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Terms in this set (270)

1 . A compass locator is when a radio beacon is used in conjunction with what system?
Instrument Landing System markers.
2 . When are voice transmissions NOT made on radio beacons?
When the letter "W" is included in the class designator.
3 . When does noisy identification of a radio beacon usually occur?
When the ADF needle is erratic.
4 . True or false? Altitude affects your ability to receive VORs.
True, VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions and range varies proportionally to the altitude of the receiving equipment.
5 . What is the only positive method of identifying a VOR?
The Morse Code identification or recorded automatic voice identification.
6 . Propeller revolutions or helicopter rotor speeds can affect VOR Course Deviation Indicator and cause it to fluctuate by as much as:
+/- 6 degrees.
7 . What is a VOT?
An FAA VOR test facility.
8 . To accomplish VOR equipment accuracy checks prior to flight under instrument conditions, the pilot may use which of the following?
Certified check points on the airport surface.
9 . When a dual VOR is installed and one system is checked against the other what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings?
4 degrees.
10 . A DME works by sending out paired pulses from the aircraft which are then received at the ground station. The ground station then:
Transmits the paired pulses back on a different frequency and the measurement of the round trip is translated into distance.
11 . When is a NAVAID classified as restricted?
If it does not conform to flight inspection signal strength and course quality standards throughout the published SSV.
12 . An NDB classed as "MH" can be used for navigation out to:
25 nautical miles.
13 . The ILS ground system is comprised of what?
Two directional transmitting systems and three (or fewer) marker beacons.
14 . Range information for an ILS is provided by the marker beacon and DME. Guidance information is provided by:
Localizer and glideslope transmitters.
15 . When is "Flying away from the needle" required? Choose any combination of: A) When the aircraft's ILS equipment does not include reverse sensing capability, B) When the aircraft's sensor is misaligned, C) when flying inbound on the back course, and/or D) when flying outbound on the front course of the localizer.
A and either C or D.
16 . If you are within 25 degrees of the course, the localizer course will provide proper course guidance throughout the descent path to the runway threshold from a distance of:
10 nautical miles from the antenna.
17 . How wide vertically is the glidepath beam transmitted by the glideslope transmitter?
1.4 degrees.
18 . DME may be used when installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedure:
1. as OM
2. As a back course final approach fix.
3. to establish other fixes
19 . A Category II ILS approach requires a minimum RVR of:
1,200 feet.
20 . ILS Critical Areas are areas established near each localizer and glideslope antenna to protect against:
Signal interference by surface vehicles and/or aircraft.
21 . Aircraft holding between the outer marker and the airport is not authorized below 5000 feet when visibility conditions are less than:
Ceiling 800 feet and/or visibility 2 miles.
1 . If intermittent or constant signals are received from a NAVAID but has no coded identification it is:
Undergoing routine or emergency maintenance and may be unreliable.
2 . What information is NOT required in a report on NAVAID Performance or Interference to the FAA?
Weather conditions at the time of the malfunction.
3 . Who is responsible for operating and monitoring GPS satellites?
Department of Defense.
4 . How many satellites must be in view of the receiver for the RAIM to isolate a corrupt satellite signal and remove it from the navigation solution?
Six satellites or 5 satellites with baro-aiding.
5 . The first two letters of a VFR waypoint name are:
VP.
6 . When may a hand-held GPS system be used for IFR flight using GPS navigation?
As an aid to situational awareness only.
7 . True or False? An airport which has only a GPS approach may be used as a destination airport.
True, if the alternate airport is not filed as a GPS-based IAP.
8 . If completing an approach using GPS and the RAIM flag/status annunciation appears after the final approach waypoint, what should the pilot do?
Execute an immediate missed approach.
9 . True or False? During GPS navigation with an RNAV system, distance and track information are provided to the next fixed navigation aid.
False, distance and track information are provided to the next active waypoint.
10 . When utilizing GPS navigation and differences between the approach chart and the GPS avionics' application of the navigation database arise which holds precedence?
The published approach chart, supplemented by NOTAMs.
11 . If the approach mode is not armed by 2 NM prior to the FAWP what should the pilot do?
Fly to the MAWP and execute a missed approach.
12 . If the missed approach is activated prior to the MAWP it will cause CDI sensitivity to immediately change to terminal sensitivity and the receiver:
Will not sequence past the MAWP.
