Leadership Final

What is the emphasis for the manager in the coaching role?
A) Solving problems for the employee
B) Showing employees how to work within the system
C) Helping employees reach an optimum level of performance
D) Redirecting employees to meet organizational goals
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What is the emphasis for the manager in the coaching role?
A) Solving problems for the employee
B) Showing employees how to work within the system
C) Helping employees reach an optimum level of performance
D) Redirecting employees to meet organizational goals
C) Helping employees reach an optimum level of performance
Feedback: In coaching, the emphasis is on assisting the employee to recognize greater options, to clarify statements, and to grow. The other options are focused on doing for the learner rather than encouraging the learner to do for themselves.
Which is an appropriate strategy for planning, conducting, and controlling the interview?
A) When an applicant clearly does not have the proper qualifications for a position, the interviewer should be tactful, but advise the applicant as soon as possible that there is a lack of appropriate qualifications for the job
B) Personal questions should be asked early during the interview process so a rapport can be established between the interviewer and the applicant
C) The interviewer should develop questions that can be answered with a yes or no answer
D) The interviewer should assess an applicant's perceptive skills by sending nonverbal cues to the applicant during his or her responses
A) When an applicant clearly does not have the proper qualifications for a position, the interviewer should be tactful, but advise the applicant as soon as possible that there is a lack of appropriate qualifications for the job
The manager should have a well-developed, planned system for career development for all employees. What should be included in this program?
1. Policies communicated to administrators
2. Appropriate use of transfers
3. How promotions are handled
4. Long-term coaching

A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 4
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 3, 4
Ans: D 2,3,4
Feedback: the manager should have a well-developed, planned system for career development for all employees; this system should include the appropriate use of transfers, how promotions are to be handled, and long-term coaching. These policies should be fair and communicated effectively to all employees.
Which statement is true regarding long-term coaching for career development?
A. It occurs annually at performance appraisal reviews
B. It focuses on employee performance deficits
C. It requires the same intensity as a mentoring relationship
D. It occurs over the entire employment tenure of an employee
Ans: D
Feeback: long-term coaching should occur over the entire employment of the employee. The remaining options are not true statements regarding career development.
Which method best provides a structured orderly approach to communicating accurate, relevant information, in emergent patient situations as well as routine handoffs?
A) GRRRR listening model
B) SBAR tool
C) Hospital information system
D) Wireless, local area networking
Ans: B) SBAR
Strategies to become an effective coach
Be specific in describing behavior that needs improvement
Be descriptive when describing what was wrong with the performance
Be certain feedback meets needs of employee
Direct feedback toward behavior that can be changed
Use sensitivity in timing the feedback
Make sure employee understand feedback
Strategies to uneffective coaching
Being general in describing behavior that needs improvement
Not evaluating when describing what was wrong with performance
Giving self-serving feedback
Not making sure employee understand feedback
What is the role of the leader manager
Recruit, select, orient & promote personnel development to accomplish goals of the organization
What is a management function associated with career development?
A. Is self-aware of personal values influencing career development
B. Encourages employees to take responsibility for their own career planning
C. Identifies, encourages, and develops future leaders
D. Works cooperatively to arrange intra-organizational transfers
Ans: D
Feedback: management function is to work cooperatively with other departments in arranging for the release of employees to take other positions within the organization. Leadership functions associated with career development are self-aware of personal values influencing career development; encourage employees to take responsibility for their own career planning; and identifies, enourages, and develops future leaders.
Training and education are important parts of staff development. Who is responsible for the education and training of staff?
A) Preceptor
B) Education department
C) Manager and preceptor
D) Manager and education department
Ans: D
Feedback: Managers and education department staff have a shared responsibility for the education and training of staff. It is not the responsibility of the other options.
What is the first step to developing an educational program for an organization? A) Identifying the resources available to meet the needs B) Identifying the desired skills or knowledge the staff should have C) Explaining to the team that human resources should be doing this work D) Assessing the staff's willing to learn new skillsAns: B Feedback: Identifying the desired skills or knowledge the staff should have is the first step in developing an educational program. While the other options are relevant, they lack the organizational priority of the correct option.Which function of the management process involves the performance evaluation of staff? A) Planning B) Organizing C) Staffing D) ControllingAns: D Feedback: Controlling is the function that includes performance appraisals, fiscal accountability, quality control, legal and ethical control, and professional and collegial controlWhich statement about education is the accurate? A) Education generally has an immediate use B) Managers have a responsibility to see that their staff is well educated C) Recognizing and encouraging educational pursuits are a leadership role D) Education always results in increased productivityAns: C Feedback: Although training has an immediate use, education is designed to develop the person in a broader sense. A leader will encourage continuous learning from all employees. Education is not a guarantee of productivity.A new nurse manager is learning about staff development. Which statement about either training or education is most accurate? A. Training ensures knowledge and skills necessary for the job B. Training is designed to develop individuals in the broader sense C. Education has immediate use and applicability D. The words training and education are synonymousA. Training ensures knowledge and skills necessary for the jobA nurse manager is reviewing current staff development activities. Which is critical to ensure that staff development are successful? A) Management is responsible for education and training B) Communication shared responsibilities for educational training C) Scheduling education and training as non-paid time D) The education department identifies all needs for education and trainingB) Communication shared responsibilities for educational trainingWhich statement best describes andragogy? A) Andragogy techniques are usually ineffective for mature learners B) Andragogy relies on structure and direction C) Andragogy works well with people who have had life experiences D) Andragogy works best with teacher-led activitiesAns: C Feedback: Andragogy works well with those who have had life experiences, because they are mature aterm-10nd can take part in their own learning experiences. In this type of learning the