621 terms

ap final 2

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Hypothalamus
The thirst center is located in the
Carbohydrates
The salivary enzyme amylase functions to digest
An abnormal form of hemoglobin
Sickle-cell anemia is caused by
the glomerular filtration rate decreases
If the arteriole that supplies blood to the glomerulus becomes constricted
Hemorrhoids
If the blood vessels of the anal columns become enlarged, the condition is called
Epididymis
The tightly coiled tube that leads to the vas deferens is the
Secretion of hydrogen ions
The kidneys help to regulate the pH of body fluids by controlling the
Cervix
The tubular portion of the uterus that extends downward into the upper part of the vagina is the
Drops and filtration decreases
As a result of excessively low arterial blood pressure, glomerular hydrostatic pressure
Cell-mediated immunity
T-lymphocytes are presponsible for
Interstitial cells
The cells in the testes that produce male sex hormones are called
Neutorphils and monocytes
The most active phagocytic cells among the leukocytes are
All of these (T-helper, Endothial, Neuroglial cells)
The HIV viruses that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome may infect
Increases and the blood cholesterol concentration increases
If body cells lack LDL receptors, the plasma concentration of LDL molecules
Twelfth
The external reproductive organs can be distinguished by the __________ week of development
Vein
Which type of blood vessel serves as a blood reservoir?
Both spermatogenesis and oogenesis
Meiosis occurs during?
Metabolic acidosis
Diabetes mellitus, in which fatty acids are converted to ketone bodies, leads to?
Tidal volume
The amount of air that enters or leaves the lungs during a normal respiratory cycle is the?
Lipids
Digestion of ___________ would be affected the most if the liver were severely damaged?
30%
The American Heart Association recommends that the percentage of calories in a person's diet derived from fats should not exceed?
None of these(Urea,Uric Acid,Creatine)
Which of the following is an abnormal constituent of urine?
Pericardium
The tissue that forms a loose fitting sac around the heart is the?
Serotonin
As a platelet plug forms, platelets release the vasoconstricting substance called?
Diffusion
Gas exchange between the air in the alveoli and the blood in nearby capillaries occurs primarily by?
Depolarization of atrial muscle fibers
In an ECG pattern, the P wave is caused by?
Secondary oocyte
Which of the following can be fertilized to produce a zygote?
Iron
Which of the following elements is included in the hemoglobin molecules?
Respiratory system
A premature fetus has an increased chance of surviving if it produces enough surfactant to aid the functions of its?
Carbon dioxide increases
Breathing rate is most likely ot increase if the blood concentration of?
All of these
The spleen? A. Functions as a blood reservoir. B. Is responsive to low oxygen concentrations. C. Contains numerous macrophages. D. All of these
Decreased synthesis of estrogens
Women athletes sometimes experience disturbances in their menstual cycles because of?
Metabolic alkalosis
Ingestion of excessive amounts of sodium bicarbonate to relieve the symptoms of ingestion may lead to?
proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of loop of Henle, ascending limb of loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule.
Which of the following indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct sequence from beginning to end?
Parasympathetic impulses and cause the heart rate to decrease
Inpulses carried to the heart by means of fibers that secrete acetylcholine are?
Water is needed by body temperature regulation
A person who is severly dehydrated is likely to have a high fever because?
Expiratory reserve volume
During forceful expiration, the air that can be expelled from the lungs in addition to the tidal volume is called?
Bradycardia
The term used to describe an abnormally slow heart rate is?
Fibrinogen to fibrin
The basic event in the formation of a blood clot is the change of?
Muscular activity
The movement of lymph through lymphatic vessels is caused largely by?
Homozygous
A person with two identical variants or alleles, for a gene is?
Trypsin
Which of the following is a protien-splitting enzyme found in pancreatic juice?
Platelets
The condition called thrombocytopenia is due to a deficiency of?
Both B. and C. are true
The skeleton of the heart consists of? A. Bone within the myocardium. B. Fibrous connective tissue in the interventricular septum. C. Fibrous Connective tissue encircling the heart valves. D. Both B. and C.
Female urethral pathway is shorter
Cystitis occurs more commonly in women than in men because the?
Sacral portion of the spinal cord
The micturition reflex center is located in the?
Cholesterol
Kidney stones are least likely to be composed of
Urine
A person in a moderate environment probably would lose the greatest amount of water by means of?
Become edematous
If lymphatic tissue is removed from axillary region, the arm on that side is likely to?
Filtered by blood pressure
If a substance is transported form the plasma of the pertiubular capillary in the fluid of the renal tubule, it is aid to be?
Naturally acquired active immunity
the type of resistance that develops as a result of developin a disease is
Osmotic pressure
the force that causes tissue fluid to enter lymphatic capillaries is
Both T and B cells
A normal immune response requires the response of?
Diet high in unsaturated fats
Which of the following is not a factor that seems to increase the susceptibility to atherosclerosis? A. Diet high in unsaturated fats. B. High blood pressure. C. Lack of physical exercise. D. Obesity.
External jugular vein
Blood from the face and scalp is drained by the?
Placental membrane
Drugs ingested by a pregnant woman most likely reach her fetus by passing through the
Ciliary action
The movement of an egg cell down a uterine tube is aided by?
Agglutinogen A and B
Type AB blood contains?
Mast cells release histamine
As a result of an allergen-antibody reaction?
Testosterone
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sex characteristics is?
Essential amino acids
Plant proteins typically contain less than adequate amounts of?
Four sperm cells with 23 chromosomes each
In spermatogenesis, meiosis results in the formation of?
All of these
the symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome include? A. Reduced head size. B. Mental retardation. C. Abnormal facial features. D. all of these
Basophils
Which of the following usually accounts for the smallest percentage of leukocytes in a blood sample?
Calcium oxalate
Gallstones are usually composed of?
two arteries and one vein
How many blood vessels are usually found in the the umbilical cord?
Two thicknesses of epithelial cells and basement membranes
The respiratory membrane consists of?
Inner cell mass
The cells of a blastocyst that give rise to the body of the developing offspring constitute the?
Ventricular fibrilation
Which of the following would produce the most life-threatening condition?
S-A node, A-V node, A-V bundle, Purkinje fibers
The correct sequence of parts that functions to carry cardiac impulses.
Deficiency of lactase
The condition called lactose intolerance is caused by?
self-substances
In an autoimmune disease, the immune response is directed toward?
Right atrium to the left atrium
The foramen ovale is an opening that allows fetal blood to pass from the?
From the pharynx to the anus
Peristalsis occurs in the digestive tract?
Act against foreign substances
A primary function of lymphocytes is to?
Neutrophils and monocytes
The most active phogocytic cells found in circulation blood are?
Epithelial cells of seminiferous tubules
Testicular cancer is most likely to originate from?
Descending limb of the loop of Henle
The hormone ADH functions to promote water reabsorption through the wall of the?
Diaphragm is lowered
During the defecation reflex, the
Bronchoscopy
The procedure used to directly examine the trachea and bronchial tree is called
Residual volume
Which of the following are volumes that cannot be measured using a simple spirometer?
Right Atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve.
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves in passing from the vena cava to the lungs.
High in oxygen nutrients
The fetal blood that passes through the ductus venosus is relatively
All of these
Type B hepatitis can be transmitted by means of? A. sexual activity.B. blood transfusion. C. Saliva. D. All of these
Lack of surfactant
The condition of newborns called respiratory distress syndrome is caused by
One X and one Y chromosome
Normal males have?
stretch
The receptors of the inflation reflex are most sensitive to?
Digestive action of gastric juice
Microorganisms removed form incoming air by sticky mucus are most likely to be destroyed by?
Excitable
As body fluids become more alkaline, neurons become?
Eighth week
The fetal stage of development begins at the end of the?
Hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure
The movement of water and electrolytes between fluid compartments is regulated primarily by?
Estrogen is high and progesterone is low
In the female reproductive cycle, menstrual flow occurs when the concentrations of?
IgA
The type of immunoglobulin found in the secretions of exocrine glands is
Total surface area of the respiratory membrane
Emphysema is characterized by an increase in?
The amnion and chorion
The placental membrane is compose of?
Polarization of ventricular muscle fibers
In an ECG pattern, the T wave is caused by?
Passively in the proximal convoluted tubule
The largest quantity of hydrogen ions is secreted?
Milk
A newborn infant may have some defense against digestive and respiratory disturbances because of IgA obtained from its mother's?
Cytoplasmic fragments of cells
Platelets are best defined as?
All of these
Androgens are? A. Male sex hormones. B. Female sex hormones. C. Releasing hormones. D. All of these
Proteins
A relatively new treatment in the management of gastric ulcers is a drug that inhibits the production of HCl in the stomach. If a person took this medication for a long period, the digestion of what would be affected the most?
Joint cavities
Transcellular fluid includes the water and electrolytes within?
Monocyte
Which of the following is an agranulocyte?
Carbon dioxide to react with bicarbonate ions
the enzyme carbonic anhydrase causes?
Interlobular arteries
Afferent arterioles are lateral branches of the?
Fragmenting kidney stones
Shock-wave lithotripsy is a procedure for?
2%
Severe demands are placed on a person's ability to regulate body temperature if body water loss exceeds?
Distension of the stomach
During the act of drinking water, the desire for water is usually inhibited by?
Gene

(nucleic acid)
A segment of DNA that codes for one protein
Genome

(nucleic acid)
A complete set of genes
Genetic code

(nucleic acid)
Specific sequence of nucleotides that can be translated into a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Each amino acid is represented by a triplet code.
Genetic information

