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anatomy exam

Terms in this set (295)

what structure lubricates the articular cartilage in a synovial joint?
synovial fluid
in the feedback loop the stimulus accelerates the original process
positive
which part of the inner ear helps you keep your balance?
semicircular canals
which bone helps form the lateral walls of the nasal cavity?
inferior nasal conchae
which nerve of the brachial plexus is responsible for innervating the palmaris longus muscle?
median nerve
Avascular
without/ little blood supply
vascular
blood vessels/ blood supply
what is not a function of the knee?
Allow mobility of the entire lower extremity in space
Nails are composed of which epidermal layer?
stratum corneum
during swallowing what structure closes off
uvula
Which bone does not articulate with the lateral cuneiform?
cuboid
this division of the sciatic nerve innervates muscles of the posterior leg
tibial
apocrine sweat glands secrete a thick, cloudy, protein & lipid heavy sweat
T/F
True
which of the following hormones is NOT secreted from the anterior pituitary?
Oxytocin
in an EKG, the P wave denotes
atrial depolarization
the cylindrical space within the diaphysis of a long bone is called
medullary cavity
what gland/structure produces epinephrine and norepinephrine?
adrenal medulla
which skin layer is superficial and made up of 5 sub-layers
epidermis
the articular capsule is present in
synovial joints
the axillary artery drains into
brachial artery
What spinal ligament connects the tips of the spinous process together?
supraspinous
Which layer layer of integument is vascular?
dermis
which is not part of the uterus?
fimbriae
What is the correct order?
a. duodenum, ilium, jejunum
b. ileum. jejunum, duodenum
c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
c. duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Which meningeal layer or space is most superficial?
epidural space
Which nerve of the sacral plexus might be damaged if you are unable to flex the knee?
sciatic nerve
which spinal nerve levels are from the sacral plexus?
L4-S4
Which spinal nerve levels form the lumbar plexus?
L1-L4
The spinal cord gives rise to how many pairs of spinal nerves?
31
The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum are separated?
longitudinal fissure
The _____ is the deepest meningeal layer when providing protection for the brain and spinal cord
pia matter
What is not part of the PNS?
Spinal cord
The ______ is the tapering inferior end of the spinal cord "official end"?
conus medullaris
Which of the 3 meningeal layers is the most superficial?
Dura mater
The 2 divisions of the sciatic nerve are known as the
tibial and common fibular divisions
Which is not characteristic of neurons?
high mitotic rate
what term describes a specific segment or patch of skin that is supplied by a single spinal nerve?
dermatome
the superior vena cava is formed by the convergence of what 2 vessels?
right brachiocephalic vein
which of the following regions would the inferior vena cava drain?
abdomen & lower limb
The internal jugular, external jugular, and vertebral vein empty into the ________ vein?
subclavian
Which is not a function of the blood?
vasoconstriction and vasodilation to regulate blood pressure
Which valve has 3 flaps and protects against backflow between the right atrium and ventricle?
tricuspid
The veins that drain deoxygenated blood from the upper extremity follow which path?
radial/ulnar veins > brachial veins > axillary vein > subclavian vein
The pericardial cavity is located between the ________
parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium
The _______ carotid artery supplies blood to the vessels of the face, while the _______ carotid artery supplies blood to the inner skull
external; internal
What part of the cardiac conduction system is located in the posterior wall of the right atrium, adjacent to the entrance of the superior vena cava, and is responsible for generating the action potential that lends to the heart's contraction?
