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Mock Vascular Interventional Registry

Terms in this set (113)

The linear rate rise on the automatic power injector controls
the time it takes for the injector to reach its maximum delivery flow rate (used to avoid catheter recoil and potential vessel injury)
Flow rate on an automatic power injector determines
the speed at which the contrast will be delivered (ml/s)
Which catheter is commonly used for a flush angiogram?
pigtail
Indications for a covered stent include
aneurysms
Ports are accessed with what type of needle?
non-coring (Huber)
Seldinger technique
needle, .018 wire, transition dilator, .035 wire
Inner most portion of a wire called
mandril
Vascular sheaths are utilized to
protect the arteriotomy site, safely allow for multiple catheter exchanges, allow for the infusion of heparinized saline to prevent thrombus
Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is used to
mechanically open or repair a blood vessel
Catheters that are braided will have improved
pushability
An example of a permanent embolic agent is
coil
Self- expanding stents are indicated for use in
compressible areas
The primary stent used for a TIPS placement is
Viatorr
Inferior Vena Cava filters are designed to
prevent pulmonary embolism
Embolic protection devices are used to
catch distal emboli during intervention
Atraumatic Chiba needles have a
beveled cannula and a stylet
Wire guides can affect the ______ of a wire
torque
Measured in fractions of an inch
guidewires and catheter lumens
Measured in French sizes
catheters and guide catheters (outer),
sheath size (inner)
Measured in centimeters
wire length, catheter length, sheath length
Biliary tubes are characterized by having sideholes where?
on the distal pigtail and up the shaft of the catheter
Percutaneous Nephrostomy catheters have sideholes where?
on the distal pigtail
A catheter inserted in the bladder to drain urine
foley
What contrast agent can be used with renal insufficiency?
CO2
Factors that can affect a patient's response to meds include
age, renal fx, presence of fever or infection
Prophylactic anti-emetic commonly used
Zofran (Ondansetron)
What do you give a patient to decrease their INR?
FFP (fresh frozen plasma)
A drug that inhibits the body's ability to clot or coagulate is classified as an
anticoagulant
The standard compression rate for adult CPR is
at least 100/min
An example of a thrombolytic
alteplase
What drug reverses heparin?
protamine sulfate
Adverse effects of protamine sulfate include
hypotension and anaphylaxis
A common antibiotic used in IR when placing ports or stents
Ancef (Cefazolin)
Anti-emetics are used to
decrease nausea, reduce the urge to vomit
Anti-arrythmics that are commonly used to treat VT and VF
Lidocaine and Amiodarone
Vasopressin causes
constriction of arteries and capillaries
Narcan (naloxone) reverses these drugs
Morphine, Demerol, and Fentanyl
Epinepherine is usually the first drug given in which rhythms?
pulseless VT, PEA, and Vfib
Facts about Heparin
prevents clot formation (can NOT dissolve existing clot)
can't be taken orally
maintains patency of indwelling catheters
Amiodarone facts
antiarrhythmic used for atrial & ventricular arrhythmias
can cause bradycardia & hypotension
can cause pulmonary toxicity
Drug that can cause profound lactic acidosis in patients receiving contrast
Metformin
Drug that is a potent vasodilator with side effects of HA and hypotension
Nitroglycerin
Thrombolytic agent/drug
Alteplase
A common side effect of loop diuretics is
electrolyte imbalance, especially hypokalemia
Opioid that can be used to treat rigors after a procedure
Demerol (Meperidine)
The generic name for Ancef is
Cefazolin
Neuro angiography requires long microwires and microcatheters. Name the typical length of neurocathethers, wires, and exchange wires
neuro microcatheters = 150 cm long
neuro microwires= 200 cm long
exchange wires= 300 cm long
The basilar artery begins where?
at the confluence of the vertebral arteries
The basilar artery ends where and bifurcates into what?
ends at the apex (basilar tip)
bifurcates into L/R Posterior Cerebral Arteries
The internal carotid artery divides at its end into what 2 vessels
the anterior and middle cerebral arteries
The first branch of the internal carotid artery that originates in the cranium is the
ophthalmic artery
The Anterior communicating artery is located where and connects what?
located anteriorly and connects the left and right anterior cerebral arteries
The circle of willis is important to evaluate because
it provides redundant blood flow
Subclavian Steal Syndrome is when blood is stolen from where?
brain
How many main blood vessels int he neck carry blood to the brain?
4
The ______ arteries _____ into the Basilar artery
Vertebral, merge
A temporary reduction in blood and oxygen to the brain may result in what?