learner is self-directed rather than dependent. None of the remaining options accurately describes andragogy.What is the key to adequate staffing long term?RetentionWhat is the advantage of recruiting from outside the organization? A. Promotes long-term retention of employees B. Tends to increase the number of candidates C. Provides well-motivated candidates D. Attracts well-qualified candidatesAns: B Feedback: recruiting from outside the organization provides an opportunity to increase the pool of candidates for positions but is no guarantee that these candidates will be more qualified or motivated than those who come from within the organization.What negative outcome can result from the decentralization of the responsibilities of staff development? A) Poor staff retention B) Deficient nursing care C) Increased role ambiguity D) Decreased nursing autonomyAns: C Feedback: Some difficulties associated with decentralized staff development include the conflict created by role ambiguity whenever two people share responsibility. Role ambiguity is sometimes reduced when staff development personnel and managers delineate the difference between training and education. None of the other options are recognized as a result of decentralization of staff development.What are often neglected areas of the indoctrination process?1.Induction 2.Orientation 3.Socialization 4.Re-socialization A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 4 D) 3, 4Ans: D Feedback: Socialization and re-socialization are often neglected areas of the indoctrination process. The other options are generally addressed in the indoctrination process.Which statement describes the induction phase of employee indoctrination? A) It occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) It includes the activities performed by the personnel department C) It relates to the information included in the employees handbook D) It is the responsibility of the staff development departmentA) It occurs after hiring but before performing the roleWhich statement describes the orientation phase of employee indoctrination? A) It occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) It includes the activities that educate the new employee about the organization C) Teaches activities more specific to the position D) It is responsible for developing their own orientation programC) Teaches activities more specific to the positionWhich statement describes the induction phase of each department of employee indoctrination? SATA A) It occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) It includes the activities that educate the new employee about the organization C) Teaches activities more specific to the position D) It is responsible for developing their own orientation program E) Includes employment personnel policies and proceduresA) It occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) It includes the activities that educate the new employee about the organization E) Includes employment personnel policies and proceduresA new nurse manager is learning about staff development. Which statements about the implications of Knowles' learning Andragogy theory are accurate? SATA A. Adults learn best by using experiential techniques B. Mistakes should be viewed as opportunities to learn C. The adult will not feel rejected if the value of their experience is rejected D. Adults do not need to be involved in the evaluation of their process E. Assessment of need is absolutely essentialA. Adults learn best by using experiential techniques B. Mistakes should be viewed as opportunities to learn E. Assessment of need is absolutely essentialWhich statement describes the individual orientation phase of each department of employee indoctrination? A) It occurs after hiring but before performing the role B) It includes the activities that educate the new employee about the organization C) Teaches activities more specific to the position D) It is responsible for developing their own orientation programD) It is responsible for developing their own orientation programWhich principle is key in resumes' constriction? A. Emphasize strong and weak points equally B. Be at least four to five pages in length C. Reflect complex, scholarly language D. Be concise and easy to readAns: D Feedback: the content of a resume should be able to be grasped quickly by the individual doing the hiring, so conciseness and readability are of key importance. The remaining options do not express correct information concerning resume construction.What is the purpose of a cover letter? 1. Introduce the applicant 2. Briefly highlight key points of career 3. Make a positive first impression 4. Always used when submitting a resume A. 1, 2, 3 B. 1, 2, 4 C. 1, 3, 4 D. 2, 3, 4Ans: C 1,3,4 Feedback: cover letters should always be used when submitting a resume. Their purpose is to introduce the applicant, briefly highlight key points of the resume, and make a positive firstThe promise phase of career development typically reflects how many years of initial nursing employment? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10Ans: D. 10 Feedback: Promise is the earliest of the career phases and typically reflects the first 10 years of nursing employment.What is the focus for a nursing portfolio? A. Career goals B. Salary expectations. C. Professional growth D. Educational backgroundAns: C Feedback: all nurses should maintain a professional portfolio (a collection of materials that document a nurse's competencies and illustrate the expertise of the nurse) to reflect their professional growth over their career. The other options are not the focus of a professional portfolio.What managerial characteristic is essential in assuring that employees will find joy at work? A) Attending to the organizational climate B) Forming respectful relationships C) Effectively supervising employee work D) Partitioning for salary increasesAns: B) Forming respectful relationships Feedback:Employees value a trusting and helpful manager who lets them know their uniqueness is understood. The remaining options are not essential to facilitating employee work- related joy.Which statement most accurately defines intrinsic motivation? A) Motivation that is directly related to a persons internal level of aspiration B) Motivation that is enhanced by the jobs environmental conditions C) Motivation that is not shaped by personal values D) Motivation that is not related to achievementA) Motivation that is directly related to a persons internal level of aspirationWhat is intrinsic motivation directly related to? A) Work environment B) External rewards C) Personal aspiration D) Completion of workAns: C Personal aspirationWhich is an example of a hygiene factor according to Herzberg? A) Achievement B) Recognition C) Salary D) WorkAns: C Salary Feedback:A hygiene factor is salary. Motivators include achievement, recognition, and work.Which statement most accurately defines extrinsic motivation? A) Motivation that is directly related to a persons internal level of aspiration B) Motivation that is enhanced by the jobs environmental conditions C) Motivation that is not shaped by personal values D) Motivation that is not related to achievementB) Motivation that is enhanced by the jobs environmental conditionsWhen does extrinsic motivation occurWhen individuals are motivated to perform a behavior or engage in an activity to earn a reward or avoid punishmentWhat did motivational theorist Victor Vroom state? A) Personal motivators could be separated from job satisfiers B) People are motivated by three basic needs: achievement, affiliation, and power C) A manager's assumptions about workers directly affect the intrinsic motivation of the workers D) Employees' expectations about their work environment or a certain event will affect their behaviorD) Employees' expectations about their work