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AS 221 EXAM 1 (Gleim)

Terms in this set (250)

C
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should

A.swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.

B.exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.

C.swing freely and indicate known headings.
C
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard-rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

B.The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

C.The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
C
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

B.The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

C.The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
B
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?

A.135° through 225°.

B.90° and 270°.

C.180° and 0°.
C
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.

B.The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.

C.The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
A
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

B.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

C.The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
A
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

B.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

C.The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
B
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

B.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.

C.The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
C
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?

A.Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.

B.Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.

C.The magnetic dip characteristic.
C
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

B.The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

C.The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
B
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?

A.The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.

B.The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.

C.The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
B
While flying at an altitude of 8,000 ft., what CAS must be used to maintain a TAS of 155 kt. if the outside air temperature is -5°C?

A.134 KCAS.

B.139 KCAS.

C.142 KCAS.
A
What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS of 158 kt. at the flight planned altitude of 8,000 ft.? (Temperature 0°C.)

A.140 KCAS.

B.147 KCAS.

C.153 KCAS.
B
What CAS must be used to maintain 180 kt. TAS at the flight planned altitude of 8,000 ft. if the outside air temperature is +8°C?

A.154 KCAS.

B.157 KCAS.

C.163 KCAS.
C
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?

A.The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.

B.The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.

C.No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.
C
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will

A.decrease and true altitude will increase.

B.increase and true altitude will decrease.

C.increase and true altitude will increase.
B
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?

A.The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.

B.The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.

C.The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.
A
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?

A.The airspeed indicator only.

B.The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.

C.The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.
A
If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system become blocked, the indicated airspeed will

A.increase during a climb.

B.decrease during a climb.

C.remain constant regardless of altitude change.
A
If the pitot tube ram air pressure hole and drain hole become obstructed, the airspeed indicator will operate

A.like an altimeter as the aircraft climbs and descends.

B.like a very sluggish airspeed indicator lagging all the changes by minutes.

C.normally due to the static port pressure changes.
A
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

A.The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.

B.The gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative.

C.The altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
C
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?

A.The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).

B.The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.

C.The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.
C
If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?

A.The vertical speed to show a climb.

B.The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.

C.The altimeter to read higher than normal.
B
You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you

A.may not proceed under IFR until the instrument is corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.

B.may take off under IFR and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.

C.may take off and proceed under IFR but only in VFR weather conditions.
C
During a constant-rate climb in IMC above the freezing level, you notice that both the airspeed and altitude are increasing. This indicates the

A.aircraft is in an unusual attitude.

B.gyroscopic instruments have failed.

C.pitot static system has malfunctioned.
B
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above

A.sea level.

B.the standard datum plane.

C.ground level.
C
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter

A.on 29.92 inches Hg.

B.on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.

C.to the airport elevation.
C
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

A.Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.

B.Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.

C.Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
C
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?

A.Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.

B.Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.

C.Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy
B
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for

A.the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.

B.better vertical separation of aircraft.

C.more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.
B
Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg?

A.Density.

B.Pressure.

C.Standard.
B
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

A.pressure altitude at sea level.

B.true altitude at field elevation.

C.pressure altitude at field elevation.
B
While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?

A.24,000 feet.

B.25,000 feet.

C.26,000 feet.
B
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

A.the field elevation.

B.29.92" Hg.

C.the current altimeter setting.
A
The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to

A.the field elevation.

B.29.92" Hg.

C.the current altimeter setting.
A
How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?

A.Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the pressure altitude on the instrument face.

B.Set your altimeter to the field elevation and read the pressure altitude from the Kollsman window.

C.Contact an ATC facility FSS and request the current pressure altitude for the area.
B
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately

A.7,500 feet.

B.6,000 feet.

C.6,500 feet.
B
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A.When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.

B.When standard atmospheric conditions exist.

C.When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
C
How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?

A.The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.

B.FSS's along the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.

C.ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.
C
What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

A.Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.

B.Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.