(nucleic acid)
Instructs cells how to construct proteins; stored in DNA
DNA is made of ____________ and form
a ____________
DNA is made of 2 polynucleotide chains
and form a double helix
Hydrogen bonds hold nitrogenous bases together in...
...DNA
DNA is wrapped about ...
...histones (proteins) and forms chromosomes
DNA bases pair specifically to ...
A - T
and
C - G
What happens during DNA replication?
1. hydrogen bonds break between bases
2. double strands unwind and pull apart
3. new nucleotides pair up with the exposed bases
4. process controlled by DNA polymerase
What delivers genetic information from nucleus to cytoplasm
mRNA
(messenger RNA)
The making of mRNA is called ...
transcription
(takes place in the nucleus)
mRNA is made of a ...
single polynucleotide chain and is formed next to a strand of DNA.
What differ between a strand of DNA and RNA?
All nucleotides are complimentary except T (thymine) is replaced by U (uracil).
What carries amino acids to mRNA?
tRNA
(transfer RNA)
What does tRNA do?
1. It carries amino acids to mRNA
2. carries anticodon to mRNA
3. translates a codon of mRNA into an amino acid
4. tRna that is located in the nucleus. It is released into the cell via pores.
What provides structure and enzymes activity for ribosomes?
rRNA
(ribosomal RNA)
What is a change in genetic information?
Mutations
What happens in a mutation?
1. extra bases are deleted or added
2. bases are changed
3. may or may not change the protein
What are inborn errors in metabolism?
Inborn errors in metabolism
a.) occurs from inheriting a mutation that then alters an enzyme.
b.) this creates a block on an otherwise normal biochemical pathway.
What are the 4 types of DNA nucleotides?
A = Adenine
T = Thymine
C = Cytosine
G = Guanine
When an amino acid chain assembles according to the sequence of base triplets in a molecule of mRNA, this is called ...
Translation
What is a stop codon?
1. A stop codon is a nucleotide triplet within mRNA, that signals the termination of translation by not coding for an amino acid.
2. It is part of protein synthesis
anti codon
Anti codon is made of three contiguous nucleotides of a tRNA, that are complementary to a specific mRNA codon.
(Hint: clover leave / anti codons are at the bottom)
codon
codon is a set of three nucleotides of a mRNA corresponding to a particular set of amino acids.
(Hint: clover leave / codons are at the top)
An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of new DNA and RNA from an existing strand of DNA or RNA ...
polymerase
Each glucose molecule broken down by glycolysis yields a net gain of ...
2 ATPs

2 pyruvic acids

plus some release of high energy electrons
For each citric acid molecule, the product is ...
1 ATP
2 Co2 (carbon dioxide)
8 hydrogen atoms are transferred to NAD+ and FAD
6 carbon glucose are __________in glycolysis with 2___________ on each end.
6 carbon glucose are PHOSPHORYLATED in glycolysis with 2 PHOSPHOR MOLECULES on each end.
Glycolysis takes place in the ...
cytosol (cytoplasma)
Glycolysis requires oxygen. YES or NO
No
1 mole of glucose produces _______ ATPs.
36-38 ATPs
What happens to pyruvic acid if no oxygen becomes available?
It is converted into lactic acid
Each ATP has 3 parts ...
1 adenine molecule

1 ribose molecule

3 phosphate molecules in a chain
Phosphorylation requires___________from_____________
Phosphorylation requires energy release from cellular respiration.
At the end of glycolysis, 2 pyruvic acids are formed. What happens to them if oxygen becomes available?
If oxygen is available, pyruvic acid is used to produce acetyl CoA (which combines with oxaloacetic acid) and the citric acid cycle can begins.
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain take place in the ...
mitochondrian
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain need__________ and hence are called____________.
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain need oxygen and hence are called aerobic reactions.
What is the final product of the citric acid cycle?
Two acetyl CoA molecules are consumed to produce

2 ATPs
4 Co2
2 FADH2
6 NADH

The ATP molecules are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation.
(The cycle occurs twice, once for each acetyl CoA, hence 2 ATPs etc)
What else is formed in the citric acid cycle?
water
Carbohydrate molecules from foods can enter...
Catabolic pathways for energy production.

Anabolic pathways for storage.
Excess glucose is stored as...
1. Glycogen (mainly in the liver and muscle cells)

2. Fat

3. Converted into amino acids
How many ATPs are formed in the ETC?
32-34 ATPs
What is the product of a single citric acid cycle?
2 Co2

1 ATP

3 NADH

1 FADH2
Cellular respiration produces ...
1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Water
3. ATP (chemical energy)
4. Heat
We burn glucose in a process called ...
Oxidation
Oxidation of glucose in a cell is called ...
cellular respiration
If there are no more carbohydrates to burn, other molecules get burned next...
fats and proteins
If fats are burned, what happens?
Fatty acid and glycerol is released. Fatty acids are broken down into carbon fragments and enter the citric acid cycle to generate ATP.
Gene

(nucleic acid)
A segment of DNA that codes for one protein
Genome

(nucleic acid)
A complete set of genes
Genetic code

(nucleic acid)
Specific sequence of nucleotides that can be translated into a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain.

Each amino acid is represented by a triplet code.
Genetic information

(nucleic acid)
Instructs cells how to construct proteins; stored in DNA
DNA is made of ____________ and form
a ____________
DNA is made of 2 polynucleotide chains
and form a double helix
Hydrogen bonds hold nitrogenous bases together in...
...DNA
DNA is wrapped about ...
...histones (proteins) and forms chromosomes
DNA bases pair specifically to ...
A - T
and
C - G
What happens during DNA replication?
1. hydrogen bonds break between bases
2. double strands unwind and pull apart
3. new nucleotides pair up with the exposed bases
4. process controlled by DNA polymerase
What delivers genetic information from nucleus to cytoplasm
mRNA
(messenger RNA)
The making of mRNA is called ...
transcription
(takes place in the nucleus)
mRNA is made of a ...
single polynucleotide chain and is formed next to a strand of DNA.
What differ between a strand of DNA and RNA?
All nucleotides are complimentary except T (thymine) is replaced by U (uracil).
What carries amino acids to mRNA?
tRNA
(transfer RNA)
What does tRNA do?
1. It carries amino acids to mRNA
2. carries anticodon to mRNA
3. translates a codon of mRNA into an amino acid
4. tRna that is located in the nucleus. It is released into the cell via pores.
What provides structure and enzymes activity for ribosomes?
rRNA
(ribosomal RNA)
What is a change in genetic information?
Mutations
What happens in a mutation?
1. extra bases are deleted or added
2. bases are changed
3. may or may not change the protein
What are inborn errors in metabolism?
Inborn errors in metabolism
a.) occurs from inheriting a mutation that then alters an enzyme.
b.) this creates a block on an otherwise normal biochemical pathway.
What are the 4 types of DNA nucleotides?
A = Adenine
T = Thymine
C = Cytosine
G = Guanine
When an amino acid chain assembles according to the sequence of base triplets in a molecule of mRNA, this is called ...
Translation
What is a stop codon?
1. A stop codon is a nucleotide triplet within mRNA, that signals the termination of translation by not coding for an amino acid.
2. It is part of protein synthesis
anti codon
Anti codon is made of three contiguous nucleotides of a tRNA, that are complementary to a specific mRNA codon.
(Hint: clover leave / anti codons are at the bottom)
codon
codon is a set of three nucleotides of a mRNA corresponding to a particular set of amino acids.
(Hint: clover leave / codons are at the top)
An enzyme that catalyzes the formation of new DNA and RNA from an existing strand of DNA or RNA ...
polymerase
Each glucose molecule broken down by glycolysis yields a net gain of ...
2 ATPs

2 pyruvic acids

plus some release of high energy electrons
For each citric acid molecule, the product is ...
1 ATP
2 Co2 (carbon dioxide)
8 hydrogen atoms are transferred to NAD+ and FAD
6 carbon glucose are __________in glycolysis with 2___________ on each end.
6 carbon glucose are PHOSPHORYLATED in glycolysis with 2 PHOSPHOR MOLECULES on each end.
Glycolysis takes place in the ...
cytosol (cytoplasma)
Glycolysis requires oxygen. YES or NO
No
1 mole of glucose produces _______ ATPs.
36-38 ATPs
What happens to pyruvic acid if no oxygen becomes available?
It is converted into lactic acid
Each ATP has 3 parts ...
1 adenine molecule

1 ribose molecule

3 phosphate molecules in a chain
Phosphorylation requires___________from_____________
Phosphorylation requires energy release from cellular respiration.
At the end of glycolysis, 2 pyruvic acids are formed. What happens to them if oxygen becomes available?
If oxygen is available, pyruvic acid is used to produce acetyl CoA (which combines with oxaloacetic acid) and the citric acid cycle can begins.
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain take place in the ...
mitochondrian
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain need__________ and hence are called____________.
Citric acid cycle and electron transport chain need oxygen and hence are called aerobic reactions.
What is the final product of the citric acid cycle?
Two acetyl CoA molecules are consumed to produce

2 ATPs
4 Co2
2 FADH2
6 NADH

The ATP molecules are produced by substrate-level phosphorylation.
(The cycle occurs twice, once for each acetyl CoA, hence 2 ATPs etc)
What else is formed in the citric acid cycle?
water
Carbohydrate molecules from foods can enter...
Catabolic pathways for energy production.