environment or a certain event will affect their behaviorWhich reward is an example of intrinsic motivation? A) The prized locker is awarded to the staff member voted most helpful by their peers B) An extra vacation day is awarded for every 6 months a staff member is call off free. C) The entire staff is treated to a pizza party each time the unit earns a patient satisfaction award D) A staff member is awarded a trip to a nursing conference based on the written request that was submittedAns: D ) A staff member is awarded a trip to a nursing conference based on the written request that was submittedAccording to McClelland, what does achievement motivation focus on? A) The extrinsic rewards to be acquired B) A need to nurture others C) A need to have legitimate power over others D) The intrinsic need to be successfulD) The intrinsic need to be successfulAccording to McGregor, what do Theory X assumptions hold A) Putting forth effort is natural B) Workers are diligent, responsible, and helpful C) Workers are lazy, uncreative, and indifferent toward work D) Increased rewards will motivate workersC) Workers are lazy, uncreative, and indifferent toward workWhich is a motivating factor identified in Herzberg's motivation hygiene theory? A) Money B) A chance for promotion C) A well-lighted parking lot D) Free meals in the cafeteriaAns: B A change for promotion Feedback:Herzberg maintained that motivators such as promotion are present in work itself; they give people the desire to perform well. The other options were viewed less impactful on motivation.What did the motivational theorist Saul Gellerman argue? A) Individuals should be ì B) "Stretching" should be used as a motivational strategy only for affiliation-oriented individuals C) "Stretching" should be used as a motivational strategy only when an individual is already demotivated D) Employees should be stretched intermittently to complete tasks more difficult than what they are used to doingD) Employees should be stretched intermittently to complete tasks more difficult than what they are used to doingMcClelland's studies state that all people are motivated by three basic needs. What are these needs? A) Physiological, security, esteem B) Safety, social, self-actualization C) Achievement, affiliation, power D) Responsibility, supervision, job securityAns: C)Achievement, affiliation, power Feedback: McClelland's studies state that all people are motivated by three basic needs: achievement, affiliation, and power. McClelland does not include the other options as needs associated with motivation.Which characteristics are associated with a constructive culture? 1.Affiliative norms 2.Self-actualization 3.Encouragement of humanism 4.Perfectionist norms A) 1, 2, 3 B) 1, 2, 4 C) 1, 3, 4 D) 2, 3, 4Ans: A Feedback: Affiliation, self-actualization, and encouragement are all characteristics of a constructive culture, whereas perfectionist norms are a characteristic of destructive organizational cultures.term-34What did Gellerman state about most managers in organizations? A) They undermanage subordinates B) They define responsibilities too broadly C) They stretch employees' comfort levels too much D) They fail to give employees sufficient decision-making powerAns: D) They fail to give employees sufficient decision-making power Feedback: Gellerman states that most managers in organizations over-manage, making the responsibilites too narrow and failing to give employees any decision-making power or to stretch them often enough.Which is a characteristic of Theory Z? A) Non-consensus decision making B) Fitting employees to their jobs C) Rapid career promotions D) Authoritative problem solvingB) Fitting employees to their jobsAccording to McClelland, what does affiliation motivation focus on? A) The extrinsic rewards to be acquired B) Focus their energy on family & friends C) A need to have legitimate power over others D) The intrinsic need to be successfulB) Focus their energy on family & friendsWhich statement describes assertive communication? A) It makes you respect yourself and allows you to get what you want B) Although it is unfeminine, it is a necessary communication skill for female managers C) It involves rights and responsibilities for all parties in the communication D) Assertive communication will never offend anyoneC) It involves rights and responsibilities for all parties in the communicationAccording to McClelland, what does power motivation focus on? A) The extrinsic rewards to be acquired B) Focus their energy on family & friends C) A need to have legitimate power over others, want to command D) The intrinsic need to be successfulC) A need to have legitimate power over others, want to commandWhat are misconceptions/myths about assertivenessAll behavior is either assertive or passive To be assertive is to be aggressive Assertiveness is unfeminine Assertive communication is rude or insensitiveT/F Being assertive will increase the odds of getting what you want and increase your self-esteemFalseWhich of the following is true regarding passive-aggressive communication? A. Allowing others to make decisions B. Active listening and reflecting C. Undermines other individuals through gossip, pouting, and playing the victim D. Making all the decisionsC. Undermines other individuals through gossip, pouting, and playing the victimT/F the ANA/NCSBN principles for social networking states nurses must not to transmit or place online individual identifiable patient informationtrueWhich nursing action demonstrates compliance with the American Nurses Association (ANA) principles for social networking by nurses? A) Strictly avoiding the use of social networking in a professional setting B) Participating in the development of institutional policies governing online conduct C) Ignoring any information that appears to have the potential to harm a patient's welfare D) Realizing that social networking is not related to a nurse's professional boundariesAns: B Feedback: The ANA has developed principles for social networking that include participation in policy development, nurse patient boundaries, separating personal and professional online information, and reporting to authorities when patient welfare has been potentially harmed.Which technique will help the manager prioritize? A. Doing "trivial" items first to get them out of the way B. Putting some items in the "don't do" category C. "Breaking of" overwhelming tasks D. "Delegating" the most important things to someone elseB. Putting some items in the "don't do" category Feedback : The "don't do" list contains items that will take care of themselves, are already outdated, or are best accomplished by someone else. In the case of items that are best done by someone else, the manager should pass these along in a timely fashion. None of the remaining options address prioritization.The nurse delegates a task to an incompetent individual. Who is held accountable? a) it depends on the situation b) the individual who was delegated to c) both d) the nurse delegatorD) the nurse delegatorT/F. It is the charge nurses responsibility to effectively delegate to provide the right direction and communication for the delegated task for the staff nurses.FalseA charge nurse is delegating to an LPN. What would be improper delegation for a charge nurse to delegate? a) the CN and person to whom the task is delegated exchange regular updates on task b) employee is given highly detailed exact instructions to complete the task c) momentary authority is given to support completion of the delegated task d) the person to whom the task is delegated considers it a challengeb) employee is given highly detailed exact instructions to complete the taskA nurse manager is considering delegating an important task. What steps in delegation process should the manager take? (SATA) a) monitor person until task