13 . The system that will allow GPS to be used as the aviation navigation system from takeoff through Category I precision approaches is:
WAAS.
14 . Advantages of RNAV routes and procedures include which of the following:
Reduced dependence on required ATC radio transmissions.
15 . An RNAV leg that is intercepted and acquired as the flight track to the following waypoint is a:
Track to fix.
16 . An RNAV leg that is defined as a constant radius circular path around a defined turn center that terminates at a fix is a:
Radius to fix.
17 . When may flights navigating with RNAV use an alternate airport that requires the use of GPS?
When the RNAV system uses TSO-C145/-C146 WAAS equipment.
1 . Approach light systems start at the landing threshold and extend how far for non-precision instrument runways?
1400 - 1500 feet into the approach area.
2 . For an airport utilizing a 3 bar VASI system, when above both glidepaths the pilot will see the light bars reflecting:
Far - white, middle - white, near - white.
3 . When using precision approach path indicators, what is the visual signal that the aircraft is on the glidepath?
2 lights are red.
4 . When a tri-color visual approach slope indicator is in use, what color indicates that the aircraft is below the appropriate glidepath?
Red.
5 . The light system consisting of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold is the:
REIL.
6 . Runway edge lights outline the edges of runways in restricted visibility conditions. Runway edge lights appear as which of the following:
Yellow on the last 2,000 feet on instrument runways.
7 . Touchdown zone lights are installed on some precision approach runways to indicate the touchdown zone when landing under adverse visibility conditions. Touchdown zone lights begin 100 feet beyond the landing threshold and extend to:
3,000 feet or to the midpoint of the runway.
8 . Land and hold short lights consist of what kind of lights?
A row of pulsing white lights across the runway.
9 . Which light system indicates when it is unsafe to enter, cross, takeoff from, or land on a runway?
RWSL.
10 . Radio control of lighting is available at selected airports to provide airborne control of lights by keying the aircraft's microphone. To set approach lights to high intensity how many mike clicks are required?
7.
11 . An airport beacon which flashes yellow indicates a:
Lighted water airport.
12 . How is a military airport beacon differentiated from lighted land airport?
Dualpeaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
13 . Runway Guard lights consist of:
A pair of elevated flashing yellow lights on either side of the taxiway or a row of in-pavement yellow lights installed across the entire taxiway at the holding position.
14 . If you have received ATC clearance to proceed onto or across the runway but the red stop bar lights are illuminated what should you do?
Do not cross the stop bar.
15 . A structure, other than a building, must be painted aviation orange and white if it exceeds what height?
500 ft AGL.
16 . The runway centerline consists of:
A line of uniformly spaced stripes and gaps.
17 . What markings signify a displaced threshold?
A ten foot wide white threshold bar along the width of the runway with white arrows along the centerline behind the displaced threshold.
18 . True or False? Chevrons mark areas that are useable for taxiing only.
False, chevrons mark pavement areas aligned with the runway unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing.
19 . Surface painted taxiway direction signs are provided where on the taxiway pavement?
Adjacent to the centerline either left or right depending on the direction of the turn.
20 . When the instruction "cleared to land runway "xx," hold short of runway "yy"" is received from ATC the pilot should:
Either exit or stop at the holding position prior to runway "yy".
21 . VOR Receiver Checkpoints are marked with:
A white and yellow painted circle with an arrow in the middle aligned in the direction of the checkpoint azimuth.
22 . A runway holding position sign displaying "15-33" would indicate that the threshold for Runway 33 is:
To the right.
1 . When flying VFR in Class C airspace horizontal distance from clouds must remain at:
2000 feet.
2 . When flying VFR at night in Class G airspace at 10,000 feet MSL, flight visibility must be at least:
5 statute miles.
3 . How many classes of controlled airspace are there?
5.
4 . Class A airspace is defined as the airspace from 18,000 feet MSL up to:
And including FL 600.
5 . Which of the following is an equipment requirement for operation in Class B airspace?
An operable radar beacon transponder with automatic altitude reporting equipment.
6 . In Class B airspace VFR aircraft are separated from all VFR/IFR aircraft weighing 19,000 pounds or less by a minimum of:
All of the answers are correct.
