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Clin Med III Test 2 Practice Questions

Terms in this set (146)

Bullying peaks when?
A. Elementary School
B. Middle School
C. High School
D. College
B.
Which of the following is recommended as first line method of contraption in adolescents?
A. Abstinence
B. Barrier Methods
C. Long Acting Reversible Contraceptives (LARCs)/Hormone based contraceptives
D. Coitus Interruptus
C.
Weight loss great then what of ideal body weight is criteria for hospitalization for a patient diagnosed with Anorexia Nervosa?
A. >10%
B. >15%
C. >20%
D. >25%
D.
Which of the following occurs with the stimulation of sympathetic tone and inhibition of parasympathetic tone results in relaxation of the bladder wall and contraction of the internal sphincter?
A. Filling / relaxation phase
B. Micturition / contraction phase
A.
Which of the following occurs with the stimulation of parasympathetic tone and inhibition of sympathetic tone results in contraction of the bladder wall and relaxation of the internal sphincter?
A. Filling / relaxation phase
B. Micturition / contraction phase
B.
Which of the following is responsible for the relaxation of the detrusor muscle and thus preventing micturition?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
A.
Which of the following is responsible for the contraction of the detrusor muscle and thus aiding in voiding?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
B.
Which of the following is responsible for the contraction of the internal sphincter and thus preventing micturition?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
A.
Which of the following is responsible for the relaxation of the internal sphincter and thus allowing for voiding?
A. Sympathetic
B. Parasympathetic
B.
}Unfortunately, no universally agreed-upon definition of an "abnormal" or "clinically significant" PVR, but PVR of what definitively suggestive of outlet obstruction or poor detrusor contractility (leading to overflow incontinence)?
A. ≥ 100 ml
B. ≥ 150 ml
C. ≥ 200 ml
D. ≥ 250 ml
C.
Which of the following forms of chronic urinary incontinence is due to too little tone?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
A.
Which of the following forms of chronic urinary incontinence is due to too much activity?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
B.
Which of the following forms of chronic urinary incontinence is due to the bladder not being able to hold any more urine?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
C.
Which of the following is likely the most common type of urinary incontinence in the geriatric population?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
B.
A 72 y.o. female presents to the office complaining of an "abrupt sensation" of the need to urinate and "can not get to the bathroom fast enough". She states that occasionally a "few drops" will leak out. She states that after she is able to completely void her bladder. Which of the following is the mostly diagnosis?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
B.
Which of the following is strongly associated with ↑ abdominal pressure such as Coughing, Sneezing, Laughing ,Lifting, and Jumping?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
A.
C. could be argued as well
Which of the following is the rarest (~5%) but likely most serious form of incontinence?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
D.
Atonic/flaccid/ "neurogenic" bladder is a subtype of which of the following?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
D.
A 72 y.o. male patient present to the office stating that he has been experiencing a "weak stream" and "dribbling" recently. He states that he is unable to fully void his bladder and will have occasional "leakage" without even having a sense of needing to void. He denies any correlation between the leaking and physical activity/coughing/sneezing. What do you suspect?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Mixed
D. Overflow
D.
Which of the following is often treated with pelvic muscle exercises, timed voiding, alpha-adrenergic drugs, estrogen, and/or surgery?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
A.
Which of the following is often treated with bladder training, pelvic muscle exercise, bladder-relaxation drugs (such as anticholinergics, oxybutynin, tolterodine, and/or imipramine)?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
B.
Which of the following is often treated with surgical correction of obstruction or intermittent catheter drainage?
A. Stress
B. Urge
C. Overflow
C.
Which of the following is leading cause, two thirds (~70%) of dementia cases?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
A.
Essential neuropathological changes of which of the following are amyloid beta plaques and neurofibrillary tau tangles?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
A.
The process involved with Alzheimer's diseases typically starts in the where and spreads to involve diffuse areas of the remaining
A. Temporal lobes
B. Parietal lobes
C. Frontal lobes
D. Hippocampus
D.
