How can we help?

You can also find more resources in our Help Center.

435 terms

AP 2 Final Exam Cumulative

Which of the following is NOT true?
e. Leucopenia is an increase in white blood cell count that occurs during infection.
A person with type B positive blood receives a transfusion of type AB positive blood. What will happen?
c. The recipient's antibodies will react with the donor's red blood cells.
Which of the following is the correct route of blood through the heart from the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation and back to the systemic circulation?
e. right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary semilunar valve, left atrium, mitral valve, left ventricle, aortic semilunar valve.
The external boundary between the atria and ventricles is the
c. coronary sulcus
The chamber of the heart with the thickest myocardium is the
b. left ventricle
Major branch from the ascending aorta; passes inferior to the left auricle
d. left coronary artery
Lies in the coronary sulcus; drains the right ventricle and right atrium
a. small cardiac vein
Which of the following represents the correct pathway for conduction of an action potential through the heart?
e. SA node, AV node, AV bundle, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
Which of the following is NOT true?
d. The vagus nerves release norepinephrine, causing the heart rate to increase
The buffy coat of centrifuged blood consists mainly of
d. white blood cells and platelets
The formed elements that are fragments of larger cells called megakaryocytes are
d. thrombocytes
Type AB blood contains
c. neither antibody A nor B
The first heart sound (the lubb of lubb-dupp) is caused by the
closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
The tunica interna of a blood vessel is made of
d. endothelium
Blood flow increases if
a. vasodilation increases
Hormones that cause vasoconstriction are
e. all answers are correct (angiotensin II, angiotensin, epinephrine, vasopressin)
The remnant of the foramen ovale, an opening in the interatrial septum of the fetal heart.
e. fossa ovalis
The percentage of total blood volume occupied by RBCs is called the
b. hematocrit
This regulates the differentiation and proliferation of red blood cells
a. erythropoietin
The function of hemoglobin is to
d. carry oxygen
When red blood cells wear out, the iron is saved and the remainder of the hemoglobin is
b. excreted as bile pigments
Too few white blood cells is called
b. leucopenia
Platelets initially stick to the wall of a damaged blood vessel because
a. exposed collagen fibers make a rough surface to which the platelets are attracted
A clot that moves is called
b. embolism
Type O is considered the theoretical universal
b. donor because there are no A or B antigens on RBCs
The purpose for giving RhoGAM to women who have just deliver a child or who have had a miscarriage or abortion is to
e. block recognition of any fetal red blood cells by the mother's immune system
A deficiency of Vitamin B12 results in
b. pernicious anemia
A hereditary anemia that is more prevalent among African Americans
e. sickle cell anemia
The layer of the heart wall responsible for its pumping action is the
d. myocardium
Blood flows into the coronary arteries from the
e. ascending aorta or arch
The atrioventricular valves open when
c. ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure
The left ventricle wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to
c. pump blood with greater pressure since the left side feeds the entire body except the lungs
The function of intercalated discs is to
d. provide a mechanism for rapid conduction of action potentials among myofibers
The initiation of the heart beat is the responsibility of the
d. CA node
The presence of acetylcholine in the heart
b. decreases the rate of hearbeat
The heart rate is monitored and regulated in the
d. medulla
Another name for heart attack
c. myocardial infarction
Causes an increase in heart rate
a. epinephrine
The tunica intima
c. is the inner, endothelial layer of arteries and veins
The connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta in fetal circulation is called
b. ductus arteriosus
The function of Baroreceptors is to monitor changes in
d. blood pressure
The basilar artery is formed by the union of the
b. vertebral arteries
The first major branch of the aorta below the diaphragm is the
c. celiac artery
Blood in the vertebral veins flows next into the
b. brachiocephalic veins
Blood in the great saphenous vein flows into the
a. femoral vein
Vessels that are part of the cerebral arterial circle (Circle of Willis) include the
c. internal carotid arteries
Blood flows directly into the superior vena cava from the
b. brachiocephalic veins
A person with type A Rh- blood can receive a transfusion with blood of which of the following types?
e. both c and d (A-, O-)
Which of the following is NOT a formed element?
d. Plasma
Cross-sectional area is greatest in
c. capillary
The percentage of each type of white blood cell
d. differential white blood cell count
Measures number of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets per ul of blood
c. complete blood count
Measures the rate of erythropoiesis
a. reticulocyte count
A softball player is found to have a resting cardiac output of 5.0 liters per minute and a heart rate of 50 beats per minute. What is her stroke volume?