7 . Class C airspace usually consists of a core surface area that extends from the surface up to what height above the airport elevation?
4,000 feet AGL.
8 . In order to operate in Class C airspace an aircraft must be equipped with a two-way radio and:
An operable radar beacon transponder.
9 . What does it mean if you call ATC prior to entering Class C airspace and the controller does not respond using the aircraft identification?
Radio communications have not been established; do not enter Class C airspace.
10 . Class D airspace is typically that airspace surrounding airports with an operational control tower from the surface up to what height?
2,500 feet.
11 . Which of the following is NOT a type of Class E airspace?
Air Defense Zones.
12 . What is a correct IFR altitude when flying IFR in uncontrolled airspace if your magnetic course is 156 degrees?
All of the answers are correct.
13 . In what airspace are activities confined because of their nature or limitations imposed upon aircraft operations not a part of those activities?
Special use airspace.
14 . Airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft is subject to restrictions due to unusual hazards to aircraft such as artillery fire is designated as a:
Restricted area.
15 . What airspace is established at locations where increased security and safety of ground facilities is necessary and which flight through may be temporarily prohibited?
National Security Areas.
16 . Military Training Routes are generally established below what height for operations at speeds in excess of 250 knots?
10,000 feet.
17 . ATC clearance is required to fly which of the following routes?
Class B airspace VFR Transition route.
18 . A corridor through which an aircraft may pass while surrounded on all sides by Class B airspace but does not extend down to the surface and is not itself Class B airspace is a:
VFR Corridor.
1 . Air traffic facilities which provide pilot briefings, flight plan processing, en route flight advisories, search and rescue services, and assistance to lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations are:
Flight Service Stations (FSSs).
2 . When operating at an airport without an operating tower how can a pilot communicate their intention and/or obtain airport/traffic information? Choose any combination of A) Contact an FSS (in Alaska), B) Contact a UNICOM, C) Use light signals, and/or D) make a self-announce broadcast.
A, B, or D.
3 . When communicating with a UNICOM station a pilot should:
State the identification of the UNICOM station in each transmission.
4 . The protected service volume of an ATIS for arrival transmissions is normally:
20 to 60 NM from the ATIS site and a maximum of 25,000 feet AGL.
5 . True or False? Radar Traffic information is routinely provided to all aircraft operating on IFR flight plans.
True, except for flights operating within Class A airspace.
6 . What basic radar services are provided for VFR aircraft?
All of the answers are correct.
7 . When communicating with ATC the transponder code 2300 should be read:
Two three zero zero.
8 . Which transponder code indicates a hijack?
7500.
1 . After changing frequencies and prior to making a radio call you should:
Pause to ensure the frequency is clear.
2 . On initial contact to a given facility, the second item to be stated is:
Your full aircraft identification.
3 . When should you include the frequency on which you expect a reply in an initial contact with a ground station?
When contacting a remote FSS or when transmitting and receiving frequencies are different.
4 . When may call signs be abbreviated?
After an initial contact when no other aircraft with similar numbers or sounds is in the area.
5 . Civilian air ambulance flights responding to medical emergencies will be expedited by ATC when necessary. To utilize this option when should you use the call sign "MEDEVAC" in radio communications?
Before the aircraft registration letters/numbers.
6 . The proper phonetic alphabet spelling of "BUMPY" intersection is:
Bravo, Uniform, Mike, Papa, Yankee.
7 . The airway "V12", shall be spoken as:
Victor Twelve.
8 . When communicating "FL 180" it should be stated as:
Flight Level one eight zero.
9 . The magnetic heading 176 should be communicated as:
Heading one seven six.
10 . When communicating speed it should be provided by stating the separate digits:
Followed by knots or preceded by mach.
11 . FAA uses Coordinated Universal Time (UTC or Z) for all operations. To convert from Mountain Standard Time to UTC while DST is in effect, you should:
Add 6 hours.
12 . When reading time it should be stated beginning with the word "time" and then:
Each number stated separately followed by the fraction of the nearest quarter minute.
13 . If your transmitter is inoperative and you are operating under VFR during the day with the intention to enter Class D airspace, you can acknowledge tower transmissions by:
Rocking your wings (fixed-wing), or making shallow banks in opposite directions (rotor-wing).