Apolipoprotein protein E (APO-E) is involved in cholesterol metabolism and plays a role in amyloid metabolism. There are three main polymorphisms/ variants for this protein (based on three genetic versions), and which of the following is a risk factor for AD?
A. APO-E e2
B. APO-E e3
C. APO-E e4
C.
Apolipoprotein protein E (APO-E) is involved in cholesterol metabolism and plays a role in amyloid metabolism. There are three main polymorphisms/ variants for this protein (based on three genetic versions), and which of the following appears protective for AD?
A. APO-E e2
B. APO-E e3
C. APO-E e4
A.
Which of the following is associated with pathologic intracytoplasmic accumulations of α-syynuclein in neurons?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
B.
When of the following is restricted to the basal ganglia and brainstem, it is the hallmark of Parkinson's disease (PD)?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
B.
Which of the following is associated with Cognitive "fluctuations", Motor findings, Recurrent visual hallucinations, Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder (RBD), Neuroleptic sensitivity?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
B.
Which of the following is generally considered first line treatment of lewy body dementia (LBD)?
A. Levodopa
B. Cholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil or rivastigmine)
C. SNRIs
D. SSRIs
B.
Which of the following is a cognitive decline due to cerebrovascular disease?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
C.
Mean age of onset is 58 of which of the following?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
D.
Which of the following is an acute fluctuating change in cognition, associated with reversible causes that manifests as inability to focus or pay attention with or without the lack of awareness of environment. It develops over hours and can fluctuate in severity over course of day?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
E. Delirium
E.
Which of the following can have FLUCTUATING levels of attention as well as visual hallucinations and thus can be mis-diagnosed at times as delirium?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Lewy body dementia
C. Vascular dementia
D. Frontotemporal dementia
B.
Which of the following is the most common autosomal chromosomal abnormality?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
Which of the following results from three complete or partial copies of CS21?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
Which of the following has clinical features of upslanted parpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with epicanthal folds, small mouth with protruding tongue, short ears, and excess skin on the back of the neck?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
A single palmar crease is associated with which of the following?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
Which of the following is a result form XO with a 98% rate of fetal demise?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
B.
Which of the following presents with lymphedema of hands/feet, shield-shaped chest, webbed neck, cubitus valgus and short stature?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
B.
Which of the following is due to an extra x chromosome?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
C.
Which of the following is the most common genetic cause of hypogonadism and infertility in men?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
C.
Which of the following presents in males as a female body habitus (decreased body hair, gynecomastia, small phallus and testes, taller than average relative to families, arm span greater than height?
A. Trisomy 21
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
C.
Which of the following is autosomal dominant disorder of cartilage calcification?
A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
D.
Which of the following is due to an abnormal synthesis of type I collagen which makes up 90% of the bone matrix and results in brittle bones?
A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
Which of the following can present with a blue sclerae and short stature?
A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. Achondroplasia
A.
Which of the following often presents with recurrent pyogenic infections such as OM, Sinusitis, Tonsillitis, Pneumonia?
A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
D.
Which of the following has an absent thymus which results in t-cell mediated immune deficiency?
A. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
D.
Which of the following is a x-links form of mental retardation with expansion of terminal triplet repeat at end of X chromosome?
A. Fragile X Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
A.
Which of the following has clinical features of macrosomia at birth, macroorchidism with testicular edema, dysmorphic facial features (large jaw/ears), perseverative speech, and mental retardation?
A. Fragile X Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
A.
Which of the following is due to interstitial deletion on chromosome 15q with early death due to complications from body habitus?
A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
A.
Which of the following presents with narrow bifrontal diameter, down-turned mouth, small hands and feet, short stature, hypogonadism, severe hypotonia after birth, uncontrollable appetite (obesitiy) mild intellectual disability, and poor impulse control?
A. Prader-Willi Syndrome
B. Turner Syndrome
C. Kleinfelter Syndrome
D. 22q11 Deletion Syndrome
A.
Which of the following often presents with Fatigue, Cold Sensitivity, Constipation, Dry skin, Unexplained weight gain, Hoarseness, Puffy Face, Muscle Aches, Thinned hair, and Slower Heart Rate?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Familial Short Stature
D. Constitutional Delay of Growth
A.
