Upgrade to remove ads
Vet Prep (Week 3) 01/29/21
Terms in this set (115)
What is included in the axial skeleton?
What is included in the spinal column?
What many cervical vertebrae are there?
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
13 (horses have more ribs)
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
How many sacrum bones are there?
How many coccygeal bones are there?
Vertebra usually have 4 features. What are they?
primarily mechanical loading
pedicles and laminae - Protect spinal cord
Junctions between bones
Between pedicles and laminae, which is vertical and which is horizontal?
The vertebral canal is :
where all the foramens lined up and the spinal chord goes through
What are the 4 characteristics of cervical vertebrae?
-small dorsal spines
-holes in transverse processes
-C1 (atlas) and C2 (axis) irregular
C1 is the ___. C2 is the ___.
C1 = atlas
C2 = axis
Which C does not have a hole in its transverse proces?
What are the 4 characteristics of thoracic vertebrae?
-facets for ribs
What are the 3 characteristics of lumbar vertebra?
-large transverse processes
-prominent dorsal spine
What are the 4 characteristics of sacrum (and pelvis)?
-3 fused vertebrae
-attached to ilium and caudal vertebrae
-transverse processes fused to make solid block of bone
-Nb. foraminae dorsal & ventral
What is the point of overlapping of bones in the joint facets?
to keep bones from slipping
The IVDs are only between ___, not between ___.
How many nerves are in the neck?
How many vertebrae are in the neck?
The spinous processes of the thoracic are braced ___ because weight is on the forelimb.
The spinous processes of the lumbar vertebrae point ___ from the sacrum.
Intervertebral discs are in each intervertebral space except:
except C1-C2 and sacrum
What are the purposes of the intervertebral discs?
What are intervertebral discs composed of?
-anulus fibrosus (outer fibrous ring)
-nucleus pulposus (gelatinous center)
IVDs tend to herniate ___.
What are the 2 types of herniated/slipped discs?
1. extrusion (Acute)
2. protrusion (chronic)
• Formed by cranial notch of one bone and caudal notch of adjacent bone
• Allows ingress/egress of spinal blood vessels, anlymphatics and spinal nerves.
Where do the spinal nerves exit?
Where do the spinal nerves split into after exiting the IVF?
dorsal and ventral rami
Where do vessels enter/leave?
Which joint does not have IVD?
Articulations Atlanto-Occiptal joint
What does the Articulations Atlanto-Occiptal joint do?
Nodding joint (extension/flexion only)
• Between heads of adjacent ribs
• Lie ventral to spinal cord
• Reinforce dorsal wall of IVD making it less likely to herniate
• From rib to transverse process • Make thoracic part of spinal column inflexible
thorax is very rigid, but which is the most rigid?
• Extension of supraspinous
• More elastic fibres
• Attaches to dorsal spine of C2
• Energy storage device
• Better developed in long neck breeds with large heavy heads
Vertebral ligaments - Nuchal
• Ischial tuber to sacrum
• Prevent damage to sacroiliac jt
• May provide m attachment
Vertebral ligaments - Sacrotuberous
• 3 systems
• Iliocostalis system
• Longissimus system
• Transversospinalis system
Muscles of the axial skeleton
What happens if there is incomplete ossification of humeral condyle?
very prone to fracture
Does cartilage show up on radiographs?
In flat bones, what kind of ossification do we have?
In long bones, what kind of ossification do we have?
Most growth of bone occurs when?
between 3 and 6 months of age
physis is important for bones ability to:
increase its length
Most physis are flat and if something happens then it can cause it to displace but if the physis is conical shaped then it can :
predispose the animal for some problems
About ___ of long bones fractures occur in dogs under 1 year of age
___ of long bone fractures involve the physis
How many types of physeal fractures are there?
Most fractures around physis are around the :
where fractures occur affects:
how they will heal
what are the 2 most common types of physeal fracture?
type 1 physis
type 2 physis + metaphysis
what type of physeal fracture is common in femurs?
type 2 physis + metaphysis. because femur is not straight
what is a type 3 physeal fracture?
physis + epiphysis
Which types of physeal fractures are much less common?
type 4 and 5
type 4 primarily affects?
what is a type 4 physeal fracture?
physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis
which type of physeal fracture will result in arthritist?