14 . What should you do if your transmitter is inoperative while flying in VMC and you are approaching Class D airspace and need to land at a controlled airport?
Remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the traffic flow has been determined then join the airport traffic pattern.
15 . True or False? If you experience radio failure prior to departure from an airport with a control tower you may depart without two-way radio communications.
True, if tower authorization is granted.
1 . When should the initial callup to a control tower be initiated?
About 15 miles from the airport.
2 . What system is designed to provide traffic pattern information at airports without an operating control tower?
A segmented circle visual indicator system.
3 . At airports where no runway use program is established and the wind is 5 knots or more, ATC will assign a runway:
Most nearly aligned with the wind.
4 . When reporting the quality of braking action a pilot should include what information?
Part of the runway and the particular type of aircraft.
5 . The equivalent Runway Condition Code (RwyCC) for a braking action of Nil is:
0.
6 . When performing an intersection takeoff, controllers will separate small aircraft departing from an intersection behind a large aircraft on the same runway by ensuring what interval exists between takeoffs?
Three minutes.
7 . When performing a LAHSO on landing when should the pilot exit the runway?
At the first convenient taxiway before reaching the hold short point.
8 . Air Traffic Control Light signals can be used to communicate with ground crew and aircraft when radio contact cannot be established. When an aircraft on the ground is responding to light signals a flashing red light means:
Taxi clear of the runway in use.
9 . Most ground control frequencies are in what bandwith?
121.6-121.9 MHz.
10 . Readback of taxi instructions should include:
The runway assignment.
11 . An aircraft is considered clear of the runway when:
All parts of the aircraft are past the runway edge.
12 . When are anticollision lights required to be operated?
...
13 . The hand signal which signifies an "All Clear" is:
Right hand up and left pointing down at the ground.
14 . At uncontrolled airports equipped with ASOS/AWSS/AWOS the one-minute updated airport weather should be available at what distance from the airport?
25 NM below 10,000 feet.
1 . True or False? ATC is responsible for providing the separation for IFR and VFR flights.
False, ATC provides standard separation only between IFR flights.
2 . Which of the following does an ATC clearance generally contain?
All of the answers are correct.
3 . If you are issued a short-range clearance from ATC that clearance is issued to:
A fix within or just outside the terminal area.
4 . If a controller issues a clearance which includes the term "MAINTAIN" this requires the pilot to:
Maintain an assigned altitude or flight level.
5 . True or False? When an aircraft has been cleared to a fix other than the destination airport and delay is expected ATC will not provide holding instructions when they are published in the appropriate chart.
True, the controller may omit holding instructions unless the pilot requests them.
6 . When is ATC clearance required for operations within a Class B, C, D, or E surface area when the weather is less than that required for VFR flight?
Prior to entering that airspace.
7 . What is the required flight visibility when operating Special VFR in controlled airspace?
1 SM.
8 . Where is clearance obtained if in a Class B, C, or D surface area and the pilot wishes a special VFR clearance?
The control tower if one is located within the area.
9 . Which of the following does not require a pilot readback?
None of the answers is correct.
10 . In which airspace will VFR-on-top operations NOT be authorized?
Class A.
11 . If the controller uses the term, "IMMEDIATELY", in a climb clearance the pilot is expected to:
Execute the instructions as promptly as possible.
12 . When radar is employed in the separation of aircraft at the same altitude, aircraft operating more than 40 miles from the radar antenna site are separated by a minimum of:
5 miles.
13 . What is the minimum speed to which ATC may request adjustment for arriving turbojet aircraft operating below 10,000 feet within 20 flying miles of the airport of intended landing?
170 knots.
14 . When expected to take off expeditiously ATC will issue the clearance with the word:
Immediate.
15 . What is one of the two methods utilized to effect visual separation in terminal areas and en route airspace?
The tower sees aircraft involved and issues instructions to ensure the aircraft avoid each other.
16 . Acceptance of a visual clearance whereby the pilot will provide visual separation from another aircraft means he is also responsible for:
Notifying ATC if visual contact is lost with the other aircraft.
17 . When should gentle banks to the left and right be performed to assist in visual clearing?
Climbs and descents.
18 . When undergoing flight instruction at any level what clearing procedure is suggested?
All of the answers are correct.
19 . The collision avoidance system that provides proximity warning only and is intended for use by smaller commuter aircraft holding less than 30 passengers is:
TCAS I.