b. 100ml
The superficial dense, irregular connective tissue covering of the heart
c. fibrous pericardium
Outer layer of the serous pericardium; is fused to the fibrous pericardium
d. parietal pericardium
Inner visceral layer of the pericardium; adheres tightly to the surface of the heart
a. epicardium
Endothelial cells lining the interior of the heart; are continuous with the endothelium of the blood vessels
e. endocardium
The lowest blood pressure in arteries during ventricular relaxation
e. diastolic blood pressure
a slow resting heart rate or pulse rate
c. bradycardia
An inadequate cardiac output that results in a failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver enough oxygen and nutrients to meet the metabolic needs of the body cells
a. shock
Returns oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetal liver
e. umbilical veins
An opening in the septum between the right and left atria
e. foramen ovale
Becomes the ligamentum venosum after birth
a. ductus venosus
passes blood from the fetus to the placenta
d. umbilical arteries
Bypasses the nonfunctioning lungs; becomes the ligamentum arterosum at birth
b. ductus arteriosus
Transport oxygenated blood into the inferior vena cava
a. ductus venosus
becomes the fossa ovalis after birth
c. foramen ovale
Pressure generated by the pumping of the heart; pushes fluids out of capillaries
b. blood hydrostatic pressure
Pressure created by proteins present in the interstitial fluids; pulls fluid out of capillaries
c. interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
Determines whether blood volume and interstitial fluid remain steady or change
a. net filtration pressure
Force due to presence of plasma proteins; pulls fluid into capillaries from interstitial spaces
e. blood colloid osmotic pressure
Pressure due to fluid in interstitial spaces; pushes fluid back into capillaries
d. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
What is the first step in blood hemostasis?
b. Vasospasm
What is the process by with RED blood cells are formed?
a. Erythropoiesis
What does stimulating the sympathetic nerve fibers going to the muscular artery do to the diameter of the artery
b. decreases it
What does stimulating the nerve fiber do to blood pressure?
a. increases it
Indicates ventricular repolarization
d. T wave
represents atrial depolarization
b. P wave
represents the onset of ventricular depolarization
c. QRS complex
hides atrial repolarization
c. QRS complex
White blood cell showing a kidney-shaped nucleus; capable of phagocytosis
c. monocytes
Occur as B cells, T cells, and natural killer cells
e. lymphocytes
Combat the effects of histamine and other mediators of inflammation in allergic reactions; also phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes
a. eosinophils
Respond to tissue destruction by bacteria; release lysozyme, strong oxidants, and defensins
d. neutrophils
Involved in inflammatory and allergic reactions; are involved in hypersensitivity reactions
b. basophils
period of time when cardiac muscle fibers are contracting and exerting force but not shortening
d. isovlumetric contraction
period of time when semilunar valves are open and blood flows out of the ventricles
c. ventricular ejection
amount of blood ejected per beat by each ventricle
b. stroke volume
difference between a person's maximum cardiac output and cardiac output at rest
a. cardiac reserve
Supplies blood to the kidney
d. renal artery
Supply blood to the lower limbs
e. common iliac arteries
Supply blood to the brain
b. carotid arteries
Supplies blood to the large intestine
a. inferior mesenteric
Supplies blood to the stomach, liver and pancreas
c. celiac trunk
drains blood from the small intestine, portions of the large intestine, stomach and pancreas
b. superior mesenteric vein
drain oxygenated blood from the lungs and carry it to the left atrium
d. pulmonary veins
drain blood from the head
e. jugular veins
drain most of the thorax and abdominal wall; can serve as a bypass for the inferior vena cava.
e. azygous veins
a part of the venous circulation of the leg; a vessel used in heart bypass surgery
a. saphenous vein
A person's T cells must be able to recognize the person's own MHC molecules, a process known as self-recognition, and lack reactivity to peptide fragments, a condition known as self-tolerance
a. This statement is TRUE
Which of the following are NOT functions of the lymphatic system?
c. Transporting nucleic acids
Which of the following are NOT mechanical factors that help fight pathogens and disease?
d. Interferons
Which of the following are functions of antibodies?
e. All of the above (neutralization of antigens, immobilization of bacteria, agglutination and precipitation of antigens, activation of complement)
Antibody-mediated immunity works mainly against
c. extracellular pathogens
The thoracic duct empties lymph into the
c. left subclavian vein
In cell-mediated immunity, the antigenic cell/molecule is destroyed by
a. Killer T cells
The most common structural class of antibody molecule is
c. IgG
Giving someone an intravenous injection of immunoglobulin would
a. Protect him from a specific disease by giving him passively acquired immunity
Receiving an immunization with an altered form of the tetanus toxin results in
c. Artificially acquired active immunity
The composition of lymph is most similar to
d. interstitial fluid
Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are found in
c. small intestine
People who are confined to bed for long periods of time often develop edema because
c. without skeletal muscle contraction to force lymph through lymphatic vessels, fluid tends to accumulate in interstitial spaces
Which of the following correctly lists the structures according to the sequence of fluid flow?