Anabolic pathways for storage.
Excess glucose is stored as...
1. Glycogen (mainly in the liver and muscle cells)

2. Fat

3. Converted into amino acids
How many ATPs are formed in the ETC?
32-34 ATPs
What is the product of a single citric acid cycle?
2 Co2

1 ATP

3 NADH

1 FADH2
Cellular respiration produces ...
1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Water
3. ATP (chemical energy)
4. Heat
We burn glucose in a process called ...
Oxidation
Oxidation of glucose in a cell is called ...
cellular respiration
If there are no more carbohydrates to burn, other molecules get burned next...
fats and proteins
If fats are burned, what happens?
Fatty acid and glycerol is released. Fatty acids are broken down into carbon fragments and enter the citric acid cycle to generate ATP.
intracellular fluid compartment
The fluid that is INSIDE of the cell and accounts for 2/3 of total body water (63% by volume total body water)
extracellular fluid compartment
One of the major fluid compartments of the body, comprising one-third of total body water. The compartment can be subdivided into the blood plasma (about 20% of the ECF) and the interstitial fluid (ISF, about 80% of ECF). (37% volume of total body water)
water of metabolism
10% of water; a by product of the oxidative metabolism of nutrients
composition of extracellular fluid
sodium, chloride, calcium, bicarbonate in large quantities. smaller quantities of potassium, magnesium, phosphate, and sulfate
more protein than intracellular or lymph
intracellular fluid
high concentrations of potassium, phosphate, magnesium. greater concentration of sulfate ions, and lesser concentration of sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate ions than extracellular fluid. More protein than plasma.
how are fluid balance and electrolyte balance interdependent?
electrolytes are dissolved in water of the body fluids

Read more: http://wiki.answers.com/Q/How_is_water_balance_and_electrolyte_balance_interdependent#ixzz1JL9zGw2I
what is the normal distribution of water in the body?
60% of body weight
how does the concentration of protein vary in the various body fluids?
blood plasma fraction of extracellular fluid has more protein than do either interstitial fluid or lymph.
which factors control the movement of water and electrolytes from one fluid compartment to another?
hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure
how does the sodium ion concentration in body fluids affect the net movement of water between the compartments?
decrease in extracellular Na+ causes water to leave the extracellular compartment and go to the intracellular compartment through osmosis. Causing the cell to swell. Conversely, if the extracellular Na+ concentration increases, cells shrink as they lose their water.
what is water balance?
water intake equals water output
where is the thirst center?
hypothalmus
what stimulates fluid intake? what inhibits it?
stimulates intake - thrist (osmotic pressure of extracellular fluids sensed by osmoreceptors)
inhibits intake - stomach distention
by what routes does the body lose water?
urine, feces, sweat, evaporation, lungs during breathing
what is the primary regulator of water loss?
urine production
what types of water loss are unavoidable?
sweat, feces, evaporation
how does the hypothalamus regulate water balance?
Here's what the hypothalamus does when the body's water level is too low
1. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect increased concentration of salt in the
blood (hyperosmotic blood)
2. Hypothalamus releases vasopressin (also called ADH / antidiuretic hormone)
into the capillaries of the neurohypophysis
3. Vasopressin makes kidney retain water
4. Level of water in body increases.
5. Salt concentration in blood decreases.
Here's what the hypothalamus does when the body's water level is too high
1. Osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus detect decreased concentration of salt in the
blood (hypotonic)
2. Hypothalamus inhibits vasopressin from being released into the capillaries of the
neurohypophysis
3. Without vasopressin, the kidneys absorb water and urine is excreted
4. Level of water in body decreases.
5. Salt concentration in blood increases.
Stupid memory thing: Vasopressin is an anagram for "Piss saver on" -- this might help
you remember that the physiological function of vasopressin is to increase the
reabsorbtion of water in the kidney, and thereby decrease the production of urine
which electrolytes are most important to cellular functions?
the ones that release sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium, chloride, sulfate, phosphate, bicarbonate, and hydrogen ions
which mechanisms ordinarily regulate electrolyte intake?
hunger and thirst
maybe salt craving
by what routes does the body lose electrolytes?
sweat, feces, urine production
how does aldosterone regulate sodium and potassium ion concentration?
The exchange of interstitial and intracellular fluid is controlled mainly by the presence of the electrolytes sodium and potassium. Potassium is the chief intracellular cation and sodium the chief extracellular cation. Because the osmotic pressure of the interstitial space and the ICF are generally equal water typically does not enter or leave the cell. A change in the concentration of either electrolyte will cause water to move into or out of the cell via osmosis. A drop in potassium will cause fluid to leave the cell whilst a drop in sodium will cause fluid to enter the cell. Aldosterone, ANP and ADH regulate sodium levels within the body, whilst aldosterone can be said to regulate potassium.
how is calcium regulated?
If calcium low, parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases calcium
-activate PTH receptors
-PTH released into blood
-PTH activates osteoclasts
-release calcium into blood
-PTH also acts on kidneys, retain more calcium
-PTH stimulates formation of calcitrol (active form of vitamin D), absorb calcium from small intestines
If calcium level high, thyroid gland releases calcitonin
-inhibits osteoclasts
-deposits calcium into bones
what mechanism regulates the concentrations of most negatively charged ions?
active transport mechanisms
acids
compounds that form hydrogen ions when dissolved in water
bases
substances that release hydroxide ions when dissolved in water
aerobic respiration of glucose
CO2 + H2O = H2CO3
produces carbon dioxide and water
H2CO3=H+ + HCO3-
Resulting carbonic acid then ionizes to release hydrogen ions and bicaronate ions
anaerobic respiration of glucose
glucose metabolized anaerobically produces lactic acid, which adds hydrogen ions to body fluids
incomplete oxidation of fatty acids
produces acidic ketone bodies, which increase hydrogen ion concentration
oxidation of amino acids containing sulfur
yields sulfuric acid (H2SO4), which ionizes to release hydrogen ions.
breakdown (hydrolysis) of phosphoproteins and nucleic acids
their oxidation produces phosphoric acid (H2PO4), which ionizes to release hydrogen ions
why is the regulation of hydrogen ion concentration so important
pH stability
what are major sources of hydrogen ions in the body?
cellular metabolism of glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids
acid-base buffer systems
composed of sets of two or more chemicals that combine with acids and bases to stabilize the pH; they convert strong acids into weaker acids or stronger bases into weaker bases; include--bicarbonate buffer system, phosphate buffer system, protein buffer system
bicarbonate buffer system
most important buffer system for pH
CO2 + H20 <->H2CO3 <-> H + HCO3-
fast rxn...happens even w/o enzymes
almost as if C02 doesn't exist anymore
we can therefore pick up more CO2 to remove it from tissue...helps maintain pH concentration gradient
phosphate buffer system
effective buffer in urine and ICF, where phosphate concentrations are high
H+ + HPO4-2 = H2PO4-
protein buffer system
main component any amino acid. Amino acid joins with an acid and becomes positively charged or joins with a base, releases the hydrogen and have a negative charge
COOH = COO- + H+
NH2 + H+ = NH3+
what is the difference between a strong acid or base and a weak acid or base?
a strong acid releases a lot H+ ions in a solution
a weak acid doesn't release as many H+ ions
a weak base doesn't accept that many H+
a strong base accepts a lot of H+ ions
how does a chemical buffer system help regulate pH of body fluids?
minimize pH fluctuations
buffer systems convert stronger acids into weaker acids or stronger bases into weaker bases
respiratory center
centers in the brain that regulate the depth and rate of respiration Respiration
what is the difference between a respiratory acid-base disturbance and a metabolic disturbance?
The U.S. National Library of Medicine says that respiratory acidosis and alkalosis may occur due to imbalance in the functional regulation of the blood pH by the lungs. Metabolic acidosis and alkalosis occur due to the failure of the kidney to regulate bicarbonate in the body system with resulting acid-base imbalance in the body.

Read more: Difference Between Respiratory Metabolic Acidosis & Alkalosis | eHow.com http://www.ehow.com/facts_6075242_difference-respiratory-metabolic-acidosis-alkalosis.html#ixzz1JLLRZGEm
how do the symptoms of alkalosis compare with those of acidosis?
acidosis - drowsiness, disorientation, stupor
alkalosis - light headedness, agitation, dizziness, tingling sensations
af-
to: afferent arteriole - arteriole that leads to a nephron
calyc-
small cup: major calyces - cuplike subdivisions of the renal pelvis
cort-
covering: renal cortex - shell of tissue surrounding the inner region of a kidney
destrus-
to force away: detrusor muscle - muscle in the bladder wall that causes urine to be expelled
glom-
little ball: glomerulus - cluster of capillaries n a renal corpuscle.
juxta-
near to: juxtamedullary nephron - nephron located near the renal medulla
mict-
to pass urine: micturition - expelling urine from the bladder
nephr-
pertaining to the kidney: nephron- functional unit of a kidney
papill-
nipple: renal papillae - small elevations that project into a renal calyx
prox-
nearest: proximal tubule - coiled protion of the renal tubule leading from the glomerular capsule.
ren-
kidney: renal cortex - outer region of a kidney
trigon-
triangular shape: trigone- triangular area on the internal floor of the bladder
nutrients
All the chemical substances that an organism needs to sustain life.
macronutrients
Nutrients, such as carbohydrate, fat, or protein, that are needed in relatively large amounts in the diet.
micronutrients
Nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals, that are needed in relatively small amounts in the diet. H2O
nutrition
Obtained from food and used by our bodies for growth and maintaining good health.
metabolism
The totality of an organism's chemical reactions, consisting of catabolic and anabolic pathways.
essential nutrients
substances the body requires for normal growth and health but cannot manufacture in sufficient amounts: they must be obtained int he diet.
leptin
hormone that signals the hypothalamus and brain stem to reduce appetite and increase the amount of energy used
neuropeptide Y
neurotransmitter found in several brain areas, most notably the hypothalamus, that stimulates eating behavior and reduces metabolism, promoting positive energy balance and weight gain
ghrelin
chemical released by stomach during food deprivation; also released as a neurotransmitter (neuropeptimde Y) in the brain, where it stimulates eating
carbohydrates
the starches and sugars present in foods
polysaccharides
A molecule formed by joining many monosaccharides together. POlysaccharides are typically energy-storage molecules (glycogen in animals, starch in plants) or structural molecules (cellulose in plants, chitin in exoskeletons).
disaccharides
A class of sugars,maltose, sucrose, lactose, composed of two monosaccharides (milk sugar, cane sugar, beet sugar, molasses)
monosaccharides
The building blocks of carbohydrates are single sugars such as glucose and fructose.(honey and fruit)
cellulose
polymer of glucose, w/ different glycosidic linkages, makes tough walls around plant cells, is hard for humans to digest (fiber, roughage)
lipids
organic compounds that include fats, oils, and waxes, which store large amounts of energy (phospholipid, cholesterol)
beta oxidation
A metabolic sequence that breaks fatty acids down to two-carbon fragments that enter the citric acid cycle as acetyl CoA
fatty acid oxidases
an enzyme that catalyxes the removal of hydrogen or electrons from a fatty acid molecule
ketone bodies
The liver can combine two acetyl groups into one of three compounds which are released into the blood. Cells in heart and brain use them to make Acetyl CoA which then enters the citric acid cycle.
essential fatty acids
fats needed by the body that must be consumed in the diet because the human body cannot manufacture them (linoleic acid and linolenic acid)
proteins
polymers of amino acids
deamination
removing an amine NH2 group - needed when amino acids are converted to glucose
urea
A waste product of protein dbreakdown, produced by the liver and relased into the bloodstream to be eliminated by the kidney.
essential amino acid
an amino acid that is required by animals but that they cannot synthesize
complete proteins
Proteins containing all the essential amino acids; found only in soy and animal foods (meats and dairy products)
How do hormones control appetite?
Several hormones are instrumental in control of the appetite center. Some increase hunger, others reduce the urge to eat. These have both short-term and long-term actions and are essential for control of body weight.
Ghrelin - stimulates
PYY3-36 - inhibits
Insulin and leptin - inhibits
in what form are carbs used as a cellular fuel?
glucose
what happens to excess glucose in the body?
it is stored as fat
how does the body obtain glucose when its food supply of carbs is insuffecient?
the liver may convert some noncarbohydrates, such as amino acids from proteins, or glycerol from fats into glucose. This is called gluconeogeneisis.
what other two uses of carbs are there other than supplying energy?
starting materials for synthesizing the vital biochemicals ribose and deoxyribose.
why do daily carb needs vary person to person?
physically active people need more carbs, because they use more energy.
what food commonly supply lipids?
fats and oils
which fatty acids are essential nutrients?
linoleic acid and linolenic acid
what is the role of the liver in the use of lipids?
The liver plays a key role in lipid metabolism. Depending on species it is, more or less, the hub of fatty acid synthesis and lipid circulation through lipoprotein synthesis.
what are the functions of cholesterol?
Cholesterol plays a part in the production of hormones such as testosterone, estrogen, progesterone, aldosterone and cortisone. The body also uses cholesterol to make cell linings or membranes. Another function of cholesterol is in the production of bile acids, sometimes called bile or gall.
The human body makes its own Vitamin D given enough sunlight. One of the functions of cholesterol is its role in the production of Vitamin D.
how do cells use proteins?
Protein is a material that's used to build and repair every area of the body. It plays a vital role in cell metabolism and growth. This material is made up of strings of amino acid molecules that form to make the large complex protein molecules. With 20 different types to work with, amino acid strings can combine into different materials. As a result, different combinations form different types of proteins that each serve specific functions within a cell's metabolism.