20 . When flying in RVSM airspace with a magnetic course of 187° which of the following would be an appropriate flight level?
FL 360.
21 . An equipment suffix is required when filing a flight plan for RVSM. The equipment suffix provides what information to ATC?
Authorization and navigation and/or transponder capability.
22 . What may occur when strong winds blow perpendicular to mountain ranges resulting in up and down wave motions in the atmosphere?
Mountain Wave Activity (MWA).
1 . True or False? FSSs are required to advise of pertinent NOTAMs when a briefing is requested.
True if a standard briefing is requested. Printed NOTAMs in the Notices to Airmen Publication are not normally furnished during briefing.
2 . When requesting a preflight briefing, the pilot has to provide all of the following except:
Number of passengers.
3 . What system provides time critical aeronautical information that is not available on charts?
NOTAMs.
4 . What are the five categories of NOTAMs? Choose any combination of: A) Military, B) Flight Data Center, C) Local, and/or D) Distant.
A, B, and D, as well as Pointer and Special Activity.
5 . What type of information is provided in an FDC NOTAM?
Temporary Flight Restrictions.
6 . True or False? A flight plan is not required for VFR flight.
True, except for operations in or penetrating a coastal or domestic ADIZ or DEWIZ.
7 . How long is a VFR flight plan held by FSS?
Until 1 hour after the proposed departure time.
8 . If a pilot has filed a composite flight plan with the first portion of the flight in IFR, clearance will be provided up to:
The point at which the change is proposed.
9 . True or False? IFR flight plans should be filed at least 30 minutes prior to the estimated departure time.
True for IFR operations below FL 230.
10 . In order to provide FAA traffic management units strategic route planning capabilities, when is it requested that a nonscheduled operator file an IFR flight plan for a flight above FL230?
4 hours prior to ETD.
11 . If a flight is planned from Albany, New York via Jet Route 37 transitioning to Jet Route 14 at Smyrna VORTAC (ENO), and thence via Jet Route 14 to Birmingham, Alabama, which is a proper coding for the flight plan?
ALB J37 ENO J14 BHM.
12 . When using VOR, VORTAC, or TACAN aids in operations above FL 450 the aids should be no more than:
200 NM apart.
13 . When planning and filing a Random RNAV flight route the random route should be defined by:
Waypoints.
14 . Customs notification is required for a flight to Canada and a predeparture flight plan cannot be filed. How should the pilot notify the customs office for the destination airport?
Establish radio communication en route with FSS who will notify the customs office.
15 . If arriving in the U.S. via the U.S./Mexican border from a foreign place south of 33 degrees north latitude a notice of arrival to Customs can be provided via:
All of the answers are acceptable methods.
16 . Pilots should notify ATC or the nearest FSS of departure time when a delay of what time period is expected?
2 hours or more.
17 . When on an IFR flight plan to an airport with a functioning control tower how should the pilot close the flight plan?
It will be automatically closed upon landing.
18 . Which of the following is a method for canceling an IFR flight plan to an airport without a functioning control tower?
Via radio to ATC while still airborne.
19 . When is RAIM prediction not required for RNAV flights?
When WAAS coverage is confirmed to be available along the entire route of flight.
20 . Aircraft utilizing the Pre-Departure Clearance (PDC) function of the TDLS may expect their departure clearance to arrive verbally when:
Clearance is revised or modified prior to delivery.
21 . When instructed to line up and wait and ATC clearance has not been received within a reasonable time frame what should the pilot do?
Query ATC.
22 . A clearance void time cannot exceed what time limit?
30 minutes.
23 . An instrument departure procedure preplanned in IFR procedures that is printed either textually or graphically and is recommended for obstruction clearance is a(n):
Obstacle Departure Procedure.
24 . The obstacle identification surface assessment area in nonmountainous areas is limited to what distance from the airport?
25 NM.
1 . Direct communications with IFR air traffic en route at high altitudes are provided by:
ARTCCs.
2 . If a controller instructs you to change frequencies and you cannot establish communications on the new frequency, how long should the pilot wait before attempting to recontact on another frequency?
At least 60 seconds.
3 . If an ARTCC radio frequency failure occurs after two-way communications have been established the pilot should:
Attempt to reestablish contact on any other known ARTCC frequency.