d. Blood capillaries, interstitial spaces, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic vessels, lymphatic ducts, subclavian veins
Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
a. Site of stem cell maturation into T and B cells
Which of the following is NOT considered a function of the respiratory system?
b. Production of red blood cells
Air pressure in the middle ear is equalized via the auditory tube, which opens into the
c. nasopharynx
Airway resistance is affected primarily by the
d. diameter of the bronchioles
On a very humid day, people with chronic respiratory disease may experience greater difficulty breathing because
c. Water vapor contributes a greater partial pressure to inhaled air, thus interfering with normal gradients of other respiratory gases
Where would you expect to find the highest partial pressure of carbon dioxide?
e. in the intracellular fluid
The most important muscle of inhalation is the diaphragm
a. This statement is TRUE
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
e. Surface tension of alveolar fluid facilitates inhalation
Which of the following does NOT affect the rate of external respiration?
e. presence of bis-phosphoglycerate
For inhalation to occur, air pressure in the alveoli must be __ than atmospheric pressure; for exhalation to occur, air pressure in the alveoli must be __ than atmospheric pressure.
b. less, greater
Deep abdominal breathing is also referred to as
d. diaphragmatic breathing
Most oxygen is transported in blood by
a. the heme portion of hemoglobin
The basic pattern of breathing is set by nuclei of neurons located in the
c. medulla oblongata
Carbonic acid is produced when
c. carbon dioxide combines with water
Most carbon dioxide is transported in blood by
d. conversion to bicarbonate ion
Which of the following muscles helps increase the size of the thoracic cavity during forced inspiration?
b. External intercostals
When the diaphragm contracts
e. all of the above are correct (size of chest cavity increases, lungs expand to fill extra space in chest cavity, air from outside rushes into lungs, intrathoracic pressure decreases)
Which of the following is NOT a function of the nose?
e. gas exchange
Which of the following lists the structures in the correct order of air flow?
c. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea
The function of the epiglottis is to
d. close off the larynx during swallowing
What is the anatomic name of the structure known as the Adam's apple
e. thyroid cartilage
Bronchioles have a lot of cartilage in their walls
b. This statement is FALSE
Where does gas exchange between the air and the blood occur?
d. alveoli
What is the wall of alveoli primarily composed of?
b. Simple squamous epithelium
What two muscle contract during normal, resting inspiration?
a. Diaphragm, external intercostals
What happens to intrapulmonary pressure during inspiration?
b. It falls below atmospheric pressure
What does parasymphathetic nerve activity (acetylcholine) do to the bronchioles?
a. Constricts
How high does the partial pressure of oxygen get in the blood?
c. the same as in the alveoli
How many oxygen molecules can be transported by each hemoglobin molecule?
d. 4
Which nerve is used to stimulate the diaphragm for inspiration?
b. phrenic
What does an increase in carbon dioxide do to breathing?
a. Increases it
What happens to carbon dioxide levels in the blood if someone hyperventilates?
b. decreases it
What does a decrease in oxygen levels do to breathing?
a. Increases it
What does a decrease in arterial pH do to breathing?
a. Increases it
Which receptors are more likely to respond to a dramatic decrease in PO2
b. peripheral chemoreceptors
What happens to pH of blood if someone hypoventilates?
b. decreases it
bean-shaped structures located along the length of lymphatic vessels; contain T cells, macrophages, and follicular dendritic cells; filter lymph.