C.Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.
C
En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 in. Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?

A.100 feet MSL.

B.474 feet MSL.

C.206 feet below MSL.
B
Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?

A.Indicated.

B.Pressure.

C.Calibrated.
C
En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?

A.715 feet.

B.1,300 feet.

C.Sea level.
A
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

A.At standard temperature.

B.When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.

C.When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.
B
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?

A.In warmer than standard air temperature.

B.In colder than standard air temperature.

C.When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
C
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?

A.Air temperature lower than standard.

B.Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.

C.Air temperature warmer than standard.
B
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?

A.Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.

B.Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

C.Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
C
When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?

A.Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.

B.Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.

C.Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
B
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the

A.ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.

B.resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.

C.deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
A
What pre-takeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

A.After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.

B.After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.

C.Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.
C
What pre-takeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?

A.The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.

B.The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.

C.The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.
A
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?

A.The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.

B.The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.

C.The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.
C
During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?

A.Acceleration.

B.Deceleration.

C.Centrifugal.
B
If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator

A.should immediately show straight-and-level flight.

B.may show a slight climb and turn.

C.show a slight skid and climb to the right.
B
During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight-and-level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?

A.A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.

B.The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.

C.The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
C
During normal operation of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight-and-level coordinated flight?

A.A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.

B.A nose-high indication relative to level flight.

C.The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.
A
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a

A.180° turn.

B.270° turn.

C.360° turn.
C
When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

A.left turn.

B.climb.

C.descent.
A
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a

A.climb.

B.descent.

C.right turn.
C
During normal flight with a vacuum driven attitude indicator, control pressures normally should not move the horizon bar more than

A.One bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.

B.One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one bar width for normal flight deviations.

C.One-half bar width, with not more than an additional one-half bar width for normal flight deviations.
B
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to determine if the

A.needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon.

B.needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.

C.ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.
A
What indications should you observe on the turn-and-slip indicator during taxi?

A.The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.

B.The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.

C.The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.
B
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing?

A.The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.

B.The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left.

C.Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
A
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?

A.Rate of roll and rate of turn.

B.Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

C.Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
A
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?

A.Rate of roll and rate of turn.

B.Angle of bank and rate of turn.

C.Angle of bank.
B
To maintain a standard rate turn as the airspeed increases, the bank angle of the aircraft will need to

A.remain constant.

B.increase.

C.decrease.
A
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?


A.Indirect indication of the bank attitude.

B.Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.

C.Quality of the turn.
C
Question: 68The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will

A.indicate the angle of bank.

B.remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.

C.increase as angle of bank increases.
B
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?

A.The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.

B.The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.

C.Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
A
In a left turn, correct control coordination is indicated by

A.The ball of the turn coordinator in the center.

B.The ball of the turn coordinator to the left of center.

C.The ball of the turn coordinator to the right of center.
A
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator display?

A.Initially rate of bank and then directly rate of turn.

B.Directly bank angle and then directly rate of turn.

C.Indirectly bank angle and indirectly rate of turn.
A
To maintain a standard-rate turn as the airspeed decreases, the bank angle of the airplane will need to

A.decrease.

B.increase.

C.remain constant.
A
Which is true of glass cockpits?

A.They enhance situational awareness.

B.They require less frequent training.

C.They give less reliable information to the pilot than traditional instruments.
B
Which display combines instruments such as an altimeter, attitude indicator, and vertical speed indicator onto one given screen?

A.Multi-function display.

B.Primary flight display.

C.Glass cockpit display.
C
Primary flight displays

A.primarily present terrain avoidance.

B.provide traffic information.

C.include instruments like the attitude indicator.
A
In a Technologically Advanced Aircraft, the pilot sees the flight instruments on what?

A.PFD.

B.AHRS.

C.MFD.
C
The lighter workloads associated with glass (digital) flight instrumentation

A.are instrumental in decreasing flightcrew fatigue.

B.have proven to increase safety in operations.