4 . Reporting points shown as an open triangle are reporting points that require reporting:
When requested by ATC.
5 . What is considered the actual time over the fix when an aural or light panel indication is used?
The average between the time the signal is first received and the time when it ceases.
6 . Which of the following reports should only be provided on request from ATC or an FSS?
Position report when passing an "on request" reporting point.
7 . The VOR and L/MF airway system consists of airways designated from an elevation up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL. What is the lower elevation limit of this system?
1,200 feet above the surface.
8 . A point along the route or airway segment between two adjacent navigation facilities or waypoints where changeover in navigation guidance should occur is a(n):
Changeover Point (COP).
9 . When clearance beyond the fix has not been received and the aircraft is 3 minutes or less from the clearance limit the pilot should:
Start a speed reduction in order to cross the fix at or below the maximum holding speed.
10 . The inbound leg of a holding pattern above 14,000 ft. MSL should take:
1 1/2 minutes.
11 . Which procedure requires a turn outbound to a heading for a 30 degree entry within the pattern?
Teardrop Procedure.
1 . Pilots navigating on STAR procedures provided clearance to "descend via" are authorized to:
All of the answers are correct.
2 . After release to approach control, arriving aircraft are vectored to the final approach course. If an approach clearance has not been issued the pilot is expected to:
Query the controller.
3 . When will advance IAPs not be furnished?
When visibility is three miles or better.
4 . MSAs provide what clearance over all obstructions?
1,000 feet.
5 . The obstacle clearance in mountainous areas for Minimum Vectoring Altitudes is:
2,000 feet.
6 . The approach minimum used by a Category B airplane operating at 150 knots on a straight-in approach must use what category minimum?
Category D.
7 . A procedure turn or hold-in-lieu of procedure turn is not permitted when:
All of the answers are correct.
8 . When is ATC clearance for a procedure turn required?
Timed approach from a holding fix.
9 . Which of the following conditions must be met in order to conduct a timed approach from a holding fix?
A control tower is in operation at the airport where the approaches are conducted.
10 . An approach in which a controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only is known as:
A surveillance approach (ASR).
11 . If your directional gyro or other stabilized compass is inoperative, or your aircraft is not equipped with a directional gyro or other stabilized compass you may request what approach?
No-Gyro Approach.
12 . How does a dependent parallel approach differ from an independent simultaneous approach?
Minimum distance between runway centerlines is reduced.
13 . When executing a simultaneous parallel ILS approach (independent), when is radar monitoring automatically terminated?
When the pilot reports the approach lights or runway in sight.
14 . What approach procedure is used to conduct simultaneous approaches to runways spaced less than 3,000 feet, but at least 750 feet apart?
Simultaneous Offset Instrument Approach (SOIA).
15 . If you receive a TCAS RA after an ATC breakout instruction is issued you should follow the RA. When should you notify ATC?
As soon as practicable.
16 . A volume of airspace above an area beginning at the runway threshold, at the threshold elevation, and centered on the extended runway centerline is the:
Precision Obstacle Free Zone (POFZ).
17 . When ATC radar service is not provided, which action should a pilot take during and after executing a missed approach?
Conform to the published missed approach procedure.
18 . When using an enhanced flight vision system on an instrument approach what must be visible in order to descend below 100 feet above the TDZE?
The lights or markings of both the threshold and TDZ.
19 . Charted Visual Flight Procedures (CVFPs) usually begin how far from the airport?
20 flying miles.
20 . If you have been intercepted during the day and wish to communicate that you have understood the intercepting aircraft and will comply, what is the appropriate signal?
Rocking of wings and complying.
1 . Which of the following is NOT a weather briefing you can receive from FSS?
Forecast Briefing.
2 . If your time of departure is six or more hours from the time of the briefing you should request a(n):
Outlook briefing.
3 . All heights on inflight Aviation Weather Advisories are referenced in:
MSL, except ceilings which are referenced AGL.
4 . Which of the following items would be included in a SIGMET (WS)?
Dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface or inflight visibilities to below 3 miles.
5 . There are three types of AIRMETs. Which one describes moderate turbulence?
AIRMET Tango.
6 . How frequent are AWOS automated weather information broadcasts?
Every minute.