c. lymph nodes
produces pre-T cells and B cells; found in flat bones and epiphyses of long bones
e. red bone marrow
the single largest mass of lymphatic tissue in the body
b. spleen
responsible for the maturation of T cells
d. thymus
nonencapsulated clusters of lymphocytes located in all mucous membranes
a. lymphatic nodules
recognizes foreign antigens combines with MHC-1 molecules on the surface of body cells infected by viruses, some tumor cells, and cells of a tissue transplant
b. cytotoxic T cells
are programmed to recognize the reappearance of a previously encountered antigen
c. memory T cells
differentiate into plasma cells that secrete specific antibodies
d. B cells
lymphocytes that have the ability to kill a wide variety of infectious microbes plus certain spontaneously arising tumor cells; lack antigen receptors
e. NK cells
secrete cytokines as costimulators
a. helper T cells
participate in inflammation, opsonization, and cytolysis
e. complement proteins
glycoproteins that mark the surface of all body cells except for RBCs; distinguish self from non-self
c. MHC antigens
foreign antigens present in fluids outside body cells
a. exogenous antigens
foreign antigens synthesized within body cells
b. endogenous antigens
small protein hormones that stimulate or inhibit many normal cell functions; serve as costimulators for B cell and T cell activity
d. cytokines
polypeptides formed in blood; induce vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels; serve as chemotaxic agents for phagocytes
c. kinins
small parts of antigens that initiate immune responses
e. epitopes
produced by virus-infected cells; they interfere with viral replication in host cells
a. interferons
chemicals released by NK and cytotoxic T cells that can cause cytolysis in microbes
b. perforins
glycoproteins that contain four polypeptide chains, two of which are identical to each other and two of which are variable and contain the antigen-binding site
d. antibodies
Functions as a passageway for air and food, provides a resonating chamber for speech sounds and houses the mouth
b. Pharynx
site of external respiration
e. Alveoli
Connects the laryngopharynx with the trachea; houses the vocal cords
c. Larynx
Functions in warming, moistening, and filtering air; receives olfactory stimuli; is a resonating chamber for sounds
a. Nose
A tubular passageway for air connecting the larynx to the bronchi
d. Trachea
Amount of air exhaled in forced exhalation
c. Expiratory Reserve Volume
Volume of air in one breath
a. Tidal volume
Additional amount of air inhaled beyond tidal volume when taking a very deep breath
d. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Amount of air remaining in lungs after expiratory volume is expelled
b. Residual volume
tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume + expiratory reserve volume
e. Vital Capacity
Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?
b. Nucleic acid metabolism
Which of the following statements regarding the regulation of gastric secretion is FALSE?
e. The enterogastric reflex stimulates gastric emptying
What of the following are FALSE?
a. Segmentations in the small intestine help propel chime through the intestinal tract
The release of feces from the large intestine is dependent upon
d. a and b (stretching of the rectal walls, voluntary relaxation of the external anal sphincter)
Stores bile
c. gallbladder
Which of the following would be considered an accessory organ of the digestive system?
a. Pancreas
Which of the following lists the tubing int he correct order of food movement?
b. Oropharynx, laryngopharynx, esophagus, stomach, pyloric valve
The regular contractions of the muscularis that pus food through the gastrointestinal tract
c. peristalsis
Gallstones are usually made of crystallized
c. cholesterol
Most absorption of nutrients occurs in the
d. small intestine
Intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach is required for
d. absorption of vitamin B12
The folds of the gastric mucosa are called
e. rugae
The pyloric sphincter is located at the junction of the
b. stomach and duodenum
Which ofthe following occurs during the cephalic phase of gastric digestion?
d. Sight, semll, through, or taste of food triggers parasympathetic impulses
Salivary glands include
e. all of the previous (parotid, submandibular, sublingual glands)
Salivary secretions
e. functions in all of the above ways (aid in chewing or swallowing, initiate digestion of starches, needed fo rtasting, moisten and lubricate food)
An enzyme that digests carbohydrates is
e. amylase
The small intestine is attached to the posterior abdominal wall by a fold o the peritoneum called the
b. mesentery
During swallowing, the nasal cavity is closed off by the soft palate and the
b. uvula
The process of mastication results in
c mechanical mixing of food with saliva and shaping food into a bolus
Partially digested food is usually passed from the stomacht ot he small intestine about how long after consumption?
b. 2-4 hours
The functions of the gallbladder iknclude
b. storage and concentration of bile
The function of bile is to
a. emulsify fats
The appendix is attached to the
c. cecum
Which of the following lists the tubing int he correct order of food movement?
b. Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
The large intestine absorbs mostly
d. water
The normal color of feces is due primarily to the
b. breakdown products of hemoglobin
The intestinal enzyme that functions to digest fat is
b. lipase
The end products o the complete aerobic oxidation of glucose are
d. carbon dioxide, water and energy
Which of the following substances increases in amount during cellular respiration?
a. ATP
Which of the following processes requires oxygen?
c. Electron transport system
Anabolic processes
c. are the building up or synthesizing processes
Metabolism in living organisms is mediated by specific organic catalysts called
d. enzymes
Enzymes of the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain are located in the
a. mitochondria
Which of the following is anaerobic (doesn't need oxygen)?
d. glycolysis
Excess cholesterol is transported to the liver for elimination by
a. high-density lipoproteins
Cholesterol is carried to cells for repair of membranes ad synthesis of steroid hormones and bile salts by
b. low-density lipoproteins
Endogenous triglycerides synthesized in hepatocytes are transported to adipocytes for storage by
c. very low-density lipoproteins
Dietary lipids are transported in lymph and blood by
d. chylomicrons
Before amino acids can enter Krebs cycle, they must be
d. deaminated
Urea is produced i nthe process of detoxifying
a. ammonia
Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?