C.may lead to complacency by the flightcrew.
B
When a pilot believes advanced avionics enable operations closer to personal or environmental limits,

A.greater utilization of the aircraft is achieved.

B.risk is increased.

C.risk is decreased.
A
The advancement of avionics in light general aviation airplanes has enhanced situational awareness for properly trained pilots. However, there is concern that this technology could lead to

A.complacency.

B.fatigue.

C.resignation.
A
Automation in aircraft has proven

A.to present new hazards in its limitations.

B.that automation is basically flawless.

C.effective in preventing accidents.
B
An aircraft which is equipped with an Electronic Flight Display (EFD) can

A.compensate for an airman's lack of skill or knowledge.

B.offer new capabilities and simplify the basic flying task.

C.improve flight awareness by allowing the pilot to simply watch for alerts.
B
You are flying an aircraft equipped with an electronic flight display and the air data computer fails. What instrument is affected?

A.ADS-B in capability.

B.Airspeed indicator.

C.Attitude indicator.
A
Risk is increased when flightcrew members

A.fail to monitor automated navigation systems.

B.allocate time to verify expected performance of automated systems.

C.question the performance of each other's duties.
A
Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn? (Figure 144)

A.3

B.1

C.2
A
What changes in control displacement should be made so that "2" would result in a coordinated standard-rate turn? (Figure 144)

A.Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.

B.Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.

C.Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.
B
Which illustration indicates a skidding turn? (Figure 144)

A.2

B.1

C.3
C
Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?(Figure 144)

A.1

B.3

C.2
B
What changes in control displacement should be made so that "1" would result in a coordinated standard rate turn? (Figure)

A.Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.

B.Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.

C.Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.
C
What force causes an airplane to turn?

A.Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.

B.Vertical lift component.

C.Horizontal lift component.
A
The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon

A.the horizontal lift component.

B.the vertical lift component.

C.centrifugal force.
B
What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?

A.Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.

B.Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.

C.Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.
B
When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?

A.Decrease the angle of bank.

B.Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.

C.Decrease the angle of attack.
B
The primary reason the pitch attitude must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

A.thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.

B.vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.

C.use of pedals has increased the drag
A
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?

A.Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.

B.Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.

C.Increase the angle of attack.
B
Question: 95The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the

A.thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.

B.vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.

C.use of ailerons has increased the drag.
B
During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

A.Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.

B.Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.

C.Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.
C
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?

A.Increase the pitch attitude and/or increase the angle of bank.

B.Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude.

C.Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the pitch attitude.
C
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?

A.1 minute.

B.2 minutes.

C.4 minutes.
B
Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by

A.decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.

B.decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.

C.increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.
C
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?

A.30 seconds.

B.40 seconds.

C.50 seconds.
C
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?

A.1 minute.

B.1 minute 20 seconds.

C.1 minute 30 seconds.
A
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?

A.1 minute.

B.2 minutes.

C.3 minutes.
B
If a half-standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?

A.30 seconds.

B.1 minute.

C.1 minute 30 seconds.
C
During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?

A.Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase.

B.Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.

C.Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.
A
If a standard-rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?

A.1 minute.

B.2 minutes.

C.3 minutes.
A
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific altitude?

A.10 percent.

B.20 percent.

C.25 percent.
B
Conditions that determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are

A.flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.

B.airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.

C.relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.
A
To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level-off by approximately

A.10 percent of the vertical speed.

B.30 percent of the vertical speed.

C.50 percent of the vertical speed.
B
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using

A.two bar widths on the attitude indicator.

B.less than a full bar width on the attitude indicator.

C.less than a half bar width on the attitude indicator.
B
To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately

A.50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.

B.100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.

C.150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.
C
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

A.Altimeter and VSI.

B.Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.

C.Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
B
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?

A.Altimeter and VSI.

B.Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.

C.Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
C
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should

A.first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.

B.first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.

C.simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.
B
To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately

A.20 feet.

B.50 feet.

C.60 feet.
C
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

A.attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.