Which of the following is an utosomal recessive trait for the deficiency of one of the enzymes necessary for making steroid hormones?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Familial Short Stature
D. Constitutional Delay of Growth
B.
Which of the following can present with hyponatremia/hyperkalemia which develops about 5-7 days after birth that can present with vomiting, dehydration acidosis. Females are born with ambiguous genitalia while males appear normal?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Familial Short Stature
D. Constitutional Delay of Growth
B.
Which of the following is treated with hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone as well as stress dose steroids when needed?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Familial Short Stature
D. Constitutional Delay of Growth
B.
Which of the following tends to be the first sign of puberty in males?
A. High spurt
B. Increased testicular volume
C. Increase genitalia size
D. Pubic hair
B.
Puberty starts approximately how long later in boys than girls?
A. 6 months
B. 1 year
C. 1.5 years
D. 2 years
D.
Menarche typical occurs how long after breast development?
A. 6 months - 1 year
B. 1 - 1 ½ years
C. 1 ½ - 2 years
D. 2 - 2 ½ years
D.
Which of the following presents with a normal birth length and weight but grows at diminished growth velocity (<5cm per year) which is often noticed at about 2-3 years of age. It often presents with elevated weight to height ratio - "cherub appearance" and a high pitched voice - immature larynx?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Growth Hormone Deficiency
D. Constitutional Delay of Growth
C.
Which of the following is the most common endocrine disease in childhood?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Growth Hormone Deficiency
D. Type I Diabetes Mellitus
D.
Which of the following can present with signs of weight loss, polydipsia, polyphagia, and polyuria?
A. Congenital Hypothyroidism
B. Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
C. Growth Hormone Deficiency
D. Type I Diabetes Mellitus
D.
Pediatric Obesity is considered a Body Mass Index at or above what percentile for children of same age and sex based on 2000 CDC Growth Charts for US?
A. 85%
B. 90%
C. 95%
D. 97.5%
C.
True/False: Surgical options and appetite suppressants are appropriate for children with obesity.
False: Inappropriate
Which of the following is the most common form of pediatric cancer?
A. Bone tumors
B. Hematopoetic tumors
C. Brain Tumors
D. Endocrine Tumors
B.
Which of the following accounts for 75% of leukemias?
A. Acute myeloid Leukemia (AML)
B. Chronic myeloid Leukemia (CML)
C. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
C.
Approximately 90% of patients with which of the following will present with either anemia or thrombocytopenia?
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
C. Nephroblastoma/Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
A.
Which of the following can often present with bleeding issues, anemia, neutropenia, and infection?
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
C. Nephroblastoma/Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
A.
Reed-Sternberg cells in tumor tissue are hallmark for which of the following?
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia
B. Hodgkin's Lymphoma
C. Nephroblastoma/Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
B.
Which of the following is the most common solid tumor as well as the most common cause of death from cancer in children?
A. Hematopoetic tumors
B. Brain Tumors
C. Nephroblastoma/Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
B.
The classic triad of a headache, vomiting, and papilledema are associated with which of the following?
A. Hematopoetic tumors
B. Brain Tumors
C. Nephroblastoma/Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
B.
Which of the following often presents with an abdominal mass which is smooth, firm and well demarcated which rarely crosses midline?
A. Hematopoetic tumors
B. Brain Tumors
C. Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
C. AKA Nephroblastoma
True/False: Osteogenic Sarcoma, AKA Osteosarcoma, are malignant tumors of bone-producing osteoclast.
False: Osteoblast
Which of the following parts of the bone is osteogenic sarcoma not located?
A. Diaphysis
B. Metaphysis
C. Epiphysis
D. Happens equally in all parts
A.
Which of the following is not a common site of osteosarcoma?
A. Distal femur
B. Distal humerus
C. Proximal tibia
D. Proximal humerus
B.
Osteosarcoma metastases to what in 10-15% of cases?
A. Liver
B. Brain
C. Lungs
D. Kidneys
C.