is done b) train person delegated for task c) ask for volunteer sd) communicate time frame e) communicate what task isa) monitor person until task is done b) train person delegated for task d) communicate time frame e) communicate what task isMonitoring delegated tasks includesDoes the person have the competency to complete the delegated task ** If the person they're asking are capable of completing the task but also validate perception by direct observationThe nurse delegates to a UAP. After, the UAP informs the nurse that the task is complete. What is the appropriate action taken by the nurse? a) redo the task if not acceptable b) evaluate the outcome of task c) inform UAP that you will confirm that work is complete d) no further actionb) evaluate the outcome of taskA new nurse leader delegates to staff. What criteria should be followed? (SATA) .a) right circumstance b) right person c) right communication d) right time e)right level of supervision f)right taska) right circumstance b) right person c) right communication e)right level of supervision f)right taskWhich creates potential for successful delegation emphasized by NCSBN? a) monitoring difficult task very closely b) determining how to monitor and supervise c) evaluating different tasks very closely d) effective communicationd) effective communicationA patient on a neuro unit just returned from surgery, requires neuro checks q1h. The nurse is too busy and delegates it to a UAP. What error is this? a) delegating the wrong task b) improper delegating c) over-delegating d) under-delegatingb) improper delegatingIn prioritizing all the "do now" items, the manager may find preparing a written list helpful. What is important to remember about the written list? 1. It is a plan 2. It is a product 3. It is a planning tool 4. It is the final goal to be accomplished A) 1, 2 B) 1, 3 C) 2, 3 D) 3, 4Ans: B) 1,3 Feedback: In prioritizing all the "do now" items, the manager may find preparing a written list helpful. The list is a planning tool. Remember, however, that a list is a plan, not a product, and that the creation of the list is not the final goal.Which are delegation errors (SATA)? a) failure to provide clear directions b) failure to release control of the task c) failure to delegate d) failure to provide adequate directions e)failure to follow upa) failure to provide clear directions b) failure to release control of the task c) failure to delegate d) failure to provide adequate directions e)failure to follow upThe charge nurse is preparing to delegate to a UAP. What is the first action before delegating? a) ask which UAP is interested b) determine if enough time to supervise c) determine who would be best person for the task d) determine whether the task is within the scope of a UAPd) determine whether the task is within the scope of a UAPA new clinical nurse is leaving work feeling overwhelmed and not completing tasks. What delegation error? a) not delegating b) improper delegating c) over-delegating d) under-delegatingd) under-delegatingA nurse manager has high turnover rates of the assistant manager position. The current AM states "I may not be the right fit. I can't keep up with the amount of work and delegated task." What error is the manager making? a) not delegating b) improper delegating c) over-delegating d) under-delegatingc) over-delegatingT/F: The nurse leader understand when delegating, subordinate resistance should never occur among staff members.FalseT/F: The nurse leader should respond to resistance of authority in a calm but firm fashion.TrueA charge nurse has delegated specific tasks to the team and feels as though one of the nurse is resistant to the task delegated. What might be reasons that the nurse is resistant? (SATA) a) the task is well communicated b) the nurse feels overloaded c) the nurse feels incapable d) the task has a specific time frame e) the nurse has an inherent resistance to authorityb) the nurse feels overloaded c) the nurse feels incapable e) the nurse has an inherent resistance to authorityA charge nurse has delegated a task to a UAP. When the nurse is met with resistance, what is the best action? a) ask someone else to do it b) report the staff member to the NM c) just complete the task d) meet with the person to find out why the task was not completedd) meet with the person to find out why the task was not completedA charge nurse is delegating to a staff member who is resistant to authority. After delegating a task to the staff member, what action should she have the staff member do to ensure completion a) submit a progress report b) decide the best time to complete the task c) follow the directions exactly d) ensure the staff member has a voice in how the task is completedd) ensure the staff member has a voice in how the task is completedWhat is a common cause of resistance, refusal of delegated tasksFailure of delegator to see subordinates perspective and when tasks are over delegated in terms of specificityA member of a nursing team reports that being given too much to do, and that the member will not be able to complete the work on time. What action will the RN take to effectively manage this situation? a) have the team member perform only the necessary tasks b) assign the work to another team member c) take on the responsibility of the tasks d) examine the workload and assist the individual in reprioritizingd) examine the workload and help the person reprioritize the tasks *When calling the physician and following the SBAR process, which of the following items is included under the Situation criteria? A. Identify the patient's ethnicity and religious affiliation B. Briefly state the issue you want to discuss C. Inform the physician regarding the patient's roommates D. Describe patient's mental statusB. Briefly state the issue you want to discussRegarding the SBAR process, pertinent background information related to the situation includes: A. Socioeconomic status of the family B. List of current medications allergies, intravenous fluids, and laboratory results C. Patient's dietary needs before hospitalization D. Family history of diseaseB. List of current medications allergies, intravenous fluids, and laboratory resultsWhen conflict arises, regardless of the situation, what is the 1st step in finding a successful resolution? A. Avoiding the situation at hand B. Be self aware of your own feelings and emotions C. Involving a 3rd party to mediate the situation D. Finding faults in the other persons argumentB. Be self aware of your own feelings and emotionsA nurse was frustrated with her new assignment today with two critical patients. She came to the nurse manager for advice. Staffing on the floor was an issue lately. The nurse manage told the frustrating nurse she would do a great job as always, because she has great skills and personality with patients. Which strategy did the nurse manager use? A. Avoiding B. Smoothing C. Accommodating D. ComfortingB. SmoothingT/F Some level of conflict in an organization appears desirable, although the optimum level for a specific person or unit at a given time is difficult to determineTrueT/F Too little conflict does not result in organization stasisFalseT/F Too much conflict increases the organizations effectiveness and eventually immobile its employeesFalseThe leader manager is responsible for determining and creating an appropriate level of conflict on the individual unittrueA nurse is hired to replace a staff member who has resigned. After working on the unit for several weeks, the nurse notices that the unit manager does not intervene when there is a conflict between the team members, even when it escalates. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies is the unit manager demonstrating? A. Avoidance B. Smoothing C. Cooperation D. NegotiatingA. AvoidanceA nurse delegates a vital signs re-check on the patient in room 208 to a very busy PCA/NA. The PCA/NA disagrees that it is an urgent task as they are already too busy to go re-check the VS. They have a discussion after the PCA/NA said they can't do any other tasks right now. The nurse decides to do the VS recheck because she has medications to give in that room anyway but asks if the PCA/NA could get the 11am vitals instead. The PCA/NA decides this is more manageable for her schedule. This is an example of what conflict resolution strategy? A. Avoidance B. Smoothing C. Accommodating/ Cooperating D. NegotiatingC. Accommodating/ CooperatingA nurse manager of a busy cardiac unit observes disagreement between the RNs and LPNs related to schedules and nursing responsibilities. At a staff meeting, the manager compliments all the nurses on a job well done and points out that expected goals and outcomes for the month have been met. The nurse concludes the meeting without addressing the disagreements between the two groups of nurses. Which of the conflict resolution strategies is being employed by this manager? A. Collaborating B. Competing C. Compromisng D. SmoothingD. SmoothingThe nurse manager tells one of her staff nurses, "I don't have time to discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office later." When the nurse asks if they can talk about an issue. Which of the following conflict resolution strategies did she use? A. Smoothing B. Compromise C. Avoidance D. RestrictionC. AvoidanceWhat location of the SBAR charting tool states the patient's problem? A) Situation B) Background C) Assessment D) RecommendationAns: C) Assessment Feedback: Assessment is where the nurse states the patient's problem. The problem is not documented in any of the other SBAR locations.The nurse is the manager of a telemetry unit that is undergoing restructuring, resulting in a need for the nursing staff to accommodate both the telemetry unit and the medical rehab unit. Most of the staff on the telemetry unit have worked there for many years, and this change will create conflict. At what stage does this conflict exist? a. Manifest conflict stage b. Perceived conflict stage c. Latent conflict stage d. Felt conflict stagec. Latent conflict stageA registered nurse reports to the nurse-manager that the team's nursing assistant regularly fails to complete assigned tasks. The nurse-manager responds that it is the nurse's responsibility to talk with the nursing assistant about this problem. The manager is engaged in what aspect of conflict? a. Manifest conflict stage b. Perceived conflict stage c. Latent conflict stage d. Felt conflict stageb. Perceived conflict conflict that involves issues or roles- the other person may not know that he or she is causing a problemWhat stage of conflict is action taken that may be to withdraw, compete, debate or seek conflict resolution a. Latent conflict stage b. Perceived conflict stage c. Manifest conflict stage d. Felt conflict stageManifest conflict stageWhat stage of conflict is intellectualized and often involves issues and roles. The person recognizes it logically and impersonally as occurring but doesn't feel emotionally involved a. Latent conflict stage b. Perceived conflict stage c. Manifest d. Felt conflict stageb. Perceived conflictWhat is the 3rd stage of conflict that emotions such as hostility, fear, mistrust and anger occur a. Latent conflict stage b. Perceived conflict stage c. Manifest d. Felt conflict staged. felt conflict stageWhat is the final stage of conflict that can be positive or negative depending on how the conflict was managed a. Conflict aftermath b. Perceived conflict stage c. Manifest d. Felt conflict stagea. conflict aftermathA conflict between a nurse and a physician has reached the point where mediation is required. What should the nurse expect to occur during the mediation process? a. Compromising with the physician's point of view b. Expecting the physician to compromise with the nurse's point of view c. Having a neutral third party decide who is right in the conflict d. Having a neutral third party act as a negotiator.d. Having a neutral third party act as a negotiator.When managers urge subordinates to handle their own problems by using face-to-face communication. What conflict resolution strategy are they using A. Confrontation B. Third-party consultation C. Soothing One party D. Responsibility ChartingA. ConfrontationThis conflict resolution strategy is reserved for serious cases of dysfunctional conflict, This is an example of A. Confrontation B. Third-party consultation C. Behaviour Change D. Responsibility ChartingC. Behaviour ChangeIn responsibility charting conflict strategy implementation, parties A. Use manager as neutral party B. Come together and delineate the function & responsibility of roles C. Add an ombudsman D. Apply sensitivity trainingB. Come together and delineate the function & responsibility of rolesWhat is used to solve conflict by developing self-awareness by tools like educational models, training development or sensitivity training A. Confrontation B. Third-party consultation C. Behaviour Change D. Responsibility ChartingC. Behaviour ChangeWhen transferring or discharging people occurs, this is an example of what conflict strategy A. Third-party consultation B. Structure Change C. Behaviour Change D. Responsibility ChartingB. Structure ChangeWhat else occurs in structure change conflict resolution strategy. SATA A. Face-face communication B. Move dpt under another manager C. Adding an obudsman D. Putting a grievance procedure in place. E. Implement training developmentB. Move dpt under another manager C. Adding an obudsman D. Putting a grievance procedure in place.What are the 3 quality measurements as an organizational mandate of the JACHO1. ORYX 2. Core Measures 3. National Patient Safety goalsWhat is the Joint Commissionthe major health accrediting body for healthcare organization & programs in the U.S. It also administers the ORYX initiative and collect data on core measures to better standardize data collection across acute care hospitalsWhat do the core measures of JACHO includeAcute MI , Childrens asthma, ED, Hospital outpatient dpt, Inpatient psych, immunization, perinatal care, stroke, DVTWhich of the following would demonstrate the "hand-off" communication that The Joint Commission has set as a safety goal for patients? A. Nurses making walking rounds at the change of shift B. Asking another RN to cover for lunch C. Providing printed data on a patient prior to transport for a procedure D. Floating a nurse to another areaA. Nurses making walking rounds at the change of shiftThe Joint Commission (TJC) is a voluntary accrediting agency with nationally recognized performance standards. Hospitals accredited by the agency will most likely experience which of the following outcomes? A. Improved patient outcomes B. Dedicated staff C. Higher salaries D. Loss of practicing physiciansA. Improved patient outcomesOne of the most common and important standards of The Joint Commission (TJC) that affects nursing care deals with the management of pain. Which action is necessary to comply with this standard? A. Documentation of pain only with patient complaints of pain B. Providing for alternative pain medications C. Assessment of the use of therapeutics to alleviate pain D. Prescribing the correct dosage of pain medicationC. Assessment of the use of therapeutics to alleviate painNursing greatly influences scores on several measures of the HCAHPS survey, including the following (SATA) A. Communication with doctors B. Responses to call lights C. Pain management D. Medication teaching E. Discharge teachingB. Responses to call lights C. Pain management D. Medication teaching E. Discharge teachingWhat is HCAHPS?The first national, standardized, publicly reported survey of patients perspective of hospital care. Measures