SA node
Which structure brings lymph into and out of a lymphatic ducts?
lymphatic vessels
The ossicle bone that moves at oval window, sound waves are converted to pressure waves?
stapes
Which bone does not articulate with a scaphoid?
triquetrum
in which cavity is the heart located?
pericardium
A football player can hear his coach's voice above the noise of the crowd and can sense an opponent about to run him down. These abilities are due to the action of what part of the brain filtering the sensory information?
thalamus
What does NOT accurately describe anatomical position?
palms turned in, facing medial towards the thighs
Which of the following best illustrates the relationship between the wrist and fingers?
fingers are distal to the wrist
Which branch of anatomy deals with anatomical structures that can be seen with the unaided eye?
gross anatomy
which statement best distinguishes the difference between a transverse and sagittal plane through the body?
a sagittal plane separates the body into uneven right and left halves
the _______ is the cell's control center
nucleus
the directional term that means "closest to the point of attachment to the trunk" is
proximal
What is the best definitionth of anatomy?
the structures of the body?
the directional term that means "closer to the feet"
inferior
anatomical areas in the body are described in reference to _______
the standardized anatomical position
the anatomical term for the wrist region is
carpal
the abdominopelvic cavity is commonly divided into ______ smaller imaginary regions
9
the piercing in the umbilical region would be found on the
navel
The directional term that means " on the outside" is
external
An Individual suffering a blow to the head and now is having difficulty smelling things. What cranial nerve might be damaged?
olfactory nerve
your favorite niece just gave you a kiss. Which muscle did she use?
orbicularis oris
Which vertebral ligament limits hyperextension?
anterior longitudinal
which muscle of mastication is responsible for the side-to-side motion of the mandible?
pterygoids
all extrinsic muscles of the eye originate on ______ and insert on _____
a common tendinous ring; sclera
what is the name of the suture that articulates the frontal bones to the parietal bones?
2nd rib
the arena between the 4th and 5th ribs is termed?
4th intercostal space
each rib is named after the lumbar vertebrae it attaches to posteriorly?
T/F
false
the head of the ribs articulates with the vertebral body?
T/F
true
the linea alba runs from the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
T/F
flase
what muscle helps elevate the ribs during inspiration, moving them outward and upward?
external intercostals
which classification comprises bones used primarily for movement rather than protection?
long bones
angular motion includes all of the following except:
supination
which functional class of joints are most mobile?
diarthotic joint
the trapezius muscles is named based on what?
muscle shape and size
which statement is true regarding lumbar vertebrae?
have the largest vertebral bodies
there are 7 cervical vertebrae and 8 pairs of cervical spinal nerves?
t/f
true
The _______ ligament connects posterior spinous process to posterior spinous process of adjacent vertebrae
supraspinous
the ______ ligament connects the skull to the cervical spinous process
nuchal
the type of muscle fibers that are striated, form Y-shaped branches, and have junctions called intercalated discs are
cardiac
a muscle whose name has "orbicularis" in it is _____ in appearance
circular
pennate muscle resembles a
feather
an isotonic muscular contraction is one where force is generated but no movement occurs
T/F
false
the shaft of a long bone is called the
diaphysis
which is the most abundant type of cartilage in the body?
hyaline cartilage
bone cells called ______ break down bone by secreting hydrochloric acid and enzymes that dissolve the bony matrix
osteoclasts
when contracting unilaterally, the sternocleidomastoid muscle performs what action at neck?
rotation and lateral flexion
the temporomandibular joint is classified as a
modified hinge
the _______ helps equalize pressure in the ear for hearing and balance
eustachian tubes
____ are fibrous membrane regions located between the cranial bones in infants. These membranous regions allow the brain to grow and the skull bones to move during birth
fontanelles
the immovable joints that form boundaries between the skull bones are called
sutures
the semicircular canals are responsible for detecting
rotational motion
the olecranon fossa is located on which anatomical side of the humerus?
posterior, anterior, lateral
how many phalanges are found in the pollex digits?
2
which bone is not in the proximal row of carpals?
trapezoid
The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axis skeleton is where the ___ articulates with the ____
clavicle; sternum
the muscle in the anterior compartment of the forearm are primarily elbow extensors
T/F
false
which of the following motion would be caused by contraction of the pectoralis major
adduction, flexion. medial (internal) rotation
which ligament is responsible for holding the head of the radius in place?
annular ligament
in general, muscles of the anterior forearm originate on the ____ epicondyle and produce ____ of the wrist, hand, and fingers
medial; flexion
the metacarpals of the hand are named using Roman numerals 1-5, from medial to lateral
T/F
false
which ligament is not associated with the glenohumeral joint?