Read more: How Do Cells Use Foods High in Protien for Energy? | eHow.com http://www.ehow.com/how-does_4963482_use-foods-high-protien-energy.html#ixzz1JHeYe4VF
which foods are rich in proteins?
* Eggs
* Milk
* Soy Milk
* Cheese
* Yogurt
* Peanut Butter
* Lean Meats
* Fish
* Poultry
* Beans
* Lentils
* Grains
* Nuts
why are some amino acids called essential?
Proteins are made up of 20 kinds of amino acids. 9 of these 20 must be taken from food since they are not synthesized in the body. Therefore, they are called "essential amino acids". It is necessary to compensate these "essential amino acids" from food in well-balanced, appropriate amounts.
dynamic equilibrium
result of diffusion where there is continuous movement of particles but no overall change in concentration
nitrogen balance
condition in which nitrogen losses from the body are equal to nitrogen intake; the expected state of the healthy adult
calories
units used to measure energy. calories indicate how much energy in a food can be used by the body or stored in body fat
basal metabolic rate
the body's resting rate of energy expenditure
energy balance
The state in which energy intake, in the form of food and beverages, matches the energy expended, primarily through basal metabolism and physical activity.
body mass index
Weight (in kg) divided by height (in meters) squared.
obesity
excessive accumulation of fat that exceeds the body's skeletal and physical standards, usually an increase of 20 percent or more above ideal body weight (over 30 BMI)
vitamins
essential nutrients that do not yield energy, but that are required for growth and proper functioning of the body (body cannot synthesize adequate amounts)
provitamins
Precursor of a vitamin
Vitamin A
Retinol/Retinal. Found in rhodopsin (the light-absorbing pigment of rods/cones). Deficiency = nyctalopia (night blindness), xerophthalmia (dry eyes), flaky skin, degenerative changes in epithelial lining of the gut (also involved in differentiation of epithelial cells, maturation of cartilage). From beta-carotene.
antioxidants
Molecules that neutralize free radicals, thereby preventing them from causing damage to cells
Vitamin D
One of the fat-soluble vitamins. The active form functions as a hormone, acting in concert with parathyroid hormone in bone and promoting the uptake of calcium from food within the intestines.
Vitamin E
acts as an antioxidant in the cell membrane protecting the cell from damage, plays a role in synthesis of hemoglobin or serve a pro-oxidant effect by activating enzymes in the mitochondria.
Vitamin K
aids in blood clotting. SOURCES: green leafy veggies, potatoes, liver, made by intenstinal bacteria
what is negative nitrogen balance? Positive nitrogen balance?
It is the balance of N intake = nitrogen excretion. Always want postive balance: N intake > Excretion.
grams of protein รท 6.25 = N
how can inadequate nutrition cause edema?
low protein levels cause edema or swelling which contributes to problems with oxygen transport and the transport of nutrients. This is due to more plasma proteins entering the interstitial membranes than can be removed by the lymphatic system. Plasma proteins attract water.
what term designates the potential energy in food?
calorie
how is the energy value of a food determined?
It is determined by the number of calories. 1000 Calories equals one kilocalorie and a daily in take is 2, 500 Calories.
what is the energy value of a gram of carbs? protein? fat?
Calories are needed to provide energy so the body functions properly. The number of calories in a food depends on the amount of energy the food provides. The number of calories a person needs depends on age, height, weight, gender, and activity level. People who consume more calories than they burn off in normal daily activity or during exercise are more likely to be overweight.
Fat: 1 gram = 9 calories
Protein: 1 gram = 4 calories
Carbohydrates: 1 gram = 4 calories
what factors influence the BMR?
* Body size: Metabolic rate increases as weight, height, and surface area increase.
* Body composition: Fat tissue has a lower metabolic activity than muscle tissue. As lean muscle mass increases, metabolic rate increases.
* Gender: The basal metabolic rate (BMR) averages 5 to 10 percent lower in women than in men. This is largely because women generally possess more body fat and less muscle mass than men of similar size.
* Age: A decrease in lean muscle mass during adulthood results in a slow, steady decline of roughly 0 3 percent per year in BMR after the age of about 30. This can be largely avoided by strength training throughout adulthood.
* Climate and body temperature: The BMR of people in tropical climates is generally 5 to 20 percent higher than their counterparts living in more temperate areas because it takes energy to keep the body cool. Exercise performed in hot weather also imposes an additional metabolic load. Body fat content and effectiveness of clothing determine the magnitude of increase in energy metabolism in cold environments; it takes energy to keep the body warm if you work or exercise in very cold weather.
* Hormonal levels: Thyroxine (T4), the key hormone released by the thyroid glands has a significant effect upon metabolic rate. Hypothyroidism is relatively common, especially in women near or after menopause. Everyone with a weight problem should have their thyroid function checked by their doctor and treated appropriately if it turns out to be low.
* Health: Fever, illness, or injury may increase resting metabolic rate two-fold.
what is energy balance?
energy intake equals energy output
what is desirable weight?
BMI below 25
distinguish between being overweight and being obese?
* An adult who has a BMI between 25 and 29.9 is considered overweight.
* An adult who has a BMI of 30 or higher is considered obese.
Under what conditions is weight gain desirable?
recovering from illness, body building, a growing infant
how are vitamins classified?
There are thirteen vitamins classified as either water soluble (C and B complex) or fat soluble (A, D, E and K).
how do bile salts affect the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins?
Since bile increases the absorption of fats, it is an important part of the absorption of the fat-soluble substances, such as the vitamins D, E, K and A.
what conditions destroy vitamin A?
oxidation and sunlight
what foods are good sources of vitamin A?
liver, fish, whole milk, butter, eggs
required for synthesis of of visual pigments
where is vitamin D stored?
fat and the liver
what are the functions of vitamin D?
-Mineralization of bones and teeth
-Regulation of blood calcium and phosphorus
-Aids in muscle, heart, and nerve function via regulation of calcium and phosphorus
promotes the development of teeth and bones
what foods are good sources of vitamin D?
milk, egg yolk, fish liver oils
what are symptoms of vitamin D deficiency?
Rickets, osteomalacia, hypocalcemic tetany
where is vitamin E stored?
throughout the body, mostly in fat, but also in liver and muscle; acts as an antioxidant to scavenge free radicals
what are the functions of vitamin E?
*MOST IMPORTANT FAT-SOLUBLE ANTIOXIDANT
-Protects lipids in cell membranes from oxidation
-Protects vitamins A & C, and unsaturated fatty acids from oxidation
-Prevents hemolysis of RBCs
-Improves immune response
-Inhibits conversion of nitrites
antioxidant, helps stabilize cell membranes
which foods are good sources of vitamin E?
oils from cereal foods, salad oils, margarine, shortenings, fruits, nuts, and vegetables.
where in the body is vitamin K synthesized?
intestinal bacteria
what is the function of vitamin K?
Vitamin K is essential in the functioning of several proteins involved in blood clotting
required for synthesis of prothrombin
which foods are good sources of vitamin K?
leafy green veggies, egg yolk, pork liver, soy oil, tomatoes, cauliflower
B vitamins
play multiple roles in energy metabolism.
thiamine B1
vitamin b1, chemical necessary for the metabolism of glucose
required for ribose synthesis
riboflavin B2
a B complex vitamin (B2) that plays essential roles as a cofactor of enzymes involved in many cell oxidation-reduction reactions
required for cellular reproduction
niacin B3
B3, keeps digestive tract healthy
required to synthesize nucleic acids
pantothenic acid B5
party of the Coenzyme A molecule; involved in over 100 steps in the production of lipids, hemoglobin, hormones, and neurotransmitters. B5
Part of coenzyme A in oxidation of carbs
vitamin B6
a B vitamin needed in protein metabolism. Its three active forms are pyridoxine, pyridoxal, and pyridoxamine.
required to produce antibodies
cyanocobalamin B12
B12, is dependant on the intrinsic factor and calcium to be absorbed.
plays a role in myelin synthesis
Folacin/folic acid
helps prevent birth defects of the brain and spinal cord. functions also include teaming up with vitamin B12 and helping your body use proteins. folic acid
promotes red blood cell production
Biotin
coenzyme in energy metabolism, glycogen synthesis, and fat metabolism
part of coenzymes to synthesize proteins, fats, and nucleic acids
Vitamin C
acts as the glue that holds cells together; strengths blood vessel walls; helps wounds heal; helps bones grow; strengthens resistance to infection but does not cure colds; an antioxidant ascorbic acid
required to produce collagen
which biochemicals comprise the vitamin B complex?
thiamine, riboflavin, niacin, pantothenic acid, vitamin B6, cyanocobalamin, folic acid, biotin
Which foods are good sources of the vitamin B complex?
cereal grains, meat, poultry, eggs, fish, milk, legumes and fresh vegetables.
which of the B-complex vitamins can be synthesized from tryptophan?
niacin (B3)
what is the general function of each member of the vitamin B complex?
*Vitamin B1 (Thiamin) - particularly important for converting food into energy and regulating the entire nervous system. It also plays a role in the formation of red blood cells too
*Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) - great antioxidant source.
*Vitamin B3 (Niacin) - improve blood circulation and also lowering down the cholesterol levels in your blood. Its other functions are aiding in the repair of the nervous system as well as improving digestion.
*Vitamin B5 (Pantothenic Acid) - protect you from excessive mental and physical stress. It can boost your vitality and prevent premature aging.
*Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) - a great hormone regulator that helps stabilize your body's hormones levels.
*Vitamin B7 (Biotin) - important for cell growth and the formation of fatty acids.
*Vitamin B9 (Folic Acid) - help with cell divisions and preventing cardiovascular problems
*Vitamin B12 (Cobalamin) - The vitamin prevents anemia, fights fatigue and alleviate depression. It also helps maintain a healthy nervous system and preventing disorders. The vitamin aids in the production of hemoglobin which increases the ability of red blood cells to carry more oxygen to all your body's cells
which factors destroy vitamin C?
oxidation, heat, light, or bases
what are functions of vitamin C?
Collagen synthesis, Antioxidant, Enhances iron absorption for hemoglobin synthesis, Hormone synthesis, Strenghthens resistance to infection; Wound healing.