Transient ischemic attack
At what level does the common carotid artery bifurcate?
C4
Name the three layers of the artery
intima, media, adventitia
Potential risks of aneurysms include
rupture and embolus
A pneumothorax is defined by
air accumulation within the pleural space
The buildup of fat, cholesterol, and other substances on an arterial wall form hard substances called
plaque
A true aneurysm will
involve all 3 layers of the arterial wall
The 3 great vessels off the aortic arch are
Brachiocephalic (Innominate),
Left Common Carotid
Left Subclavian
Tooth abscesses, gall bladder disease, and bacterial infections are all risk factors for
mycotic aneurysm
Risk factors for dissections include
poor perfusion,
aortic insufficiency,
thrombus
Most common site of an aortic tear
isthmus
Atherosclerosis is most likely to affect a renal artery where?
in the proximal 1/3 of the artery
Endovascular repair of AAA is not indicated until the aneurysm reaches ___ cm in diameter or becomes symptomatic
5 cm
The left colic artery anastomoses with the middle colic artery where?
splenic flexure
The first major vessel off the abdominal aorta is
celiac artery
The main portal vein is formed by the joining of the
superior mesenteric vein and splenic vein
Budd-Chiari syndrome results in what?
thrombosis of the hepatic vein
May-Thurner occurs when?
the right common iliac artery compresses the left common iliac vein
When assessing a patient for a perc EVAR, what factors are considered when evaluating the femoral arteries?
disease
size
tortuosity
A standard injection for a diagnostic aortogram is
15 mls per sec for total volume of 30 mls
Indications for TIPS placement include
refractory ascities
A chronic inflammatory condition that affects the aorta as well as its branches is
Takayasus arteritis
The origin of the SMA can best be visualized in what projection?
lateral
Symptoms of renal artery stenosis may include
elevated BP
The primary artery of the pelvis is the
hypogastric
Hematemesis, hematochezia, and fatigue may be symptoms of what?
mesenteric bleeding
Nutcracker syndrome can occur when
the left renal vein is compressed by the SMA
Hemorrhage
loss of blood from the circulatory system
A pelvic angiogram performed in a 30 degree LAO will demonstrate the bifurcation of what?
right external/internal iliac bifurcation and
left common femoral bifurcation
Percutaneous nephrostomies are indicated in patients with what?
hydronephrosis
Klatskin tumors most often occur where?
at the confluence of the right and left hepatic ducts
The release of bile into the small intestine is regulated by what?
the sphincter of Oddi
The liver is divided into how many lobes and segments?
4 lobes
8 segments
What is the functional unit of the kidney?
nephron
Complications of percutaneous cholecystostomy placement can include
bile leakage
septic shock
hemobilia
A Whitaker test is used to determine what?
it measures the pressure in the kidneys and bladder to determine if there is a significant obstruction
The ureteropelvic junction is the junction between what 2 structures?
the ureter and the renal pelvis
The most common benign tumor of the urinary system is
AML (Angiomyolipoma)
The functional unit of the liver is what?
lobule
Right sided PTC punctures are planned
2-3 cm above the mid-axillary line
Indications for percutaneous double J stent placement include
malignant ureteral obstructions
benign strictures in poor operative patients
failed attempts by urology
Why is the common femoral artery accessed in the mid to lower third of the femoral head?
to ensure the puncture is above the femoral bifurcation AND below the inguinal ligament
The common femoral artery bifurcates where?
the lower 1/3 of the femoral head
As the superficial femoral artery passes through the adductor canal it becomes the
popliteal artery
The plantar arch is formed by what?
dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial artery
Claudication is defined as
pain with exercise
Superficial veins are connected to deep veins via what?
perforators
Backwards flow of blood in veins is prevented by what?
valves
AV Fistulas are most often created by using which artery and vein?
brachial and cephalic
Clotted fistulas are treated by
restoring venous outflow then restoring arterial inflow
Arm swelling and visible collaterals in an AV fistula patient may indicate what?
central venous stenosis
In an AV Fistula Radial artery steal is a phenomenon where what happens?
the AV fistula steals blood from the radial artery
PICCs are usually placed in what 3 upper arm veins?
basilic, cephalic, brachial
Patients experiencing acute renal failure may have what placed for hemodialysis?
temporary dialysis catheter
Indications for temporary dialysis lines include
acute renal failure
Tunneled lines are usually placed in what vessel?
internal jugular vein
Ports are indicated for what?
chemotherapy, contrast, blood draws
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