Which of the following is undifferentiated sarcoma thought to arise from neural crest cells?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Brain Tumors
C. Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
D.
True/False: Ewing's sarcomas are most often located in diaphyseal portion of long bones with the femur and pelvis being the most common sites.
True
Plain film showing lytic bone lesion with periosteal elevation is associated with which of the following?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Brain Tumors
C. Wilm's Tumor
D. Ewing's Sarcoma
D.
Neural Tube Defects has decreased by 70% due to what?
A. Alcohol cessation during pregnancy
B. B12 supplementation
C. Folate supplementation
D. Smoking cessation during pregnancy
C.
Which of the following forms of neural tube defect presents with a large skull, minimal cortex which is not compatible with life?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Myelomeningocele/Meningocele
D. Spina bifida
E. Spina bifida occulta
A.
Which of the following forms of neural tube defect presents with protrusions of cranial contents through bony skull defect?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Myelomeningocele/Meningocele
D. Spina bifida
E. Spina bifida occulta
B.
Which of the following forms of neural tube defect presents with protrusions of neural tissue and/or meninges through spinal defect?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Myelomeningocele/Meningocele
D. Spina bifida
E. Spina bifida occulta
C.
Which of the following forms of neural tube defect is due to incomplete fusion of vertebral arches but visible defect in lumbrosacral region?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Myelomeningocele/Meningocele
D. Spina bifida
E. Spina bifida occulta
D.
Which of the following forms of neural tube defect is due to incomplete fusion of vertebral arches but is not contiguous with the skin?
A. Anencephaly
B. Encephalocele
C. Myelomeningocele/Meningocele
D. Spina bifida
E. Spina bifida occulta
E.
True/False: Febrile Seizures are considered epilepsy even recurrent.
False
True/False: Chronic motor and vocal tics are daily or near daily tics that occur for at least one year that may be vocal and/or motor.
False: May be vocal or motor, but NOT both
True/False: Tourette's Disorder occurs with Multiple Motor Tics PLUS one or more Vocal Tics.
True
Which of the following is the milder form of muscular dystrophy?
A. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
B. Becker Muscular Dystrophy
B.
Gower sign is associated with which of the following?
A. Sickle Cell Disease
B. Spina bifida occulta
C. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy
D. Tourette's Disorder
C.
True/false: Suicided attempts are 3-4x higher in adolescent girls while completion is 3-4x higher in adolescent boys.
True
Which of the following is a defiant, negative, and hostile behavior without serious violation of social norms or rights of others?
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
A.
Which of the following is negative behavior that is aggressive and violates rights of others for more than 6 months?
A. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
B.
Conduct disorder often presents earlier is who?
A. Girls
B. Boys
B.
According to DSM V to be diagnosis ADHD, Six or more symptoms have persisted at least how long that does not correlate with developmental age?
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 1 year
D. 2 years
B.
Screening specifically for ASD with the Modified CHecklist of Autism in Toddlers (MCHAT) during regular well-child doctor visits at when and when?
A. 6 months and 12 months
B. 12 months and 18 months
C. 18 months and 24 months
D. 24 months and 36 months
C.
True/False: In general hospital medicine, evidence favors "looser" control (140-180 mg/dL) of BG rather than strict control.
True
True/False: Management of suicidality in the geriatric population requires hospitalization.
True
Which of the following may be useful in depressive geriatric patients with insomnia, agitation, restlessness, or anorexia and weight loss?
A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)/duloxetine (Cymbalta)
B. Mirtazapine (Remeron)
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Citalopram (Celexa)
B.
Which of the following may be useful in depressive geriatric patients are frequently used as second line agents and may be particularly helpful in patients with depression and neuropathic pain?
A. Venlafaxine (Effexor)/duloxetine (Cymbalta)
B. Mirtazapine (Remeron)
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Citalopram (Celexa)
A.
Which of the following is the emotional/physical (aka somatic) response caused by a significant loss?
A. Grief
B. Bereavement
C. Mourning
A.
Which of the following is the grief reaction to the loss of a close relationship?