required to produce collagen
which foods are good sources of vitamin C?
citrus fruits, tomatoes, green leafy vegetables
what are symptoms of vitamin C deficiency?
scurvy
It takes several months of low amounts of vitamin C to lead to the symptoms of scurvy. The classic symptoms are bleeding gums, scaly skin, loose teeth, fatigue, increased risk of infection, and poor wound healing. Children and infants with an ascorbic acid deficiency usually have poor bone growth and anemia.
minerals
elements of the earth needed in the diet, which perform many functions in body tissues
major minerals?
Minerals that the body requires in amounts greater than 100 milligrams a day. They include: calcium, magnesium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium, and sulfur.
calcium
A mineral that is essential for bone growth, teeth development, blood coagulation, and many other functions
phosphorus
linked with calcium, important for formation of bones and teeth
how do minerals differ from other nutrients?
they are inorganic compounds (carbohydrates, proteins, lipids, and vitamins are all organic compounds). The fundamental structure of minerals is usually nothing more than a molecule, or molecules, of an element.
what are the major functions of minerals?
The functions of minerals do not include participation in the yielding of energy. But they do play vital roles in several physiological functions, including critical involvement in nervous system functioning, in cellular reactions, in water balance in the body, and in structural systems, such as the skeletal system.
which are the most abundant minerals in the body?
Calcium , phosphorous, and magnesium
what are the functions of calcium?
Structure of bone and teeth, blood clotting, hormone secretion, cell receptor function, CONTRACTION OF MUSCLES (essential for life), plasma membrane stability, plasma membrane permeability.
component of teeth and bones
what are the functions of phosphorus?
Phosphorus is needed for healthy bones and teeth, energy metabolism, and acidbase balance in the body.
component of teeth and bones
which foods are good sources of calcium and phosphorus?
calcium - milk and milk products, fish with bones such as salmon or sardines. green leafy vegs
phosphorus - meat, cheese, nuts, whole grain cereal, milk, legumes
potassium
the most abundant mineral in the body, plays a key role in coagulation of blood, maintenance of normal heart beat, normal functioning of nerves and muscles
is inside the cell rather than in extracellular fluids
how is potassium distributed in the body?
widely distributed and within cells rather than extracellular fluids.
what is the function of potassium?
maintain intracellular osmotic pressure and pH
helps maintian intracellular osmotic pressure
which foods are good sources of potassium?
avocados, dried apricots, meats, milk, peanut butter, potatoes, bananas
sulfur
needed for protein metabolism
essential part of certain amino acids
sodium
an electrolyte regulated in the blood and urine by the kidneys
helps maintain extracellular fluid osmotic pressure
in which compounds and tissues of the body is sulfur found?
skin, hair, nails
which hormone regulates the blood concentration of sodium?
aldosterone. the adrenal cortex sends it to the kidneys, causes the kidneys to reabsorb sodium while expelling potassium.
what are the functions of sodium?
major contributor to the solute concentration of extracellular fluids and thus helps regulate water movement between cells and their surroundings. Necessary for nerve impulse conduction and helps to move substances such as chloride ions through cell membranes.
chlorine
anion in extracellular fluid, important for acid-base balance
helps maintain extracellular fluid osmotic pressure
magnesium
Helps build bones and teeth; helps build protein; helps muscles contract and relax; helps nerves communicate
required in metabolic reactions associated with ATP production
where are chloride ions most highly concentrated in the body?
cerebrospinal fluid and gastric juice
where is magnesium stored?
Bones, some muscles
what factors influence the absorption of magnesium from the intestinal tract?
how much is taken in by the body. take in more, a smaller percentage is absorbed and vise versa.
trace elements
elements or minerals needed in very small amounts
Iron
helps red blood cells carry oxygen
component of hemoglobin
manganese
function: needed for normal bone structure, reproduction, normal functioning of cells & CNS & a component of some enzymes; food sources: macademia nuts, pine nuts, hazelnuts/filberts, pecans, whole-wheat flour, pineapple, whoe-wheat pasta, chickpeas, spinach, & fresh blackberries; deficiency: none observed in humans; toxicity: parkinson's-like symptoms have been noted in miners
required for cholesterol synthesis and urea formation
what is the primary function of iron?
enables hemoglobin molecules in red blood cells to carry oxygen
why does the usual diet provide only a narrow margin of safety in supplying iron?
liver is the best source, and liver is not a popular food
how is manganese used?
metabolic reactions in mitochondria that produce ATP; plays a role in the breakdown of ATP to ADP
which foods are good sources of manganese?
milk, dairy, legumes, nuts, leafy green vegs
copper
helps make red blood cells; helps build protein; helps the body use iron
essential for hemoglobin synthesis and melanin production
iodine
part of thyroid hormone needed for growth
essential for synthesis of thyroid hormones
cobalt
Constituent of Vit. B12
component of cyanocobalamin
zinc
Helps build genetic material and protein; supports normal immunity; supports growth; helps make sperm; helps wounds heal
necessary for normal wound healing
flourine
strenghtens bones and teeth
component of tooth enamel
selenium
1. seafood, meats, whole grains, onion 2. enzyme cofactor; antioxidant function in close association with vitamin E3. muscle pain, possibly heart muscle deterioration
component of certain enzymes
chromium
Helps regulate blood sugar
essential for the use of carbs
how is copper used?
essential for hemoglobin synthesis, bone development, melanin production, and myelin formation.
what is the function of iodine?
Mordant (binding agent).
why might zinc deficiencies be common?
low absorption rate
food pyramid
a guide for making healthful daily food choices
what is an adequate diet?
provides sufficient energy, essential fatty acids, essential amino acids, vitamins,a nd minerals to support optimal growth and to maintain and repair body tissues.
what factors influence individual needs for nutrients?
age, sex, growth rate, level of physical activity and stress, genetic and environmental factors
malnutrition
inadequate nutrition; poor health caused by undernourishment
marasmus
a severe form of both protein and energy deficiency often associated with body weight that is 60% less than normal
kwashiorkor
a form of protein deficiency, most often seen in starving children, characterized by retarded growth and abdominal distention caused by liver enlargement
ascites
an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity, causing abdominal swelling
anorexia nervosa
an eating disorder in which a normal-weight person diets and becomes significantly underweight, yet, still feeling fat, continues to starve
bulimia
eating disorder characterized by excessive eating followed by purging
factors that may lead to an inadequate nutrition later in life are?
medical conditions social circumstances, economic circumstances, medication
Roman numerals
I Voted X, Lynn Can Do More
1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 50, 1000
Metric
King Henry Danced Merrily Down Center Main
FANBOYS
for, and, nor, but, or, yet, and so
contain these are NOT simple sentences
Kinetic Energy forumula
KE = 1/2 mv(2)
2kg mass travels at 3 meters/second. What is the objects KE?
KE = 1/2 (2kg)(3M/s)squared = 9Joules
saturated hydrocarbon
C(n)H(2n)+2
single-bond
alkanes
non saturated double bond hydrocarbon
C(n)H(2n)
alkenes
non saturated triple bond hydrocarbon
C(n)H(2n-2)
-yne
hydrocarbon prefixes
Meth- (1)
Eth- (2)
Prop- (3)
But- (4)
Pent- (5)
Hex- (6)
Hept (7)
Oct- (8)
Non (9)
Dec (10)
biological hierachy classification system
Did kinky phil come over for great sex
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
1s(2)2s(2) mass of 6, how many electrons, protons, neutrons (neutral atom)
protons and electrons are the same (exponents) = 4
for neutrons subtract protons from total mass = 6-4=2
Inert gases
far right, noble gases
do not react
halogens
left of noble gases
F, Br, Cl, I, At
combine to form salts
alkali metals
far left, metallic
lithium, sodium and potassium
low density, float on water, so reactive they will pull O2 from water and spontanously burn
which halogen reacts most readily with Na?
Chlorine
its in the same period!
generally ionic compounds are
between metals and nonmetals AND ionic bonded
simpliest form, no molecules exist
form crystals
NaCl and Fluorite CaF2
ALWAYS solid at room temp
generally molecular compounds are
between nonmetals AND covalent bonds
neutral atoms bound together to form a neutral molecule
H2O and glucose C6H12O6
can be solid, liquid, or gas at room temp
in a chemical reaction a metal will become?
a cation
lose an electron
***which correctly describes ion Al -27
ele charge -3
mass 14
elect charge +3
mass 24
Electric charge +3
WHY?
mass is 26.9, so the 27 is the mass
it is in the group 3A (normally 3 valence electrons)
**the negative sign shows it as losing an electron, therefore it is a cation, therefore positive
8(9) / 8(3) =
8(6)
to find a WHOLE when given a "% of" and the percent
if 73% of X = 471.58
DIVIDE
change % to decimal .73 and divide it into 471.58
= 646
***AFTER a 15% discount the TV cost $102.00
What was the original cost?
% * whole = part
change to decimal 15% = .15
SUBRACT .15 from 100 (since it is OFF not OF) = .85
.85 * whole = 102.00
now we can divide $102.00 by .85 = $120.00
neighborhood has 5% red mailboxes.
Student counts 60 red mailboxes
How many mailboxes in the neighborhood?
% * whole = part
.05 * X = 60
60/.05 = 1200 total mailboxes
IONS group IA
these metals LOSE 1 electron (to form an ionic bond)
Li = Li+ + e- (loses an electron so is a CATION/more + inside the nucleus than outside)
Li+ (Lithium ion)
FOR ELECTRON NUMBERS DO OPPOSITE of what you think.
H+
H has 1 protons/electron, subtract 1 electrons
H+ has no electrons
IONS group lIA
these metals LOSE 2 electrons (to form an ionic bond)
Be = Be2+ + 2e- (loses electrons so is a CATION/more + inside the nucleus than outside)
Be2+ (Beryllium ion)
FOR ELECTRON NUMBERS TO OPPOSITE of what you think
Be2+
Be has 4 protons/electrons, subtract 2 electrons
Be2+ has 2 electons
IONS group VlIA (Halogens)
these NONmetals GAIN an electron (when matched with metals, for form ionic bonds, become ANION/ more + charge outside the nucleus than inside)
F + e- = F-
F- (Floride ion)
FOR ELECTRON NUMBERS TO OPPOSITE of what you think
Al3+
Al has 13 protons/electrons, subtract 3 electrons
Al3+ has 10 electrons
**Quick memorization monatomic ion charges
metal lA 1+
metal llA 2+
metal lllA 3+
metal lVA 2+