b. vitamin B12
Deficiency of vitamin C causes
b. scurvy
Deficiency of vitamin D in children causes
d. rickets
Deficiency of niacin causes
c. pellagra
Lactic acid is produced as a results of the chemical reduction of
c. pyruvic acid
The function of coenzyme A in glucose metabolism is to
e. carry two-carbon units into the Krebs cycle
Every molecule of acetyl CoA that enters the Krebs cycle produces how many molecules of carbon?
b. two
Most ATP generated by the complete oxidation of glucose results from the reactions of
d. the electron transport chain
Glycogensis is the
d. process of glycogen formation
Which of the following factors does NOT affect metabolic rate and thus the production of body heat?
c. minerals
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP?
e. Glycolysis, formation of acetyl CoA, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain
Hormones are the primary regulators of metabolism
a. This statement is TRUE
Which of the following is a key molecule of metabolism
d. all of the above (Glucose-6-Phosphate, pyruvic acid, acetyl CoA)
The thermostat and food intake regulating center of the body is tin the thalamus
b. This statement is FALSE
The breakdown of glycogen back to glucose
a. glycogenolysis
the removal of the amino group from an amino acid
d. deamination
the splitting of a triglyceride into glycerol and fatty acids
b. lipolysis
the cleavage of one pair of carbon atoms at a time from a fatty acid
e. beta oxidation
the synthesis of lipids
c. lipogenesis
the formation of ketone bodies
d. ketogenesis
the conversion of glucose into glycogen
b. glycogenesis
the transfer of an amino group from an amino acid to a substance such as pyruvic acid
e. transamination
the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources
c. gluconeogenesis
the breakdown of glucose into two molecules of pyruvic acid
a. glycolysis
an activating brush-border enzyme that splits off part of the trypsinogen molecule to form trypsin, a protease
c. enterokinase
an enzyme that initiates carbohydrate digestion in the mouth
b. salivary amylase
the principal triglyceride-digesting enzyme in adults
e. pancreatic lipase
stimulates growth of gastric glands and secretion of gastric juice
secreted by chief cells in the stomach; a proteolytic enzyme
a. pepsin
stimulates the flow of pancreatic juice rich in bicarbonates; decreases gastric secretions
c. secretin
a nonenzymatic fat-emulsifying agent
a. bile
causes contraction of the gallbladder and stimulates the production of pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes
b. cholecystokinin
inhibits gastrin release
d. somatostatin
stimulates secretion of ions and water by the intestines and inhibits gastric acid secretion
e. vasoactive intestinal polypeptide
collapsed, muscular tube involved in deglutition and peristalsis
c. esophagus
coiled tube attached to the cecum
d. appendix
contains Brunner's glands in the submucosa
d. duodenum
produces and secretes bile
b. liver
contains Peyer's patches in the submucosa
e. ileum
responsible for ingestion, mastication, deglutition
a. mouth
storage area for bile
c. gallbladder
passageway for food, fluid, and air; involved in deglutition
b. pharynx
contain acini that release juices containing several digestic enzzymes
e. pancreas
forms a semisolid waste material through haustral churning and peristalsis
a. colon
membrane proteins that function as water channels
c. aquaporins
stimulates principal cells to secrete more K+ into tubular fluid
reduces glomerular filtration rate; increases blood volume and pressure
a. angiotensin II
increases glomerular filtration rate
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
regulates facultative water reabsorption by increasing the water permeability of principal cells
e. ADH
Modified smooth muscle cells in the wall of the afferent arteriole
c. juxtaglomerular cells
Can secrete H+ against a concentration gradient
e. intercalated cells
site of obligatory water reabsorption
b. proximal convoluted tubule
cells of the final portion of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle that make contact with the afferent arteriole
d. macula densa
the viseral layer of the gomerular capsule onsiting of modified simple squamous epithelial cells
a. podocytes
combine glomerulus and glomerular capsule; where plasma is filtered
b. renal corpuscle
drains into a collecting duct c. distal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
a capillary network lying in Bowman's capsule and functioning in filtration
a. glomerulus
cells in the last portion of the distal convoluted tubules and in the collecting ducts; regulated by ADH and aldosterone
d. principle cells
Produced from the catabolism of creatine phosphate in skeletal muscle
b. plasma cretinine
Measure of blood nitrogen resulting from the catabolism and deamination of amino acids
a. BUN test
The analysis of the volume and physical, chemical and microscopic properties of urine
d. urinalysis
the functional unit of the kidney
e. nephron
Volume of blood that is cleared of a substance per unit of time
c. renal plasma clearance
Used to determine correct dosage of various medications
c. renal plasma clearance
The main pressure that promotes glomerular filtration
a. glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure
ch of the following is the correct sequence of tubular fluid flow?
b. PCT, descending loop of Henle, ascending limb of loop of Henle, DCT, collecting duct, papillary duct
Which of the following if FALSE?