A. Grief
B. Bereavement
C. Mourning
B.
Which of the following refers to the psychological process through which the bereaved person comes to terms with his/her loss?
A. Grief
B. Bereavement
C. Mourning
C.
"Bereavement-related depression" & "complicated or prolonged grief" generally refers to greater than what amount of time?
A. 6 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 1 year
C.
Which of the following is not a main electrolyte in the ECF?
A. Cation: Sodium
B. Anion: Chloride
C. Cation: Potassium
D. Anion: Bicarb
C.
Which of the following is not a main electrolyte in the ICF?
A. Cation: Magnesium
B. Anion: Chloride
C. Cation: Potassium
D. Anion: Phosphates
B.
How do you calculate plasma osmolality?
A. (2 x Na) + (glu ÷18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)
B. (2 x Na) + (glu ÷18) - (BUN ÷ 2.8)
C. (2 x Na) - (glu ÷18) + (BUN ÷ 2.8)
D. (2 x Na) - (glu ÷18) - (BUN ÷ 2.8)
A.
}Normal serum osmolality is typically around what?
A. 250 mOsm/L
B. 265 mOsm/L
C. 280 mOsm/L
D. 300 mOsm/L
C. Range 275 - 295 mOsm/L
True/False: ADH is a small peptide hormone synthesized in the hypothalamus and released from the anterior pituitary.
False: posterior pituitary
True/False: ADH essentially promotes free water retention by the kidneys (i.e. making the serum "less concentrated" and the urine "more concentrated").
True
Hyponatremia is typically asymptomatic until serum sodium levels are below what? (not from slide but she said this value so probably not testable)
A. 145
B. 140
C. 135
D. 130
D.
A serum sodium level between 130-135 mEq/L would be considered what?
A. Mild hyponatremia
B. Moderate hyponatremia
C. Severe hyponatremia
D. Life-threatening hyponatremia
E. Normal
A.
A serum sodium level between 136 - 146 mEq/L would be considered what?
A. Mild hyponatremia
B. Moderate hyponatremia
C. Severe hyponatremia
D. Life-threatening hyponatremia
E. Normal
E.
A serum sodium level between 125-129 mEq/L would be considered what?
A. Mild hyponatremia
B. Moderate hyponatremia
C. Severe hyponatremia
D. Life-threatening hyponatremia
E. Normal
B.
A serum sodium level between 120-124 mEq/L would be considered what?
A. Mild hyponatremia
B. Moderate hyponatremia
C. Severe hyponatremia
D. Life-threatening hyponatremia
E. Normal
C.
A serum sodium level between <119 mEq/L would be considered what?
A. Mild hyponatremia
B. Moderate hyponatremia
C. Severe hyponatremia
D. Life-threatening hyponatremia
E. Normal
D.
Hyponatremia with extreme hyperlipidemia and hyperproteinemia, resulting from methodological errors in lab techniques that measure serum sodium - "lab artifact" results in which of the following?
A. Iso-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Hyper-osmolar Hyponatremia
A.
The Primary example of what is marked hyperglycemia?
A. Iso-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Hyper-osmolar Hyponatremia
C.
Corrected sodium calculated how?
A.Measured sodium - 0.016/(glucose - 100)
B. Measured sodium + 0.016/(glucose - 100)
C. Measured sodium - 0.016 x (glucose - 100)
D. Measured sodium + 0.016 x (glucose - 100)
D.
Which of the following can be seen (induced) with mannitol infusion?
A. Iso-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Hyper-osmolar Hyponatremia
C.
True/False: Majority of causes of hyponatremia are associated with a low plasma osmolality
True
Which of the following is caused by a decrease effect circulating volume which stimulates ADH release?
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
A.
Profound diarrhea and significant hemorrhage are common examples of which of the following while extreme exercise is an uncommon example?
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
A.
Adrenal Insufficiency (i.e. Addison's Disease), esp. with ↑free water intake is associated with which of the following?
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
A.
Thiazide diuretic use - MCC of drug-induced hyponatremia - is associated with which of the following?