nonmetal VA 3-
nonmetal VlA 2-
nonmetal VLLA 1-
Subject and Object differences
If I say, "I love you," YOU are the object of my affection, and you is also the OBJECT of the sentence (because I am loving you, making ME THE SUBJECT and you the object).
I love you. You are the object of my affection and my sentence.
when to use WHO and WHOM
Like WHOM, the pronoun HIM ends with m.
When you're trying to decide whether to use who or whom, ask yourself if the answer to the question would be HE OR HIM. That's the trick: if you can answer the question being asked with him, then use whom, and it's easy to remember because they both end with m.
"Who (or whom) do you love?"
The answer would be "I love him." Him ends with an m, so you know to use whom.
"Who (or whom) stepped on Squiggly?"
the answer would be "He stepped on Squiggly." There's no m, so you know to use who.
affect vs effect
First, the mnemonic involves a very easy noun to help you remember: aardvark. Yes, if you can remember aardvark -- a very easy noun -- you'll always remember that affect with an a is a verb and effect with an e is a noun. Why? Because the first letters of "a very easy noun" are the same first letters as "affect verb effect noun!" That's a very easy noun. Affect (with an a) verb effect (with an e) noun.
"But why Aardvark?" you ask. Because there's also an example to help you remember. It's "The arrows affected Aardvark. The effect was eye-popping."
what does DRY MIX mean?
Dependent variable, Responding variable, Y axis
Manipulated variable, Independent variable, X axis
virus, bacteria consist of
virus - nucleic acid and hard cover
bacteria - prokaryotic, single cell wall, no definate nucleus
B cell
Memory cell
T cell
Target cell
killer cell, looks for nonself
natural killer cells
cause cells to lyse
interferions
work like the flu vaccine
heart valves
tricuspid - right atrium to right ventricle
pulmonary valve - to pulmanary viens
bicuspid - mitrol, from left atrium to left ventricle
saggital and transectional
saggital is verticle
transectional is horizontal
amino acids and protien
amino acids (small molecules) make up protiens (large molecules)
Kidney
main excretetory organ
makes bile (bile is stored in the gall bladder)
usded to digest fat
quick digestion overview
*Mouth - saliva, amalyse, to digest carbs
*Stomach - HCl produced by parietal cells, activates pepsin (Chief cells), which digests protien, makes chyme
*duedenum - actually digests (bile is added)
*small intestine - absorption (and it goes to the liver for delivery)
*large intestine - reclaims water, bacteria break down and release vitamins, minerals absorbed
colen- stored feces
quick mitosis/meiosis overview
interphase S - replication (tetrads form with meiosis)
Prophase - condense and nucleus dissolves
Metaphase - line up
Anaphase - split and seperate
Telophase- pinch off and new nucleus
Cytokensis - actual seperation
For meiosis -
Phase 1
Diploids and homo. pairs
chromosones split (part chromosones switch around)
Phase 2
Haploids (sperm or egg cells)
Occurs in the testies and ovaries
forms 4 new sperm cells/forms 1 new egg cell and 3 polar bodies
mitosis and reproduction
binary fission (much like mitosis, organisms with no nucleus)
budding
regineration (star fish or lizard tail)
what happens in interphase G1 and G2?
transcription with the help of polymerase)
what happens in interphase S?
DNA replication
quick overview of anaerobic respiration
breaks glucose into ethal alcohol and lactic acid, which makes ATP
Its fast energy but is made in small amounts
Occurs in the cells
quick overview of aerobic respiration
requires O2
break down of glucose into carbon dioxide and hydrogen. Forms water and ATP. Occurs in mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. 10x more energy than anaerobic. Takes time and uses energy.
what is the simpliest example of a covalent bond
Hydrogen
H:H
polar vs nonpolar covalent bonds
if the elements are the same, it will be nonpolar H2
if the elements are differnt they are polar HCl
exothermic reactions
produce heat, neutralization reactions, metabolism, condensation
will show heat as a - number
produces energy
water synthesis
combustion
endothermic reactions
decomposition (56kJ + PCl5 = xxx + xxx), photosynthesis, evaporation, vaporization, sublimation
all have positive heat added (heat a + number)
absorbs energy (sun in photosynthesis)
ice melting
anabolism
construct larger molecules from smaller ones (bone growth)
it is POWERED by catabolism where they molecules are broken down and used for energy ATP
catabolism
larger molecules broken down in metabolism and used as energy ATP
melting
or fusion
solid to liquid - heat is absorbed - endothermic
sublimation
solid changes directly to gas
heat is absorbed - endothermic
freezing
liquid to solid
heat is released - exothermic
evaporation
or vaporization
liquid to gas - heat absorbed - endothermic
condensation
gas to liquid/or gas directly to solid
release heat, exothermic
oxidation-reduction
one in which electrons are transferred from one reactant to another
oxidation
loss of one electron (becomes a cation/ +)
reductioon
gains one electron (becomes an anion/ -)
acid
produces a hydrogen Ion, H+ or H3O
HF, HCl, HBr, HI, HNO3, HNO2, H2CO3, H2SO4, H3PO4, H3BO3, HC2H3O2
H2O conj base is OH-
NH4+ conj base is NH3
HCl conj base is Cl-
H2SO4 conj base is HSO4-
HC2H3O2 conj base is C2H3O2-
base
produces hydroxide ion OH-
LiOH, NaOH, KOH, ca(OH)2, Ba(OH)2, NH3
OH- base conj acid H2O
NH2 base conj acid NH4+
S2- base conj acid HS-
NO3- base conj acid HNO3
H2O base conj acid H3)+
neutralization
reaction of acid and base to produce a salt and H2O
% problems
Keep in mind:
OF translates into multiply
IS translates into equals
AFTER translates into subtraction