7 . If the controller issues you information about severe weather along your route, you should:
All of the answers are correct.
8 . True or false? You are more likely to receive IFR clearance to circumnavigate severe weather in terminal areas.
False, clearance to circumnavigate severe weather is more easily accommodated in en route areas away from terminals.
9 . If a weather deviation greater than 10 NM from track must be made while in oceanic controlled airspace without clearance from ATC and the pilot is on an eastbound route, the pilot should:
Descend 300 feet if the deviation is left of track.
10 . When reading the METAR the ceiling of a forecast including BKN090 BKN120 BKN180, the ceiling would be:
9000 feet AGL.
11 . When is a second visibility observation taken in addition to those taken at the usual point of observation?
Prevailing visibility is less than 4 miles at the usual point of observation or at tower level.
12 . When estimating the intensity of ice pellets, if accumulation of pellets on the ground is slow and/or visibility is reduced by ice pellets to less than 7 statute miles it is described as:
Moderate.
13 . When reporting icing conditions where the rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in the environment but does not present a problem if deicing/anti-icing equipment is used it should be described as:
Light.
14 . Turbulence that causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude should be reported as:
Severe turbulence.
15 . The downdraft of a microburst can be as strong as:
6,000 feet per minute.
16 . Which of the following displays a wind shear alert?
27A WSA 20K- 3MF 200 15.
17 . The probability of lightning strikes occurring to aircraft is greatest when operating in altitudes where the temperatures are:
Between -5°C and +5°C.
18 . What are the criteria for determining if a thunderstorm is severe? Choose any combination of: A) 50 knot winds, B) Height of cloud formation, C) Mixed heavy precipitation, and/or D) 3/4 inch hail.
A and/or D.
19 . If the minimum safe altitude of a route is 19,000 feet MSL and the altimeter setting is reported as 29.20 inches of mercury what is the lowest usable flight level?
200.
20 . If you do not reset your altimeter when flying from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure, indicated altitude will be:
Lower than actual.
1 . If an emergency requiring immediate action occurs and the PIC deviates from any flight rule when must he/she notify ATC?
As soon as possible.
2 . Urgency conditions should be reported and assistance requested. What condition counts as an urgency condition?
If you are not confident in your fuel endurance.
3 . Radar assistance and navigation service (vectors) can be provided to VFR aircraft in difficulty when:
All of the answers are correct.
4 . Transponder code 7700 is reserved for:
Distress or urgency conditions.
5 . True or False? Intercept and escort services will be initiated for urgency conditions.
True, when requested or unusual circumstances make such action advisable.
6 . Electronic, battery operated transmitters designed to help locate downed aircraft are called:
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT).
7 . If you observe a downed aircraft, you should:
None of the answers is correct.
8 . The appropriate ground to air visual code for use by survivors in the case that medical assistance is required is:
An "X".
9 . If you are in a distress condition, you should begin air/ground voice communications beginning with what signal?
MAYDAY.
10 . The side of the swell toward the observer is called:
Swell Face.
11 . The distance the waves have been driven by a wind blowing in a constant direction without obstruction is called:
Fetch.
12 . When ditching and two swell systems exist you should land:
Parallel to the system with the greatest height from trough to crest.
13 . When ditching the pilot should land at a heading 45 degrees down swell to both systems when:
The two swell systems exist of equal height.
14 . A special emergency would exist in all of the following conditions, except:
An interception by government aircraft.
15 . During a special emergency you should transmit what information?
All of the answers are correct.
16 . After setting code 7500 in Mode 3/A of your transponder how will ATC respond?
ATC will acknowledge and ask for verification of code 7500.
17 . Broadcast of fuel dumping in progress will occur every three minutes until:
ATC is advised of the termination of the fuel dump.
18 . If a pilot experiences complete radio failure while in IFR conditions, he should fly the route:
Assigned in the last ATC clearance received.
19 . The civil emergency frequency is:
121.5 MHz.
20 . What does the emergency hand signal of arms in front of head and crossed at wrists mean?
Recommend Stop.
1 . Wake turbulence is caused by what phenomenon?
A pair of counter-rotating vortices trailing from the wing tips.
2 . The strength of a vortex is governed by:
The weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft.
3 . When following another aircraft, especially a larger aircraft, the pilot should fly:
At or above the preceding aircraft's flight path.