recently discharged patients perceptions of their hospital experienceWhich area of questioning is considered an illegal interview inquiry? A) Applicant's marital status B) The languages the applicant speaks or writes C) Inquiries about educational experiences D) Place of residenceA) Applicant's marital statusThe Joint Commission (TJC) measures the management of infections within the institution. By which of the following methods will TJC be able to measure the performance of an institution in managing infections A. Compliance with handwashing guidelines B. Tracking all infections over 1 month's time C. Interviewing patients and families D. Follow-up with staff on prevention measuresA. Compliance with handwashing guidelinesWhat is the first step in quality control? A) To take corrective action when standards have not been met B) To collect data to determine whether standards have been met C) To determine criteria and standards D) To determine who will measure the standardC) To determine criteria and standardsWhat is the second step in quality control? A) To take corrective action when standards have not been met B) To collect data to determine whether standards have been met C) To determine criteria and standards D) To determine who will measure the standardB) To collect data to determine whether standards have been metWhat is the third step in quality control? A) To take corrective action when standards have not been met B) To collect data to determine whether standards have been met C) To determine criteria and standards D) To determine who will measure the standardA) To take corrective action when standards have not been metWhich task is a management function associated with quality control? A) Periodic evaluation of unit mission and philosophy B) Making out the daily patient care assignments C) Creating a yearly budget D) Distributing holiday staffing policiesA) Periodic evaluation of unit mission and philosophyWhich is a true statement regarding TQM? A) It is based on the premise that the organization knows what is best for the consumer B) Its guiding purpose is to save the organization money C) It is based on the premise that the customer is the focal element on which production and service depend D) It assumes that inspection and removal of errors lead to the delivery of quality servicesC) It is based on the premise that the customer is the focal element on which production and service dependWhich statement is true regarding criteria for assuring that a quality control program will be effective? A) The primary purpose of the program is to satisfy various federal and state standards B) Developed standards should reflect minimally acceptable levels so the organization will score well on self-assessment audits C) A belief in the importance of quality control must be integrated through all levels of the organizational hierarchy D) The process should be reactive; in other words, quality improvement efforts should be initiated after problems are identifiedC) A belief in the importance of quality control must be integrated through all levels of the organizational hierarchyWhat is the best course of action to stimulate staff nurses involvement in quality control research on a nursing unit? A) Hire a well-qualified researcher to help staff design studies B) Create a joint medical/nursing staff research committee C) Provide staff with paid release time for research activities D) Ensure that research designs are well grounded and scientificC) Provide staff with paid release time for research activitiesWhich intervention is associated with the nursing leadership role in quality control ? A) Inspiring staff to establish and maintain high standards regarding patient care B) Being aware of the changes in quality control regulations C) Reviewing research results upon which to base changes D) Identifying outcomes that support quality nursing careA) Inspiring staff to establish and maintain high standards regarding patient care **Benner's Levels of Nursing Experiencenovice advanced beginner competent proficient expertNovice to expertNurse develop skills & understand of pt care over time through a sound educational base as well as experiencetransition to practiceAre all focused on helping nursing students bridge from school into employment . ex. Program for newly licensed nurses involving a 6-month preceptorship and ongoing support during the first year of professional practice.What should the manager do in completing an annual performance appraisal? A) Consider good intentions as well as actual performance B) Base the appraisal on a standard to which all are held accountable C) Always make an effort to include subjective data D) Closely observe the employee for the 2 weeks preceding the appraisal conferenceB) Base the appraisal on a standard to which all are held accountableWhat increases the likelihood that the performance appraisal will have a positive outcome? A) The manager refrains from making any comments about the worker's performance B) The employee is encouraged to identify three areas of satisfactory performance C) The employee provides input into developing the performance standards D) The manager identifies not more than three areas of deficient performanceC) The employee provides input into developing the performance standardsAlthough some subjectivity is inescapable in performance appraisals, what action can the manager take to arrive at a more fair and accurate assessment? A) Written anecdotal notes regarding the employee's performance should be maintained throughout the evaluation period B) Evaluation criteria that reflect on the employee as a person rather than just on work performance should be used C) Data gathered by the manager in preparation for the performance appraisal should be limited to not more than two sources, so no conflicting information is received D) The manager should rate all employees using central tendency whenever possibleA) Written anecdotal notes regarding the employee's performance should be maintained throughout the evaluation period4. Which statement accurately reflects self-appraisals? A) Self-appraisals are more objective than the other types of appraisals B) Self-appraisals provide an opportunity to give positive feedback to employees C) Self-appraisals usually require some introspection on the part of the employee D) Self-appraisals should be read before the supervisor does an appraisalC) Self-appraisals usually require some introspection on the part of the employeeWhy have health-care organizations been slow to adopt peer review? A) It tends to be an inaccurate performance appraisal tool B) Colleagues generally have little data they can contribute regarding a peer's work performance C) It requires staff be oriented to the process effectively D) It works better for professionals such as physicians than for nursesC) It requires staff be oriented to the process effectivelyWhy is peer review difficult to implement in health care organization? A) It tends to be an inaccurate performance appraisal tool B) Colleagues generally have little data they can contribute regarding a peer's work performance C) It develops professional accountability D) It requires risk taking to avoid becoming simply an exercise of advocacyD) It requires risk taking to avoid becoming simply an exercise of advocacyWhat does the Joint Commission advocate about employee performance appraisals? A) They be conducted at least every 6 months B) They be based on employee job descriptions C) They be documented by anecdotal notes D) They be reflective of employees' personal goalsA) They be conducted at least every 6 monthsThe nurse-manager is preparing for the unit ward clerk's annual evaluation and sends out a short questionnaire requesting feedback on the ward clerk's effectiveness in her job. The nurse-manager sent the request to one doctor who