d. GFR increases when blood flow into glomerular capillaries decreases
When dilute urine is being formed, the osmolarity of the fluid in the tubular lumen decreases as it flows down the descending loop of Henle, increase as it flows up the ascending limb and continues to increase as it flows through the rest of the nephron and collecting duct
b. This statement is FALSE
The route of blood flow from the renal artery to the renal vein is renal artery, segmental arteries, interlobar arteries, arcuate arteries, interlobular arteries, afferent arterioles, glomeruli, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, peritubular venules, interlobular veins, arcuate veins, interlobar veins, and renal vein.
a. This statement is TRUE
Which of the following is NOT a function of the kidneys?
d. regulation of WBC production
Which of the following are NOT mechanisms that control GFR?
d. chemical regulation of ions
Bowman's capsule is
d. the double-walled funnel surrounding a glomerulus
The surface of glomerular capillaries available for filtration is regulated by
a. mesangial cells
If the diameter of the efferent arteriole is smaller than the diameter of the afferent arteriole, then
b. blood pressure in the glomerulus stays high
Glomerular filtrate contains
b. everything in blood except cells and proteins
The function of the macular densa cells is to
d. monitor NaCl concentration in the tubular fluid
The renal corpuscle consists of
b. The glomerulus, and the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
In the myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation
b. smooth muscle in afferent arterioles triggers vasoconstriction to decrease GFR
Which of teh following substances is normally almost completely reabsorbed by the tubules of the nephron?
b glucose
Facultative reabsorption of water occurs mainly in the
e. collecting ducts
If the level of aldosterone in the blood increases, then
a. more potassium is excreted in the urine
The stimulus for release of ANP is
d. stretching of the atrial wall
In studies of fluid balance, the term water intoxication refers to
c. Movement of water from interstitial fluid into intracellular fluid due to osmotic gradients created by ion loss
The most important function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus is to
b. release renin in response to a drop in renal blood pressure or blood flow
The uptake of substances from the lumen of the kidney tubules is known as
c. tubular reabsorption
Most reabsorption of substance from the glomerular filtrate occurs in the
a. proximal tubule
Which structure is NOT pat of the renal corpuscle?
c. distal convoluted tubule
What are common components of glomerular filtrate?
e. all of the previous (water, ions urea, glucose)
What glomerular pressure promotes filtration?
a. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure
What does increasing activity level do to systemic pressure?
a. Increases
What does increasing activity level do to glomerular hydrostatic pressure?
a. Increases
What does increasing activity level do to net filtration rate?
a. Increases
In the thin descending loop of Henle, membranes are permeable to water but not to NaCl
a. This statement is TRUE
These cells secrete hydrogen ions into the filtrate
a. intercalated cells
These cells perform hormonally regulated water and sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion
b. principal cells
Principle cells are permeable to sodium ions and water only in the presence of which two hormones?
b. Aldosterone and ADH
The vasa recta provides a nutrient blood supply to the medullary cells without washing away the solute responsible for the medullary osmotic gradient
a. This statement is TRUE
In the countercurrent exchanger in the vasa recta, blood moving down the descending portion of the vasa recta loop loses __ to the interstitium and gains __.
b. water, NaCl
The composition of the filtrate is NOT changes as it passes through the differing environments of the renal cortex and medulla
b. This statement is FALSE
Final concentration of urine occurs in the
a. medullary collecting duct
What level of hydration is associated with LOW levels of ADH?
b. overhydration
What conditions do NOT cause low levels of ADH?
c. severe dehydration
Extracellular fluids are
c. high i nsodium and low in potassium
When bicarbonate ion diffuses out of red blood cells into plasma, it is usually exchanged with which anion?
e. chloride
Hyperventilation results in
d. respiratory alkolosis
In the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system, the __ acts as a weak base, and __ acts as a weak acid
b. bicarbonate ion, carbonic acid
The most abundant buffer in intracellular fluid and blood plasma is the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system
b. This statement is FALSE
Normally, water loss equals water gain, so body fluid volume is constant.
a. This statement is TRUE
The primary means of regulating body water gain is adjusting
a. the volume of water intake
Which of the following are NOT ways that dehydration stimulates thirst?
b. It increases the production of saliva
Which of the following are FALSE concerning ions in the body?
e. They serve as neurotransmitters under special circumstances
Which of the following are FALSE?
c. Strong acids low pH more than weak acids because strong acids contribute fewer H+
Which of the following statement are TRUE?
