, and the battery master switch is on, the emergency lights will come on:
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