transvers carpal ligament
which muscle is capable of flexing both the elbow and shoulder joint?
biceps brachii
which bones comprise each pectoral girdle?
scapula and clavicle
The ____ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet?
inferior angle
The large, saw-toothed shaped muscle is positioned between the thoracic cage and scapula and is responsible for protecting the scapula?
serratus anterior
the ______ is a thin, broad, collagenous sheet that holds the radius and ulna together?
interosseous membrane
the muscle in the posterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by what nerve?
radial nerve
which is not true of the carpal tunnel?
lots of space
Which is not a feature of the ulna?
ulnar notch
the pectoralis major extends the arm while the latissimus dorsi flexes it
T/F
false
which of the following is not true regarding the clavicle?
Articulates laterally with the sternum
which structure serves as the insertion of the splenius capitis muscle?
cervical spinous processes
which of the following muscles is the most active when performing a push-up?
pectoralis major
the scapular spine is located on which anatomical side of the scapula?
posterior
Where does the short head of the biceps brachii originate?
coracoid process
which muscle does not act on the scapula?
latissimus dorsi
in anatomical position, the radius lies ___ to the ulna
lateral
which of these bony features is located on the diaphysis of the humerus?
deltoid tuberosity
the rotator cuff muscles are the primary stabilizers of the GH joint?
T/F
true
which of the following is an action performed by triceps brachii long head?
flexion of the shoulder
The scapulothoracic articulations has many ligamentous structures that act to limit joint mobility and counter-balance the glenohumeral joint?
T/F
false
Which is not a carpal bone?
capitulum
four muscles are collectively referred to as the rotator cuff, what muscle is not part of the rotator cuff muscles.
teres major
in general, muscles of the pectoral girdle originate on
1. Humerus and insert on the clavicle and scapula
2.Axial skeleton and insert on the humerus
3.Humerus and insert on the axial skeleton
4.Axial skeleton and insert of the clavicle and scapula
Which humeral epicondyle is more prominent?
medial
All of the muscles listed, except 1, have their origin on the lateral epicondyle of humerus
Pronator teres
what nerve innervates the palmaris longus muscle?
median nerve
which muscle does on the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
flexor pollicis longus
which ligament is responsible for resisting valgus force at the elbow joint?
ulnar collateral ligament
what is not true regarding the glenohumeral joint?
it is vey stable
the bony projection that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist?
styloid process
the radiocarpal joint is located between the distal end of the radius and what carpal bones?
scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum
what is the name of the ligament on the lateral side of the MCP joint
radial collateral ligament (RCL)
Which joints are responsible for flexion and extension at the elbow?
humeroulnar joint
humeroradial joint
which is not a function of the hand?
Provide control and stability for forceful upper extremity motions
the muscles, depressed, retract, or rotates the scapula
trapezius
With 3 seconds left on the clock, Mia breaks free and scores a winning goal, select the muscle with the primary action in extending the knee for kicking a ball?
quadriceps femoris
what is the origin of the gluteus maximus?
iliac crest
what action of the tibialis anterior muscle?
inversion
what bony landmark do all 4 muscles of the quadriceps insert?
tibial tuberosity
the ______ is the longest, strongest and heaviest bone in the body
femur
which tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V
cuboid
which ligament prevents posterior displacement of the tibia on the femur?
posterior cruciate
contraction of the ____ muscle would cause external rotation of the hip
piriformis
What bony landmark supports the weight of the body when seated?
ischial tuberosity
Which ligament is responsible for preventing valgus forces at the tibiofemoral joint?
medial collateral ligament
what joints is not found in the foot?
metacarpophalangeal
Which of the following actions would be performed by tibialis posterior?
plantar flexion
which bone articulates with all 3 cuneiform bones?
navicular
This muscle is one of the largest in the body and is responsible for extending and externally rotation the thigh/hip
gluteus maximus
at what location do all 3 bones of the os coxae fuse
acetabulum
_______ muscles of the foot both originate and insert on the foot
intrinsic
Which bone is not located in the proximal row of tarsals?