B.vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.

C.attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130-knot climb.
A
While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the

A.attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160-knot climb.

B.attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.

C.airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.
C
What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

A.Instrument cross-check.

B.Power control.

C.Aircraft control.
B
What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?

A.Aircraft control.

B.Instrument cross-check.

C.Instrument interpretation.
B
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?

A.Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.

B.Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.

C.Cross-check, emphasis, and aircraft control.
C
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?

A.Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.

B.Instrument interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.

C.Cross-check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
C
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?

A.Altimeter and airspeed only.

B.Altimeter and VSI only.

C.Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
C
For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?

A.Altimeter.

B.VSI.

C.Attitude indicator.
C
Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?

A.Attitude indicator.

B.Heading indicator or magnetic compass.

C.Ball of the turn coordinator.
A
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the

A.airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.

B.airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement.

C.altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.
B
If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?

A.Turn indicator and VSI.

B.Airspeed and altimeter.

C.VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.
B
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?

A.Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.

B.Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.

C.Correct the bank attitude, raise the nose to a level attitude, and reduce power.
C
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant

A.the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.

B.a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.

C.the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.
B
What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? (Figure 145)

A.Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.

B.Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.

C.Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.
B
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? (Figure 147)

A.Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.

B.Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.

C.Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading.
A
Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight. (Figure 146)

A.Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level-flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.

B.Vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed.

C.Electrical system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.
B
What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned. (Figure 148)

A.Climbing turn to left.

B.Climbing turn to right.

C.Level turn to left.
C
What is the flight attitude? (Figure 149) One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.

A.Level turn to the right.

B.Level turn to the left.


C.Straight-and-level flight.
A
What is the flight attitude? (Figure 150) One instrument has malfunctioned.

A.Climbing turn to the right.

B.Climbing turn to the left.

C.Descending turn to the right.
B
What is the flight attitude? (Figure 151) One instrument has malfunctioned.

A.Climbing turn to the right.

B.Level turn to the right.

C.Level turn to the left.
B
If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?

A.Constant airspeed (VA).

B.Level flight attitude.

C.Constant altitude and constant airspeed.
B
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the

A.maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.

B.amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.

C.airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.
B
When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind-shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?

A.A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.

B.A sudden change in airspeed.

C.A sudden surge of thrust.
B
What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

A.Step hard on the brakes.

B.Hold nose up.

C.Go around.
A
Which term describes the hydroplaning which occurs when an airplane's tire is effectively held off a smooth runway surface by steam generated by friction?

A.Reverted rubber hydroplaning.

B.Dynamic hydroplaning.

C.Viscous hydroplaning.
C
What is the best method of speed reduction if hydroplaning is experienced on landing?

A.Apply full main wheel braking only.

B.Apply nosewheel and main wheel braking alternately and abruptly.

C.Apply aerodynamic braking to the fullest advantage.
C
What effect, if any, will landing at a higher-than-recommended touchdown speed have on hydroplaning?

A.No effect on hydroplaning, but increases landing roll.

B.Reduces hydroplaning potential if heavy braking is applied.

C.Increases hydroplaning potential regardless of braking.
B
Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?


A.When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.

B.During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.

C.During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.
A
Under what conditions might a pilot expect the possibility of hydroplaning?

A.When landing on a wet runway that is covered in rubber from previous landings.

B.When departing a grooved runway with less than a thousandth of an inch of water.

C.When the adiabatic lapse rate is high, and steam is rising from the landing surface.
C
What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights? (Figure138)

A.No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.

B.Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.

C.Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.
A
Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?


A.Arrows leading to the threshold mark.

B.Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.

C.Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.
B
What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker? (Figure 137)

A.500 feet.

B.1,000 feet.

C.1,500 feet.
B
What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker? (Figure 137)


A.250 feet.

B.500 feet.

C.750 feet.
B
What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker? (Figure 137)

A.1,000 feet.

B.500 feet.