4 . What happens when the vortices of larger aircraft sink to within 100 to 200 feet of the ground?
They move laterally over the ground at a speed of 2 to 3 knots.
5 . What is the recommended vortex avoidance procedure for departing or landing after a larger aircraft executing a low approach?
Wait at least 2 minutes before taking off or landing.
6 . Due to the possible effects of wake turbulence, how much separation should there be for a heavy jet landing behind another heavy jet?
4 miles
7 . Ninety percent of reported bird strikes occur:
At or below 3,000 feet.
8 . The most serious bird strikes occur when they involve what part of an aircraft?
Engine.
9 . When reporting large flocks of birds you should include all of the following information, except:
Environmental conditions (populated, wooded, etc).
10 . How is the surface of a national park area defined?
The highest terrain within 2,000 feet laterally of the route of flight.
11 . Which of the following is one of the ten most frequent factors for general aviation accidents that involve the Pilot in Command?
Mismanagement of fuel.
12 . Avoidance of skeletal structures, such as radio and television antenna towers, becomes necessary when flying below:
2,000 feet AGL.
13 . True or false? If you spot an unmanned free balloon during flight you should avoid flying below the balloon.
True, and report it to the nearest FAA ground facility.
14 . What frequency will provide UAS activity?
CTAF.
15 . MTOS is a visibility condition in mountainous terrain that is not IFR where:
Cloud cover is concealing potentially hazardous terrain.
16 . What occurs when air is blown over a mountain range or the ridge of a sharp bluff area?
Mountain Waves.
17 . When approaching a mountain range from the upwind side a pilot should:
Expect a smooth updraft.
18 . When operating a seaplane, which of the following does NOT have the right-of-way?
The seaplane on the water.
19 . The visibility condition defined as becoming engulfed in a uniformly white glow, generally the result of being surrounded by blowing snow, dust, sand, mud, or water is called:
White Out.
20 . A written report concerning potentially unsafe incidents should be reported to the ASRP within how many days of the incident to be considered "timely"?
10 days.
21 . Which of the following requires a report to the nearest NTSB Field office?
Inability of a flight crew member to perform flight duties due to injury or illness.
22 . If an overdue aircraft remains missing when should a follow-up report be filed with the NTSB?
After 7 days.
1 . Which of the following conditions requires only temporary disqualification from flying?
Anemia.
2 . As little as one ounce of liquor, one bottle of beer, or four ounces of wine can impair flying skills. The alcohol consumed in these drinks is detectable in the breath and blood for:
At least 3 hours.
3 . Fatigue that occurs when there is not enough time for a full recovery from periods of mental and physical strain is:
Chronic fatigue.
4 . True or False? A pilot with sleep apnea can still receive medical certification for flight.
True, if effective treatment is obtained and proof provided to the examiner.
5 . A state of oxygen deficiency in the body sufficient to impair functions of the brain and other organs is known as:
Hypoxia.
6 . Flight crew must be provided with and use supplemental oxygen at cabin pressure altitudes between 12,500 and 14,000 feet after what exposure?
30 minutes.
7 . If you have recently been scuba diving but not required a controlled ascent, how long should you wait before flying if below 8,000 feet?
At least 12 hours.
8 . Carbon monoxide poisoning in flight is often caused by:
Exhaust fumes escaping through manifold cracks and seals.
9 . How can a coriolis illusion be prevented?
By not making sudden, extreme head movements.
10 . The illusion of being in a descent with the wings level, created by an observed loss of altitude during a coordinated constant rate turn, is called:
Graveyard spiral.
11 . A narrower than usual runway can have the effect of making the pilot think:
The aircraft is higher than it actually is.
12 . What can impair dark adaptation?
All of the answers are correct.
13 . For every 16 seconds focused on visual scanning outside the aircraft no more than how much time should be spent on visual tasks inside the cabin?
4 to 5 seconds.
14 . Which aerobatic flight maneuver may cause a narrowing of visual fields, or blackout or unconsciousness?
Rapid pull-up maneuver.
15 . What factor may impact tolerance to G forces?
Quality of the blood.
when may DME from a separate facility be used within TERPS limitations
1. provide ARC initial approach segments
2. as FAF for BC approach
3. as substitute for OM
Sets found in the same folder