"What percent of the whole is the part?"
The enrollment at a college went up from 625 students to 710 students over a period of 1 year. What was the percent increase?
710-625 = 85
divide 85 by 625
85/625 = .136
13.6%
On Monday, 3 students out of a class of 24 were absent from class. What percent of the students were absent from class?
3 divided by 24
3/24 = .125
12.5%
The 18 students who received an A in mathematics class made up 30% of the students in the class. Find the total number of students in the class.
X * 30% = 18 so X = 18/.30
X = 60
word problems with ratios, proportions, and rates of change
units of an item/unitis of an item = units of an item/units of an item
same numerators and denominators
cross multiply
1250 students/50 sections = 1550 students/X sections
50 * 1550 = 77500
divide 77500 by 1250 to solve for X
X = 62
Student A reads 10 pages an hour
Student B reads 18 pages an hour
Each has a 288 page book to complete.
How much sooner will Student B complete the book compared to Student A?
*time for student A
10pgs/hr = 288 pgs/X hr
cross multiply
10 A = 288 1
A = 28.8 hrs
Student B
18 B = 288 1
B = 16hrs
28.8 - 16 = 12.8 hrs faster
saying to remember beginnings of prepositions...
the boy can sit "on" the box, "by" the box, "above" the box, "below" the box, "around" the box, or "near" the box. (also To and From)
Chem. Alvogadro's number
1 mole of X = 6.022 x 10(23)atoms
take mass (amu) AND for example Hydrogen
1 mole H = 1.008g H = 6.022x10(23)
determine molar mass, mass to mole, mole to mass
cranial nerves
"On Old Olympic Towering Tops A Finn And German Viewed Some Hops"
I Olfactory
smell
The olfactory nerve is actually a collection of sensory nerve rootlets that extend down from the olfactory bulb and pass through the many openings of the cribriform plate in the ethmoid bone. These specialized sensory receptive parts of the olfactory nerve are then located in the olfactory mucosa of the upper parts of the nasal cavity. During breathing air molecules attach to the olfactory mucosa and stimulate the olfactory receptors of cranial nerve I and electrical activity is transduced into the olfactory bulb. Olfactory bulb cells then transmit electrical activity to other parts of the central nervous system via the olfactory tract.
AFFERENT- move sensory info toward the brain
II Optic
vision
The optic nerve has only a special sensory component
Special sensory conveys visual information from the retina (special afferent).
Visual information enters the eye in the form of photons of light which are converted to electrical signals in the retina. These signals are carried via the optic nerves, chiasm, and tract to the lateral geniculate nucleus of each thalamus and then to the visual centers of the brain for interpretation.
III Oculomotor ..
eyelid and eyeball movement
Consists of two components with distinct functions:
A. Somatic motor
(general somatic efferent) Supplies four of the six extraocular muscles of the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris muscle of the upper eyelid.
The somatic motor component of CN III plays a major role in controlling the muscles responsible for the precise movement of the eyes for visual tracking or fixation on an object.
B. Visceral motor
(general visceral efferent) Parasympathetic innervation of the constrictor pupillae and ciliary muscles.
The visceral motor component is involved in the pupillary light and accomodation reflexes.
Kidney overview
Primarily excretory
important role in regulation of homeostasis:
Principle organ of regulation of
Extracellular fluid volume &
Electrolyte composition
Major Site of Hormone Synthesis
Primarily those regulating systemic metabolic function
Erythropoietin
1,25-diOH vitamin D
Renin
Vasoactive prostanoids and kinins
when to use semi colon
between two independent clauses (each can be said as a sentence on their own) AND WITHOUT a cordinating conjuction FANBOYS (use a comma with CC)
when to use a colon
following is equivalent to what was preceding...
can replace with "that is" or "in other words"
...
VI Abducens turns eye laterally
VII Facial controls most facial expressions
secretion of tears & saliva
taste
VIII Vestibulocochlear
(auditory) hearing
equillibrium sensation
IX Glossopharyngeal taste
senses carotid blood pressure
X Vagus senses aortic blood pressure
slows heart rate
stimulates digestive organs
taste
XI Spinal Accessory controls trapezius & sternocleidomastoid
controls swallowing movements
XII Hypoglossal controls tongue movements
IV Trochlear
innervates superior oblique
turns eye downward and laterally
The trochlear nerve is purely a motor nerve and is the only cranial nerve to exit the brain dorsally. The trochlear nerve supplies one muscle: the superior oblique. The cell bodies that originate the fourth cranial nerve are located in ventral part of the brainstem in the trochlear nucleus. The trochlear nucleus gives rise to nerves that cross (decussate) to the other side of the brainstem just prior to exiting the brainstem. Thus, each superior oblique muscle is supplied by nerve fibers from the trochlear nucleus of the opposite side. The trochlear nerve fibers curve forward and enter the dura mater at the angle between the free and attached border of the tentorium cerebelli. The nerve travels in the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus and then enters the orbit via the superior orbital fissure. The nerve travels medially and diagonally across the levator palpebrae superioris and superior rectus muscle to innervate the superior oblique muscle.
V Trigeminal
chewing, face & mouth touch & pain
The trochlear nerve has only a somatic motor component:
Somatic motor
(general somatic efferent) Somatic motor innervates the superior oblique muscle of the contralateral orbit.
The superior oblique muscle is one of the six extraocular muscles responsible for the precise movement of the eye for visual tracking or fixation on an object.
rule for ie?
I before E except after C or when sounded like A in neighbor and weigh
mneomic for ei
n-ei-ther
l-ei-surely
for-ei-gn
sh-ei-k
s-ei-zed
th-ei-r
w-ei-rd
h-ei-ght
rule for able/ible
use "IBLE" if the root is not a complete word
CRED IBLE
-or-
ends in ns, ss, has a soft C or G ending
ENFORCE-IBLE, Leg-ible, DEFENS-IBLE, Admiss-ible
-otherwise use ABLE-
rule for -ify
liquefy, putrefy, rarefy, stupefy
all other words are -ify
rest-ify
rule for -eed or -cede or -sede
only 3 end in -ceed
exceed, proceed, suceed
only 1 ends in -sede
supersede
ALL OTHERS -cede
rule for IN
in = not
if word begins with L chance to il ex illegal
if word begins with N or P, change to im, ex impossible or immortal or immature
silent E rule
if the suffix is a vowel, drop the E
EXCEPTION
CE or GE & suffix begins with A
noticeable and vengeance
rule for 1 syllable word
if it ends in a vowel and a consonant and is one syllable, double the consonant
run-ning run-ner
rule for ends in Y
Y = I
beauty = beautiful
crazy = craziness
identify = identification
rule for plural and Y ending
vowel plus Y = add a S, boy = boys
consonant plus Y = y to i, berry = berries
plural with O ending
consonant plus O = add es, potato = potatoes
EXCEPTION with music
piano = pianos
solo = solos
soprano = sopranos
plural for crisis is?
crises
Seven rules of capitalization
1. 1st word in sentence
2. specific person, place, or organization
3. Day, Month, Holiday
4. Nationality or region (Korean or Mideast or Northwest Territory)
5. rank or title when joined with a name
6. The first word and other important words in titles of works and art
7. Historical Eras or Events
Use the front end method to estimate the difference of 642-196=
500
Use the front in methold to estimate 67*5=
300
quick addtion tips
look for pairs of 10 to speed up addition
add left to right instead of right to left
Quick tip for percents, bike is 8k, buy today get 1600 off. what percent off?
do it in 10s
16/ 8 = 2 = 20%
The "stop" codons which signal the termination of translation are ________ . ________ , and ________ .
UAA, UAG, UGA
UGA
serves as a "stop" codon for translation
A chromosome is a discreet cellular structure composed of an orderly packaged, elongate
DNA molecule. Most bacteria have a single, circular chromosome; but exceptions do exist with linear or multiple chromosomes. Eukaryotic chromosomes are located in the nucleus, vary in number from a few to hundreds; can occur in pairs (diploid) or singles (haploid); and they appear elongate.
The genetic code is contained within, or is represented by, the specific sequence of
nucleotides which make up the DNA molecule of a particular individual organism. The DNA molecule is a gigantic molecule composed of two strands held into a helical formation by hydrogen bonds between corresponding nucleotides. Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA).
The constancy of base pairing guarantees that
the code will be retained in cell growth and division. When separated, each strand can serve as a template for the replication of a new molecule. Since the sequence of each strand dictates the sequence of its partner, the code can be accurately duplicated.
The sequence of bases along the length of the DNA strand constitutes the
genetic code. The code contained in each gene is the specific sequence of nucleotides in that particular segment.
The genome is the collection of
all of the genetic material. The specifically ordered sequence of nucleotides is responsible for the wide variation among individuals and the unique qualities of each organism. The potential variation in DNA nucleotide sequences is virtually endless, and accounts for the extreme differences among different organisms and among specific individuals of the same species
The process of duplicating the DNA molecule is called
DNA replication. This process as it occurs in bacteria (prokaryotes) is a reasonable representation of the process, although there are some differences in the process for eukaryotes and some viruses.
Early in the bacterial cell division process, duplication of the chromosome is initiated. This DNA replication must be completed during a single generation time which may be as short as
20 minutes (for Escherichia coli).
A simplified version of the DNA replication process includes
uncoiling of the parent DNA molecule; unzipping the hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs and separating the two strands exposing the nucleotide sequence of each strand to serve as templates; and synthesizing new strands by attaching complementary nucleotides to each single-stranded template.
The DNA molecule provided to each daughter cell will be identical to the parent DNA, but neither daughter cell receives an entirely new DNA molecule. Each daughter cell will receive a DNA molecule composed of
one of the original parent DNA strands (the template) and one newly synthesized strand. The preservation of the parent molecule in this manner is called semi-conservative replication.
The circular bacterial chromosome has a single origin of replication which is the location along the chromosome where replication begins. Prior to actual replication, enzymes called
helicases bind to the DNA at the origin. They cause untwisting of the helical structure and break the hydrogen bonds holding the two strands together. This action results in two strands, each of which will be used as a template for synthesis of a new strand.
Replication begins with synthesis of an
RNA primer which enters the process at the initiation site. This short strand of RNA serves as a starting point for adding nucleotides.
Opening of the circular chromosome creates a
gap between the strands and two replication forks, each containing its own set of replication enzymes. DNA polymerase III is a huge enzyme molecule that encircles each replication fork and adds nucleotides in accordance with the template pattern (A-T and C-G). The replication forks continually open up and expose the templates for replication.
DNA polymerase III is oriented for synthesis only in one direction (5' to 3'). Nucleotides can only be added to the 3' end (3' carbon of the pentose sugar molecule with O- exposed for binding) of the newly synthesized strand. Since the strands are oriented in an antiparallel arrangement, one strand can be synthesized as a continuous, complete strand. This strand is called the
leading strand. The other strand with the opposite orientation is called the lagging stand. The lagging strand must be synthesized by adding a few nucleotides at a time in the direction away from the replication fork. As the fork opens, the next segment is synthesized backward toward the previous segment. These short fragments that are required to synthesize the lagging strand are called Okazaki fragments. The Okazaki fragments are joined to the growing end of the lagging strand by another enzyme called DNA ligase.
The enzyme DNA polymerase I causes
removal of the RNA primers used to initiate replication and replaces them with DNA.
When the replication forks come full circle and meet, ligase enzymes move along the lagging strand linking the
Okazaki fragments to complete synthesis and separation of the two circular daughter DNA molecules.