cuboid
what is the origin of the popliteus?
lateral femoral condyle
the deltoid talofibular and the calcaneofibular ligament help to protect what joint?
ankle
most muscle that move the thigh originate on the _______
os coxae
Which muscle is responsible for extending toes II-V?
extensor digitorum longus
The syndesmotic joint, located between the tibia and fibula, is functionally classified as?
amphiarthrosis
which bone articulates with the os coxae at the acetabulum?
femur
what structure subdivides the pelvis into the true and false pelvis?
pelvic brim
what muscle is not involved in flexing the knee?
rectus femoris
On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the
inferior pubic ramus
When you rest your hands on your hips, just below the waist, you are resting them on what bony structure?
iliac crest
which would be a point of origin for gastrocnemius?
medial femoral condyle
Which bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foots?
cuboid
The division of the sciatic nerve innervates muscles of the posterior leg?
tibial
Which of these muscles is located in the lateral compartment of the lower leg?
fibularis brevis
which is not correct regarding the pelvis?
In anatomical position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium
The iliac crest extends from the anterior superior iliac spine to the
posterior superior iliac spine
at what articulation do the motions inversion and eversion occur?
subtalar
This Y-shaped ligament of the hip provides strong reinforcement for the anterior region of the articular capsule and limits hyperextension of the hip?
iliofemoral ligament
Which ligament provides support to the medial side of the ankle, helping to prevent excessive eversion of the foot?
deltoid
Which nerve of the brachial plexus is responsible for innervating the palmaris longus muscle?
median nerve
what is not a function of the foot and ankle?
complete powerful grasp task
The talus is the only tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia
T/F
true
which muscle is not part of the quadriceps muscle group?
biceps femoris
Which of the following ligaments would prevent excessive inversion at the ankle?
Anterior talofibular ligament
Which of the following muscles is not involved in plantar flexion of the ankle?
fibularis tertius
coronal plane
An imaginary plane where the body is cut into anterior and posterior parts.
sagittal plane
divides body into left and right
transverse plane
line that divides the body into superior and inferior halves
order the landmark on the sternum from superior to inferior
jugular notch
manubrium
sternal angle
body
xiphoid process
what muscles attach to the tibia via pes anserine
sartorius
gracilis
semitendinosus
the distal row of carpal from lateral to medial
trapezium
trapezoid
capitate
hamate
axillary artery
armpit
brachial artery
the major artery of the upper arm
radial artery
lateral forearm
ulnar artery
artery that supplies blood to the muscle of the little finger side of the arm and palm of the hand
popliteal artery
back of knee
doralis pedis artery
top of foot
superior vena cava
above the diaphragm
inferior vena cava
carries blood from lower regions of the body to right atrium
coronart arteries
supplies myocardium of heart
coronary sinus
empties into right atrium
CN I
Olfactory
CN II
Optic
CN III
Oculomotor
CN IV
Trochlear
CN V
Trigeminal
CN VI
Abducens
CN VII
Facial
CN VIII
Vestibulocochlear
CN IX
Glossopharyngeal
CN X
Vagus
CN XI
accessory
CN XII
Hypoglossal
frontal lobe
The lobe at the front of the brain associated with movement, speech, and impulsive behavior.
parital lobe
touch
temporal lobe
hearing
occipital lobe
visual processing
insula
interpretation of taste, memory
bundles of axons
vertebral canal that project inferior to the tapered inferior end of the spinal cord proper.