e. All of the above are true (increase in carbon dioxide concentration in body fluids increase H+ concentration and thus lowers pH, breath holding resulting in decline in blood pH, respiratory buffer mechanism can eliminate a single volatile acid: carbonic acid, only way to eliminate fixed acids is to exc+ in the urine)
Acidosis can cause depression of the CNS through depression of synaptic transmission
a. This statement is TRUE
Renal compensation can resolve respiratory alkalosis or acidosis
a. This statement is TRUE
A major physiologic effect of alkalosis is lack of excitability in the CNS and peripheral nerves
b. This statement is FALSE
Resolution of metabolic acidosis and alkalosis occurs through renal compensation
b. This statement is FALSE
In adjusting blood pH, renal compensation occurs quickly whereas respiratory compensation takes days
b. This statement is FALSE
Drinking of plain water after excessive sweating leads to
d. dehydration of cells
Holding your breath for a long period of time results in
a. respiratory acidosis
The most abundant cation in ICF; plays a key role in establishing the resting membrane potential
b. potassium
The most abundant mineral in the body; plays important roles in blood clotting, neurotransmitter release, maintenance of muscle tone, and excitability of nervous and muscle tissue
a. calcium
most prevalent extracellular cation; essential in fluid and electrolyte balance
c. sodium
second most common intracellular cation; is a cofactor for enzymes involved in carbohydrate, protein, and NA+/K+ ATPase metabolism
e. magnesium
most prevalent extracellular anion; can help balance the level of anions in different fluid compartments.
d. chloride
can be caused by excessive vomiting of gastric contents, gastric suctioning, use of certain diuretics, severe dehydration, or excessive intake of alkaline drugs.
d. metabolic alkalosis
can be caused by oxygen deficiency at high altitude, stroke, or severe anxiety
b. respiratory alkalosis
can be caused by emphysema, pulmonary edema, injury to the respiratory center of the medulla oblongata, airway destruction, or disorders of the muscles involved in breathing
a. respiratory acidosis
can be caused by actual loss of bicarbonate ions, ketosis, or failure of kidneys to excrete H+
c. metabolic acidosis
Which of the following statements are FALSE?
b. Ova arise from the germinal epithelium of the ovary.
Sertoli cells produce
b. androgen-binding protein
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
d. Ovulation results in the release of an ovum and the shedding of the uterine lining to nourish and support the released ovum.
The function of the cremaster muscle is to
a. elevate the testes during sexual arousal and exposure to cold
Testosterone is produced by
c. interstitial cells
The female structure that is homologous to the penis is the
d. clitoris
During the menstrual cycle, the endometrium would e at its thickest
d. late in the postovulatory phase
The term syngamy refers to the
e. a sperm cell's penetration of the zona pellucida and entry into a secondary oocyte
How many days after fertilization does implantation of the blastocyst occur?
b. 6 days
The human gestation period is about
d. 38 weeks
Human chorionic gonadotropin is at its highest levels during
d. the ninth week of pregnancy
A couple who are both phenotypically normal have a child who expresses a sex-linked recessive trait. Which of the following represents the child's genotype? [Let the trait be designated T (dominant) or t (recessive)]
d. X^tY
An individual with this syndrome has mental retardation, loose muscle tone, characteristic facial features, and has the potential to live a normal lifespan. Other health issues might include Alzheimer's Disease, thyroid problems, leukemia, or congenital heart defects
a. Down syndrome
This name means "cry of the cat". Individuals with this syndrome have severe mental retardation, characteristic facial features and their cry sounds like the meowing of a cat.
e. Cri du Chat syndrome
These "supermales" have an extra Y chromosome. Originally thought to have an increased chance of criminal behavior, we now know that individuals with this syndrome are often not diagnosed because of their normal appearance.
d Jacob syndrome
These girls are missing a ex chromosome. This makes them short. gives them extra skin at the sides of their necks, and prevents them from achieving puberty without hormone replacement therapy
c. Turner Syndrome
Which of the following are FALSE concerning fertilization?
b. Sperm are able to fertilize the oocyte within minutes after ejaculation
Sperm production in the male requires a scrotal temperature that is
b. lower than body temperature
The acrosome of a sperm cell contains
d. hyaluronidase for egg penetration
A function of FSH in the male is to
d. initiate spermatogensis
In the male, LH causes
c. testosterone production
Seminal vesicles produce
c. fructose-rich fluid
The seminal vesicles are located
d. posterior and inferior to the urinary bladder, in front of the rectum
Which of the following does NOT manufacture products hat become part of semen?