Occasionally errors occur during the replication process when an incorrect base is added to the growing chain. This type mistake occurs once in about 108 to 109 bases. DNA polymerase III can also perform a "proofreading" function" in which it
detects incorrect, unmatching pairs and excises and replaces them with the correct base. DNA polymerase I is also involved in proofreading and repair of damaged DNA. If not corrected, these type errors are called mutations. Mutations are permanent, inheritable changes in the genetic information of a cell. Mutations can lead to serious cell dysfunction or cell death.
Genes fall into three categories:
structural genes that code for proteins, genes that code for RNA, and regulatory genes that control gene expression. The sum of the distinctive genetic material present in an individual is called the genotype. The expression of the genotype in the form of observable traits (structures or functions) is called the phenotype.
Since DNA is a double-stranded molecule and RNA is single-stranded, only one of the DNA strands is actually involved in the transcription process. The DNA strand that serves as the template for the synthesis of a mRNA molecule is called
the template strand. The nontranscribed DNA strand is called the coding strand.
Although protein synthesis may occur for many different proteins involving many different genes concurrently, the actual transcription and translation processes are described and function for a single gene sequence (segment of DNA), unlike
DNA replication which involves the entire DNA molecule
Transcription begins with the enzyme RNA polymerase recognizing and binding to a segment of the DNA molecule called the
promoter region. This region is located immediately prior to the beginning of the gene sequence to be transcribed.
Elongation of the growing mRNA molecule proceeds in the
5' to 3' direction. The mRNA molecule is created by sequential addition of nucleotides that are complementary to those of the DNA template strand.
The second stage of protein synthesis is called translation. Translation occurs at the
ribosomes. During this process the mRNA molecule is used as a template to dictate the sequence of amino acids forming a specific protein molecule.
The tRNA molecule is described as
"charged" when it has its specific amino acid attached. The tRNA molecule serves as an intermediary to bring the appropriate amino acid molecule into place for binding, thus forming the growing protein chain.
The transcribed mRNA molecule leaves the DNA transcription site and is transported to
ribosomal staging sites in the cytoplasm. Ribosomal sites are adapted to facilitate the interaction of mRNA and the various tRNA molecules.
The ribosome begins to scan the mRNA molecule by moving in the 5' to 3" direction. The first codon it encounters is called
the "start" codon, which is almost always AUG (rarely, GUG).
Once the mRNA molecule is in place on the ribosome, the process involves sequential entrance of tRNA molecules with their attached amino acid. The pool of cytoplasm around the region contains a complete array of tRNA molecules with the correct amino acid attached. The next tRNA must be one whose anticodon sequence is complementary to the
codon sequence of the mRNA molecule. In this manner, the nucleotide sequence of the mRNA molecule dictates the sequence of amino acids added to the growing protein chain.
The specific sequence for elongation of the protein chain involves entry of a
tRNA molecule with complementary anticodon sequence; release of the attached amino acid from the tRNA molecule; binding of the amino acid to the growing protein chain; and release of the used tRNA molecule. The used tRNA molecule may be "recharged" (bind another amino acid molecule) and enter the translation process again.
Elongation continues in the manner described until a termination or "stop" codon (UAA, UAG, or UGA) is encountered. These codons are sometimes called
nonsense codons, because they do not have a corresponding tRNA. The meaning of these codons is "stop here". When a stop codon is encountered, a special enzyme breaks the bond between the final tRNA molecule and the finished protein chain. The finished protein chain is released from the ribosome.
The master genetic code is represented by the
mRNA codons and the amino acids that correspond to them. Except in very rare cases, this code is universal whether for prokaryotes, eukaryotes, or viruses.
Newly formed proteins often require
modifications before they are functional in their structural or enzymatic roles.
Even before it is released from the ribosome, the protein chain begins to
fold upon itself to achieve its biologically active tertiary configuration.
Other alterations called
post-translational modifications may be required. Some proteins must have the starting amino acid (methionine) removed. Proteins destined to become complex enzymes must have cofactors added. Some protein chains join with other completed proteins to form a quaternary level of structure.
DNA & RNA structure is what?
a pentose (sugar - deoxyrobose DNA, Ribose-RNA), a phosphate group (the backbone), and a nitrogenous base (adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine D, and uracil R)
what are purines?
adenine and guanine have two rings
what are pyrimidines?
thymine and cytosine have one ring
chromosomes are located where?
in the cell's nucleus
streches of DNA are called what?
genes
genes contain coded info that controls what?
heredity of particular traits
the genetic code is made up of what?
sequence of nitrogenous bases of DNA (adenine, thymine, cytosiine, and guanine)
each piece of code is called what?
a codon (composed of three bases)
each codon attaches to what?
a specific amino acid
how many codons are there?
64
how many amino acids are there?
20
a chain of amino acids forms what?
a protien
how do protiens contribute to heridity?
protiens are the workhorse of the cell, each gene matches to a protein. the protiens are responsible for the expression of genetic traits.
mutagen
substance that induces mutation
what does mismatched pair relate to?
in DNA sequencing, if a mismatched pairing occurs it is corrected. certain forms of cancer are due to the mismatched pairs not being repaired
what is excision repair?
defective DNA cut from the strand (defective due to ultraviolet or chemical issues). this cutting sometimes leads to skin diseases
phenotype
physical expression of genetic traits
genotype
the organisms underlying genetic makeup of code
who is the father of genetics?
Gregory Mendel
gene
section of DNA that codes for a protein and determines a trait
trait
specific characteristic that varies from one individual to another
allele
form of a gene
there are two for a specific trait, one from each parent
dominant
trait that will show up in an organism's phenotype if gene is present
recessive
trait that will only appear in the phenotype if organism inherits two of them; covered up by the dominant gene
segregation
separation of alleles during meiosis or gamete formation
gamete
sex cell; sperm or egg
hybrid
offspring of a cross between parents with different traits; heterozygous
true-breeding
inherited two identical alleles for a trait; homozygous or purebred
probability
likelihood an event will occur
phenotype
physical characteristics of an organism
Punnett square
diagram that shows the possible results of a genetic cross; parents' gametes on top and left, offsprings' genotypes inside
genotype
genetic makeup of an organism
homozygous
has two identical alleles for a particular trait; true-breeding or purebred, ex. PP or pp
heterozygous
has two different alleles for a particular trait; hybrid, ex. Pp
independent assortment
principle that genes do not influence each other's inheritance because they are separated independently during meiosis
multiple alleles
three or more alleles exist for a particular trait
incomplete dominance
creates a blended phenotype; one allele is not completely dominant over the other
polygenic trait
trait controlled by two or more genes; shows a wide variety of phenotypes
codominance
both genes contribute to the phenotype of the organism, ex. spotted or striped
nondisjunction
error in meiosis in which homologous chromosomes don't separate; gametes end up with wrong number of chromosomes
sex-linked trait
trait related to a gene that is found on the X or Y chromosomes
speciation
over time, one species becoming two different species
gender linked traits are carried on the ? chromosone?
X
since males only have 1 x chromosone, they are more likely to show it.
karyotope
a picture of all the cell's chromosones
who is the father of genetics?
Gregory Mendel
what is a punnet square?
a graphical way to show all the possible combinations of alleles given the two parents' genotypes
cell cycle
the regular sequence of growth and division that cells undergo; a cell grows, prepares for division, and divides into two new 'daughter cells'
interphase
longest phase of the cell cycle; period before cell division in which the cell grows, makes a copy of its DNA and prepares to divide into two cells attached by centromeres. spindle fibers begin to form
replication
process during interphase in which the cell makes an exact copy of its DNA; takes place in the nucleus during Interphase
mitosis
four stage process in which the cell's nucleus divides into two new nuclei; one copy of DNA is distributed into each of the daughter cells with a goal of forming two identical cells
chromosome
double-rod structures formed by condensed threadlike chromatin in the nucleus
four stages of mitosis
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
cytokinesis
final stage in which the cytoplasm divides and organelles are distributed into each of the two new cells
cytokinesis in plant cells
a cell plate forms and separates the cell into two new identical ones
stages of the cell cycle
interphase, mitosis, cytokinesis
importance of cell division
each daughter cell must have a complete set of DNA to survive
why cells divide
growth, development, healing
cytokinesis in animal cells
the cell membrane pinches together and one cell becomes two.
prophase
1st step in actual division. chromatin condenses to form chromosomes, cells reabsorb nuclear membrane
takes about an hour
metaphase
chromosomes line up across the center of the cell
takes about 15 minutes
anaphase
the centromeres split and the chromatids separate, spindle fibers attach to centromeres and seperate the chromosomes pairs apart. Chromosomes end up on opposite sides. 10 minutes
telophase
a new muclear envelope forms around each region of chromosomes, cytoplasm divides, furrowing occurs in animal cells and cell plate formation occurs in plant cells.
phrase to memorize steps of mitosis
IP MAT
what is binary fission?
axual reproduction of organism without a nucleus, very similar to mitosis
Interphase I
Cells undergo a round of DNA replication, forming duplicate chromosomes
Prophase I
Each chromosome pairs with its corresponding homologous chromosome to form a tetrad.
Metaphase I
Spindle fibers attach to the chromosomes
Anaphase I
The fibers pull the homologous chromosomes toward opposite ends of the cell
Telophase I
2 cells form, each cell is a haploid but each chromosome is in replicated form
Prophase II
Cells have one chromosome from each homologous pair
Metaphase II
spindle fibers form in opposite direction in new cells, centromeres attach to spindle fibers
Anaphase II
The sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite ends of the cell.
Telophase II
4 cell results....each cell is haploid with unreplicated chromosomes
meiosis
forms 4 sex cells, each cell having half as many chromosomes as the original. Two phases, Meiosis I and Meiosis II
meiosis I
each chromosome copies itself, crossing over of DNA may occur (switch DNA)
meiosis II
the cells from meiosis split, not replication occurs, each cell will become either a sperm or an egg 46 chromosomes become 23
asexual reproduction
only one parent organism
examples of asexual reproduction
*one celled organisms like bacteria and blue green mold reproduce with mitosis
*fungi spore
*vegegative propagation (cut off plant and plant it, regrows)
*budding by simple animals, grow a bud and it falls off and produces a new animal
*regineration, cut a worm in half and get two worms
Diffusion
the random movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration of those molecules to an area of lower concentration
Osmosis
a special case of diffusion where water diffuses through a selectively permeable membrane from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential
Permeable Membrane
a membrane that allows for diffusion of certain solutes and water
Active Transport
uses energy from ATP to move substances throguh the cell membrane against a concentration gradient, from regions of low to higher concentrations
Isotonic
when two solutions have the same concentrations of solutes
Hypertonic
a solution with more solute
Hypotonic
solution with less solute
Water Potential
measure of free energy of water in a solution

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