uses the unit frequently, to a staff nurse on each shift, to the housekeeping department head, and to the head of the volunteer program. In addition, the nurse-manager interviews three patients to determine how courteous the ward clerk is when answering call lights from the unit desk. What is this an example of? A) Peer review B) A 360-degree evaluation C) An overreaching performance review D) An anecdotal performance reviewB) A 360-degree evaluation **Which statement is true regarding the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS)? A) Has long been used as a performance appraisal tool in the health-care industry B) Requires that a separate rating form be developed for each job classification C) Is often referred to as a free-form review D) Is a rapidly scored and administered performance appraisal toolAns: B Requires that a separate rating form be developed for each job classification Feedback:The BARS key areas of responsibility are delineated and ranked by importance. This system reduces subjectivity, but has the drawback of being time-consuming.Which method rates a person against a set standard, which may be the job description, desired behaviors, or personal traits? A) Trait Rating Scale B) Checklist C) Essay D) MBOsA) Trait rating scale Feedback:Trait Rating Scale is a method of rating a person against a set standard, which may be the job description, desired behaviors, or personal traits. The Trait Rating Scale has been one of the most widely used of the many available appraisal methods. None of the other options rates a person against a set standard.Which statement is true regarding the Job-dimension scales? A) Has long been used as a performance appraisal tool in the health-care industry B) Requires that a separate rating form be developed for each job classification C) Is often referred to as a free-form review D) Rates the performance on job requirementsD) Rates the performance on job requirementsWhich area of questioning is considered an illegal interview inquiry? SATA A) Age B) Children C) Inquiries about educational experiences D) National origin E) ReligionA) Age B) Children D) National origin E) ReligionWhat is the primary goal of a performance appraisal? A) Promotion of employee growth B) Compliance with stated regulations C) Identification of ineffective staff D) Providing a basis for staff wage increasesA) Promotion of employee growthWhich is a common pitfall of performance appraisal? A. Excessive strictness B. Being overly objective C. Overemphasizing recent performance rather than taking the long view D. VaguenessC. Overemphasizing recent performance rather than taking the long viewIf an employee is often late for work, and this unduly affects his or her performance appraisal, this is an example of A. The halo effect B. The recency effect C. The horns effect D. Central tendencyC. The horns effectWhen one or two positive aspects influence all other aspects of the employees performance during the appraisal, is an example of A. The halo effect B. The recency effect C. The horns effect D. Central tendencyA. Halo effectA manager who falls into the trap hesistant to true assessment and "plays safe" is using what strategy of performance appraisal A. The halo effect B. The recency effect C. The horns effect D. Central tendencyD. Central tendencyWhen the appraisal allows recent issues to be weighed more heavily than past performance A. The halo effect B. The recency effect C. The horns effect D. Central tendencyB. The recency effectWhat are McGregor's Hot Stove Rules for Fair and Effective DisciplineForewarning-if you touch the stove you will be burned Immediate consequences-the burn itself Consistency-each time you touch the stove the burn will occur Impartiality-if another person touches the stove they will also get burnedWhich statement accurately describes the initial deterrent against breaking a rule according to McGregor's Hot Stove Rules? A) All discipline should be administered immediately after rules are broken B) Each time the rule is broken; there are immediate and consistent consequences C) All employees should be made aware of the rules associated with punishments before hand when setting this standard D) Everyone must be treated in the same manner when the rule is brokeC) All employees should be made aware of the rules associated with punishments before hand when setting this standard **What is the primary difference between constructive and destructive discipline? A) The manager is friendlier to the employee in constructive discipline than indestructive discipline, so that the employee likes the manager as a person B) Constructive discipline includes verbal and written reprimands, whereas destructive discipline includes suspension without pay and termination C) The person who has received constructive discipline always appreciates and believes the feedback given, whereas it is resented and disbelieved in destructive discipline D) Constructive discipline helps the person to grow and to behave in a manner that allows him or her to be self-directive in meeting organizational goals. Destructive discipline focuses more on punishmentD) Constructive discipline helps the person to grow and to behave in a manner that allows him or her to be self-directive in meeting organizational goals. Destructive discipline focuses more on punishmentT/F in constructive discipline employees are always alert to impending penaltyFalseT/F in constructive discipline employees are reassured that punishment is given bc of action not bc of who they areTrueT/F In destructive discipline threats and fear control behaviortrueT/F In destructive discipline the applications of rules if fair and not arbitrarily administered nor unfairFalseWhich area of questioning is considered a suggested interview format? SATA A) Make a brief statement about organization B) Clarify the position C) Discuss applicants financial status D) Discuss applicants sexual preference E)Seek clarification or amplification as necessaryA) Make a brief statement about organization B) Clarify the position E)Seek clarification or amplification as necessaryWhat should the interviewer do to increase the reliability and validity of an interview? A) Conduct single, rather than multiple, interviews B) Trust his or her first impressions of an applicant C) Avoid taking notes during the interview D) Develop a structured interview formatD) Develop a structured interview formatWhich is an appropriate strategy for planning, conducting, and controlling the interview? A) When an applicant clearly does not have the proper qualifications for a position, the interviewer should be tactful, but advise the applicant as soon as possible that there is a lack of appropriate qualifications for the job B) Personal questions should be asked early during the interview process so a rapport can be established between the interviewer and the applicant C) The interviewer should develop questions that can be answered with a yes or no answer D) The interviewer should assess an applicants perceptive skills by sending nonverbal cues to the applicant during his or her responsesA) When an applicant clearly does not have the proper qualifications for a position, the interviewer should be tactful, but advise the applicant as soon as possible that there is a lack of appropriate qualifications for the jobWhat should selectors do when processing the employment application? A) Accept the resume as an honest and objective source of data regarding the applicant B) Require a physical examination before making a hiring decision C) Always follow up on references and verify employment history D) Use unsolicited personal information about an applicant as a valid reason for jobC) Always follow up on references and verify employment historyWhich question asked during an interview is acceptable? A) Are you married? B) Have you ever been arrested? C) What is your religious preference? D) What professional organizations do you belong to?D) What professional organizations do you belong to?What must be completed before a position is offered? A) Physical examination B) Preemployment testing C) Reference check D) Personal interviewC) Reference checkIn checking the background of a potential candidate for hire, which is the least frequently checked source? A) Academic credentials B) References of former employers C) References of recent teachers D) Verification of work historyA) Academic credentialsThe manager may be greatly or minimally involved with recruiting, interviewing, and selecting personnel. What factors are important to consider in this process? 