c. penis
A normal mature human spermatozoa contains
a. 23 chromosomes
Oogenesis begins in females
a. before birth
The opening between the cervical canal and the uterine cavity is called the
a. internal os
The folds of the peritoneum attaching the uterus to either side of the pelvic cavity are called the
b. broad ligaments
The female structure that is homologous to the scrotum is the
b. labia majora
All of the following are functions of estrogens EXCEPT
e. raise blood cholesterol
During the menstrual cycle, the endometrium would be at its thickest
d. late in the postovulatory phase
During the menstrual cycle, LH is at its highest levels
b. just prior to ovulation
During the menstrual cycle, progesterone would be at its highest levels
d. late int he postovulatory phase
During the menstrual cycle, progesterone is produced by
b. the corpus luteum
The main function of progesterone during the menstrual cycle is to
c. thicken the endometrium
If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum:
c. degenerates into the corpus albicans
The main control center of the female reproductive system is the
d. hypothalamus
At day 4 after fertilization, the solid ball of cells that has formed is called the
d. morula
Implantation usually occurs int he
e. posterior wall of the body or fundus of the uterus
The chorion develops form the
c. trophoblast
The fetus is protected from mechanical injury by fluid contained within the
d. Amnion
The "water" referred to when a woman's "water breaks" prior to delivery is
a. amniotic fluid released when the amnion ruptures
Deoxygenated fetal blood is carried to the placenta via the
c. umbilical arteries
The reason the corpus luteum is maintained in early pregnancy is to
c. keep levels of estrogen and progesterone high enough to maintain the endometrium
During early pregnancy, the main function of hCG is to
c. maintain the corpus luteum
Once hCG levels decrease, estrogen and progesterone are secreted mainly by the
a. placenta
Early pregnancy tests are based on detection of what substance in the urine?
c. hCG
Inheritance of the ABO blood type is an example of
a. codominance
A child expresses an autosomal recessive trait. Which of the following are NOT possible genotypes for the parents?
e. The father is heterozygous and the mother is homozygous dominant
Teratogens are
b. agents that induce physical defects in developing embryos
Hollow ball of cells that implants into uterine wall
d. blastocyst
What is the medical terminology for undescended testes?
c. cryptorchidism
If two parents are heterozygous for a recessive disease trait, what is their chance to have a child with the disease?
b. 25%
If one parent is heterozygous for a recessive disease trait, and the other parent is homozygous for the same trait, what is their chance of having a child who does not inherit a copy of the disease gene?
a. 0%
In question #54, what is their chance of having a child with the disease?
c. 50%
the male copulatory organ; a passageway for ejaculation of sperm and excretion of urine
a. Penis
secrete an alkaline fluid to help neutralize acids in the female reproductive tract; secrete fructose for use in ATP production by sperm
c. seminal vesicles
the supporting structure for the testes
e. Scrotum
carries the sperm from the scrotum into the abdominopelvic cavity for release by ejaculation; is cute and tied as a means of sterilization
b. ductus (vas) deferens
the shared terminal duct of the reproductive and urinary systems in the male
d. urethra
the two alternative forms of a gene that code for the same trait
c. alleles
refers to an individual with different alleles on homologous chromosomes
e. heterozygous
refers to how the genetic makeup is expressed in the body; the physical or outward expression of a gene.
b. phenotype
a homozygous dominant, homozygous recessive, or heterozygous genetic makeup; the actual gene arrangement
a. genotype
refers to a person with the same alleles on homologous chromosomes
d. homozygous
the control of inherited traits by the combined effects of many genes
c. polygenic inheritance
inheritance based on genes that have more than two alternate forms; an example is the inheritance of blood type
b. multiple-allele inheritance
traits linked to the X chromosome
d. sex-linked inheritance
neither member of the allelic pair is dominant over the other, and the heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate between the homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive
a. incomplete dominance
an allele that masks the presence of another allele and is fully expressed
e. dominant trait
a small, cylindrical mass of erectile tissue and nerves in the female; homologous to the male glans penis
e. clitoris
the group of the cells that nourish the developing oocyte an begin to secrete estrogens
a. follicle
refers to the external genitals of the female
c. vulva
produces progesterone, estrogens, relaxin, and inhibin
d. corpus luteum
draw the ovum into the uterine tube
b. fimbriae
relaxes the uterus by inhibiting myometrial conractions during monthly cycles; increases flexibility of the public symphysis during childbirth.
d. relain
stimulates Leydig cells to secrete testosterone in males and trigger ovulation in females
a. LH
inhibits production of FSH by the anterior pituitary gland
c. inhibin
posterior pituitary hormone responsible for uterine contraction and release of milk from mammary glands
b. oxytocin
stimulates male pattern of development: stimulates protein synthesis; contributes to sex drive
e. testosterone
fertilization of a secondary oocyte by more than one sperm
d. polyspermy
the attachment of a blastocyst to the endometrium
e. implantation
the penetration of a secondary oocyte by a single sperm cell
c. syngamy
the induction by the female reproductive tract of functional changes in sperm that allow them to fertilize a secondary oocyte
b. capacitation
the fusion of the genetic material from a haploid sperm and a haploid secondary oocyte into a single diploid nucleus
a. fertilization