Central core of spinal cord
gray matter; contains dendrites, cell bodies, and glial cells
outer portion of spinal cord
white matter; contains myelinated axons that help efficient communication
kyphosis
excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back.
lordosis
swayback, increased lumbar curvature
cervical
7 vertebrae
Thoracic
12 vertebrae
Lumbar
5 vertebrae
temporal
cranial
nasal
facial
maxilla
facial
lacrimal
facial
frontal
cranial
sphenoid
cranial
vomer
facial
occipital
cranial
ethmoid
cranial
zygomatic
facial
tendon
cord of dense regular connective tissue that connects muscle to bone
origin
attachment of a muscle that remains relatively fixed during muscular contraction
insertion
the more movable of the two points of attachment to a muscle
agonist
a muscle that contracts to produce a particular movement, called the prime mover
Antagonist
a muscle that opposes or resists the action of another
synergist
muscle that aids a prime mover in a movement and helps prevent rotation
base of thumb
saddle
hip joint
ball and socket
Trochlea
a smooth, grooved articular process shaped like a pulley; trochlear notch
capitulum
radial head
glenohumeral movers
coracobrachialis, pectoralis major, deltoid, latissimus dorsi & teres major
scapular movers
supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, levator scapulae, rhomboids, trapezius, serratus anterior and pectoralis minor
glenohumeral joint
ball and socket joint
Humerolunar Joint
Uniaxial Hinge Joint
humeroradial joint
hinge joint
proximal and distal radioulnar joint
pivot
radiocarpal joint
condylar joint
interphalangeal joints
hinge
metacarpophalangeal joint
condylar joint
acromioclavicular joint
plane/gliding
Subscapularis-
subscapular fossa
Infraspinatus
rotates arm laterally; infraspinous fossa
deltoid
deltoid tuberosity
bicep brachii
radial tuberosity
triceps brachii
olecranon process of ulna
extensor pollicis longus
I: Base of distal phalanx of thumb
flexor digitorum superficialis
middle phalanges of digits 2-5
Brachioradialis
styloid process of radius
tibialis anterior
dorsiflexes and inverts foot
tibialis posterior
Plantar flexion and inversion of foot
fibularis longus
Plantar flexion and eversion of foot
fibularis tertius
dorsiflexes and everts foot
Pectineus
hip adducts and flexes thigh
Piriformis
Abducts and laterally rotates thigh at the hip
psoas major
flexes hip
gluteus medius
hip abduction and internal rotation
what are 3 the arteries that branch directly off the aortic arch?
left subclavian
left common carotid
brachiocephalic trunk
Where are the renal pyramids located within the kidney?
renal medulla
nails are hard derivatives formed from the stratum _____ of the epidermis
corneum
Blood capillaries that supply the epidermis are located in the
dermal papillae
what type of hair forms the beard on the face of a male?
terminal
what is the result of oxygen deficiency in the blood?
cyanosis
The police science of fingerprinting takes advantage of the unique pattern of ___ ridges found on the human finger and toes
friction
thymic hormones
may stimulate T-lymphocyte differentiation and maturation
when is the thymus gland most active?
From childhood to puberty
Because lymphatic vessels have three tunic (intima, media, and externa) and valves, the structurally resemble?
veins
From deep to superficial, the protective layers on the kidney are?
fibrous capsule, perinephric fat, renal fascia, perinephric fat
Which is not correct regarding the kidneys?
The indented medial surface of the kidney is called the renal papilla.
Which is not drained by the right lymphatic duct?
Right side of abdomen
The thoracic duct and the right lymphatic duct empty lymph into the
subclavian veins
Lymph is transported through a network of increasingly larger lymphatic passageways. What is the correct order
Capillaries - vessels - trunks - ducts
Which is not a function of the urinary system?
Regulation of lymphocyte production
The stratum _____ is only found in thick skin, such as the skin covering the palms and coles
lucidum
a ________ is a bruise that is visible through the skin
hematoma
A ___, also called a mole, is a harmless, localized overgrowth of melanin-forming cell
nevus
sperm are produced in the
seminiferous tubules
Which are correct concerning thick skin?
1. More limited in its distribution than thin
2. Thickness ranges from 400 to 600 micrometer
3. Has sweat glands
Which structure suspends most of the large intestines from the posterior abdominal wall?
mesocolon
This butterfly-shaped gland secretes hormones that increase cell metabolism in the body?
thyroid
THe right lymphatic duct drains lymph from what major regions of the body?
Right side of the head, neck torso and right arm
which is not apart of ethmoid bone?
inferior nasal conchae
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