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B.
Congestive heart failure, Cirrhosis (aka end-stage liver disease ), and Nephrotic syndrome are examples of which of the following?
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D.
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is most common of which of the follow?Adrenal insufficiency and Hypothyroidism are other causes as well.
A. Hypovolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
B. Hypovolemic to euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C. Euvolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
D. Hypervolemic Hypo-osmolar Hyponatremia
C.
Hypokalemia below what is severe and potential life threatening?
A. < 4.0 mEq/L
B. < 3.5 mEq/L
C. < 3.0 mEq/L
D. < 2.5 mEq/L
D.
Which of the following is not a common EKG changing with hypokalemia?
A. PR interval prologation
B. Decreased T-wave amplitude (flattening and inversion of T waves)
C. Q-T interval shortening
D. Visible U waves and mild ST segment depression
E. PACs, PVCs
F. Supraventricular or ventricular arrhythmias (Torsades de points, VT, VF)
C. Q-T interval prolongation
If the potassium level is less than what, intravenous (IV) KCl is generally given, 10 mEq/hr if given peripherally, can combine with oral supplementation for even faster results?
A. < 4.0 mEq/L
B. < 3.5 mEq/L
C. < 3.0 mEq/L
D. < 2.5 mEq/L
D.
Hypokalaemia often associated with what, which increases the risk of dysrhythmias?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypomagnesaemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypermagnesaemia
B.
Hyperkalemia isefined as K > 5.1 is mEq/L but is considered severe at what?
A. >5.5 mEq/L
B. >6.0 mEq/L
C. >6.5 mEq/L
D. >7.0 mEq/L
C.
Which of the following is not an EKG change commonly seen with hyperkalemia?
A. Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base, best seen in precordial leads
B. P waves widens and flattens
C. QRS narrowing
D. Conduction blocks occur
E. Sinus brady or slow AF
F. Cardiac arrest
C. Widening
If a patient is ambulating and admitted for less than how long, then no VTE ppx is needed?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. 76 hours
D. 1 week
A.
True/False: Most ICU patients require GI prophylaxis and most floor patients do not.
True
Which of the following is the most common type of healthcare-associated infection reported to the government?
A. CAUTI - Catheter Associated Urinary Tract Infection
B. CLABSI - Central Line Associated BloodStream Infection
C. VAP - Ventilator Associated Pneumonia
D. All are about equal
A.
Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) is defined as pneumonia that presents more than how long after intubation?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
C.
Community acquired PNA (CAP) is an infection of lung parenchyma in pt who is not hospitalized or living in a long-term care facility for how long?
A. ≥48 hours
B. ≥1 week
C. ≥2 weeks
D. ≥1 month
C.
Which of the following is not most often ordered for average HAP/VAP patients?
A. Vancomycin 1g IV q 12 hr
B. Zosyn (pip-tazo) 4.5g IV q 6h
C. Levaquin 750mg IV q 24h
D. Azithromycin 500mg IV q 12 hr
D.
In pediatric females, 75-90% are caused by which of the following?
A. E. coli
B. Klebsiella
C. Proteus
D. Enterococcus
A.
True/False: Neonatal circumcision is contraindicated if hypospadias is present.
True
Which of the following is the most common pediatric hernia?
A. Femoral Hernia
B. Direct Inguinal Hernia
C. Indirect Inguinal Hernia
D. All are about equal
C.
Which of the following is due to a fetal remnant of omphalomesenteric duct that results in outpouching of the distal ileum?
A. Meckel Diverticulum
B. Hirschsprung's Disease
C. Intussusception
D. Intussusception
A.
Which of the following is a motility defect due to failure of ganglion cells to migrate into distal bowel during fetal life?
A. Meckel Diverticulum
B. Hirschsprung's Disease
C. Intussusception
D. Meconium Ileus
B.
Which of the following is the most common GI obstruction associated with Cystic Fibrosis?
A. Meckel Diverticulum
B. Hirschsprung's Disease
C. Intussusception
D. Meconium Ileus
D.
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