Which type of physeal fracture has the worst prognosis?
type 5 because the physis does not get displaced, but it gets crushed so the cells will be destroyed, the physis will close and the bone will not continue to increase in length
which type of physeal structure does not show up on a radiograph?
type 5 because there is no displacement.
What do you need to do for type 1 and type 2 physeal fractures so that it can continue to grow?
re-establish the continuity
what is the most common type 1 physeal fracture?
proximal physis of humerus displaced caudally
How do you manage a type 1 physeal fracture?
use k-wires to go down through epiphysis down into the metaphysis which will cause minimal amount of damage to allow bone to continue to grow
Most of physeal fractures are going to occur closer to the :
metaphysis where hypertrophic zone is, which is where most of development is done
if you can get the physeal fracture back into alignment, then they will typically :
heal very well
if you have a type 5 physeal fracture or a fracture closer to the epiphysis,
then the physis will close since it is closer to the germ cells
5-17% of all growth plate injuries will have:
clinically significant sequela which means that it is going to result in problems
most sequela occur in
distal radial, ulna, or radial physis
What are the factors that will affect the outcome?
-which physis injured
-the age of the patient at the time of injury
-type of fracture
75% of growth deformities affect distal radial or
Most of the increase in length will occur at
the distal physis
Conical shape of distal ulnar physis predisposes it to a ___ physeal injury with compression/ crushing of the physis so shearing and bending forces do not cause displacement as seen in physes which are more flatthened.
What is the most common physeal injury causing angular limb deformity ~63% of cases?
premature closure of distal ulnar physis
What is it called with there is a lateral deviation distal to carpus?
When the ulna stops growing, what happens to the radius?
it will bow cranially
What is cranial bowing of the radius called?
What happens to the radius after the ulnar ostectomy?
thickens to support weight
The ___ is a commonly fractured bone in dogs and cats.
What are the 5 ways to describe a fracture?
-degree of comminution
-location in bone
What kind of fracture has soft tissue defect or bone protrudes through skin?
what kind of fracture has skin intact?
What is the direction of distal segment in relation to proximal fragment telling you?
What is reducible or nonreducile describing?
the degree of communution
what does gas bubbles tell you?
that it was an open fracture
bending forces typically cause___ fractures.
bending and axial compression causes ___ fracture
axial compression causes ___ fracture
torsion creates ___ fracture
high energy, gunshot energy causes___
comminuted, nonreducible fracture
an incomplete fracture is also called :
in immature animals, the ___ is thicker because bone is still developing
application of splints and casts
external fixations are added to:
help take weight off of area of fracture
what are the forces acting on fractured bones during normal loading?
tension, compression, rotational, shearing, distractive (muscle pull)
fracture assessment score
puts information together to determine if you need to have maximum or minimal fixation in order for bone to heal
2 types of bone healing:
-indirect hone healing (more common) intramembranous bone formation. produces fibrous cartilage.
-direct bone healing occurs if rigidly fixes fracture. absorbs all forces acting on fracture. very little secondary healing that has to occur.
what is the consequence of using a bone plate?
bone will start to disappear. osteopenia and bone resorption.
malalignment of bones segments after inadequate fracture management
distal segment displaced laterally
distal segment displaced medially
bone curved cranially
bone curved caudally
distal segment rotated laterally
distal segment displace dcaudally
normal physiologic process and muscle shortening
pathologic process resulting in fibrosis and permanent damage of the muscle causing interference with normal function
THIS SET IS OFTEN IN FOLDERS WITH...
Vet Prep (Week 3) 01.25.21
Vet Prep (Week 3) 01.26.21
Vet Prep (Week 3) 01.27.21
Vet Prep (Week 3) 01.28.21
OTHER SETS BY THIS CREATOR
Vet Prep (Week 14) 04.13.21
Vet Prep (Week 14) 04.12.21
Vet Prep (Week 13) 04.08.21
Vet Prep (Week 13) 04.07.21
OTHER QUIZLET SETS
Practice Test 1 multiply choice
World War 2 - Rise of the Dictators
BIOMED: Quiz 8
Jarvis Chapter 21 Peripheral Vascular System and L…