1. Size of the institution 2. Existence of a separate personnel department 3. Presence of a nurse recruiter within the organization 4. Use of decentralized nursing management system only A) 1, 3, 4 B) 1, 2, 3 C) 1, 2, 4 D) 2, 3, 4B) 1, 2, 3 1. Size of the institution 2. Existence of a separate personnel department 3. Presence of a nurse recruiter within the organizationWhich statement about the role of unit managers in recruitment and selection is accurate? A) The more centralized nursing management is and the more complex the personnel department, the greater the involvement of the unit manager B) Unit managers should always leave such decisions to a centralized personnel department so consistency can be maintained C) Regardless of the extent of their involvement, all managers must be aware of recruitment and selection constraints within their organization D) Unit managers should assume total responsibility for recruitment and selection of personnel on their unitsC) Regardless of the extent of their involvement, all managers must be aware of recruitment and selection constraints within their organizationWhat should managers do to maintain adequate staff in their organization? A) Proactively plan to hire two RNs for each unit each year B) Use knowledge of turnover rates on their units for planning and hiring C) Look at staff-to-patient ratios at other health-care organizations in the area D) Hire consultants to study national turnover rates to determine recruitment needsB) Use knowledge of turnover rates on their units for planning and hiringWhat is the best way to maintain adequate employee poolword of mouth - the recommendation of the organizations own satisfied staff and happy staffT/F Recruitment is the key to adequate staffing long termFalseT/F Retenetion is the key to adequate staffing long termtrueWhen does retention occur?Only when organization is able to crate a work environment that makes staff want to stayWhat portion of GRRRR is being used when you listen without interrupting and pauses to allow others to think ? A) Greeting B) Respectful listening C) Review D) Recommend or request more informationB) Respectful listeningWhat portion of GRRRR is being used when the speaker summarizes the information conveyed to make sure the message was understood correctly? A) Greeting B) Respectful listening C) Review D) Recommend or request more informationAns: C) Review Feedback: Review occurs when the speaker summarizes the information he/she has conveyed to make sure the message was understood correctly. Once the speaker is finished conveying this summary and the other party has validated or clarified it, the listener has enough information to recommend or request more information. This does not occur in any of the other portions of the model.What portion of GRRRR is being used when you recognize collaborative exchange by offering thanks ? A) Greeting B) Respectful listening C) Reward D) Recommend or request more informationC) RewardWhat portion of GRRRR is when you establish a positive environment A) Greeting B) Respectful listening C) Review D) Recommend or request more informationGreetingWhen you seek additional information, What portion of GRRRR is being used A) Greeting B) Respectful listening C) Review D) Recommend or request more informationD) Recommend or request more informationWhich of the following is an example of incivility in the workplace? A. Giving one nurse, who is suffering a family crisis, a light assignment, which means the other nurses have to do more B. Discussing an error that occurred with a group of nurses on the unit C. Reprimanding a nurse who made an error in front of staff so that everyone can learn from the mistake D. Workgroup cohesionC. Reprimanding a nurse who made an error in front of staff so that everyone can learn from the mistakeWhich of the following is true regarding horizontal violence? A. Horizontal violence is a sentinel event. B. Horizontal violence is rare on nursing units. C. Bullying only occurs as horizontal violence. D. New graduates often experience incivility from their superiors.A. Horizontal violence is a sentinel event.Which of the following is the best way to address bullying behaviors? A. Report bullying to the bully's nurse manager. B. Establish a minimal tolerance policy for incivility. C. Avoid confronting bullies D. Look to managers to model appropriate behavior.D. Look to managers to model appropriate behaviorT/F An example of bullying is eye rolling and other nonverbal behaviorsFalseT/F The ANA defines bullying as repeated, unwanted harmful actions intended to humiliate, offend and cause distress in the recipientTrueT/F Incivility is the continuum with disruptive behaviors including eye rolling and other nonverbal behaviors, sarcasm, intimidation and physical violenceTrueT/F Backstabbing, swearing, making threats, invading space, refusing to help are examples of bullyingTrueWhat are the four evidence-based standards identified by the Leapfrog Group to reduce medical errors? A) Computerized physician/provider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scores B) Computerized physician/provider order entry, evidence-based visiting nurse referral, ED physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scores C) Computerized primary care provider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Medication scores D) Computerized nurse practitioner/provider order entry, evidence-based outpatient referral, ED physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Medication scoresA) Computerized physician/provider order entry, evidence-based hospital referral, ICU physician staffing, and the use of Leapfrog Safe Practices scoresWhat are leapfrog initiatives to prevent medical errorsReform medical liability system Offer point of care strategies Bar coding Smart IV pumps Med reconciliationWhat is the name of the stage of a career where nurses are experienced clinicians with expert knowledge, skills, abilities, credentials, and education base? A. Promise B. Momentum C. Harvest D. LegacyAns: B Momentum Feedback: momentum is the middle career phase and typically reflects the nurse with 11 to 29 years of experience. Nurses in this phase are experience clinicians with expert knowledge, skills, abilities, credentials, and education base.The promise phase of career development typically reflects how many years of initial nursing employment'? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 10D) 10What is the name of the stage of a career where nurses are gaining exposure to variety of experiences, identifying strengths and building confidence and positioning for the future? A. Promise B. Momentum C. Harvest D. LegacyA. PromiseWhat career stage milestones include elevating mastery to sage practice for advancing the profession and position as a professional statesperson and establishing a legacy? A. Promise B. Momentum C. Harvest D. LegacyC. HarvestT/f The evaluation of the interview is the requirements of the job-qualified versus over-qualifiedTruePersonal bias in evaluation of the interviewexamine any negative feelings in the interview for personal bias