C.250 feet.
B
The "ILS critical area boundary" sign identifies the

A.Area where an aircraft is prohibited from entering.

B.Edge of the ILS critical area.

C.Exit boundary for the runway protected area.
B
The "runway hold position" sign denotes

A.an entrance to a taxiway from runway.

B.an entrance to a runway from a taxiway.

C.an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway.
A
"Runway hold position" markings on the taxiway

A.identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway.

B.identifies area where aircraft are prohibited.

C.allows an aircraft permission onto the runway.
A
Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign? (Figure 254)

A.Top red.

B.Middle yellow.

C.Bottom yellow.
C
While clearing an active runway, you are clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign? (Figure 254)

A.Top red.

B.Middle yellow.

C.Bottom yellow.
C
Which sign indicates you're holding short of the ILS critical area? (Figure 254)

A.Top red.

B.Middle yellow.

C.Bottom yellow.
C
The "No Entry" sign identifies

A.the exit boundary for the runway protected area.

B.an area that does not continue beyond intersection.

C.paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
B
Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having (Figure 94)

A.yellow lettering with a black background.

B.white lettering with a red background.

C.black lettering with a yellow background.
B
What sign is designated by illustration 7? (figure 94)

A.Location sign.

B.Mandatory instruction sign.

C.Direction sign.
A
What colors are runway holding position signs? (Figure 94)

A.White with a red background.

B.Red with a white background.

C.Yellow with a black background.
B
Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are (Figure 94)

A.white, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.

B.yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.

C.yellow, and the solid lines are nearest the runway.
C
Destination signs indicate

A.The taxiway a pilot is on.

B.The runway a pilot is on.

C.The direction to takeoff runways.
B
What is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A.Defines direction and designation of runway when exiting a taxiway.

B.Defines direction and designation of exit taxiway from runway.

C.Defines a mandatory exit point from the runway during Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO).
A
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?

A.Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.

B.Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

C.Indicates direction to take-off runway.
A
A runway exit sign

A.points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway.

B.designates an intersection of two or more runways.

C.shows the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway.
b
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the "taxiway directional sign" indicates

A.direction to the take-off runway.

B.designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

C.designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
B
Within aircraft movement areas, "destination signs" identify the

A.runway on which an aircraft is located.

B.direction to the takeoff runway.

C.entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
B
Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A.Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.

B.Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.

C.Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
C
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths? (Figure 135)

A.5

B.6

C.7
A
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths? (Figure 135)

A.4

B.5

C.6
B
Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath? (Figure 135)

A.4

B.5

C.6
A
When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as

A.white and the far bar as red.

B.red and the far bar as white.

C.white and the far bar as white.
B
Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

A.If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.

B.If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

C.If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.
C
If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should

A.start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.

B.continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.

C.level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.
C
The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will

A.both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.

B.constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.

C.constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.
B
An "on glidepath" indication is (Figure 136)

A.8

B.10

C.11
C
Which illustration depicts a "slightly low" (2.8°) indication?(Figure 136)

A.9

B.10

C.11
C
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°? (Figure 136)

A.10

B.11

C.12
C
Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is far below the glidepath?

A.10

B.11

C.12
A
You have accepted a visual approach to RWY 16L at EUG at night. As you approach the runway, you notice runway centerline lights. This indicates (Figure 162)

A.you are on the centerline for your assigned runway.

B.you are too low on the approach.

C.you have lined up with the wrong runway.
A
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide


A.rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

B.a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.

C.rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
C
The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide

A.rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.

B.a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.

C.rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.
C
Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because

A.the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.

B.the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.

C.of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.
B
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 5 knots have on vortex behavior?

A.The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.

B.The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

C.The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
C
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?

A.Direct headwind.

B.Direct tailwind.

C.Light quartering tailwind.
C
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?

A.If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.

B.At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.

C.Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
B
With winds reported as from 330° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 4 for departure and to expect takeoff after an airliner departs from runway 29. What effect would you expect from that airliner's vortices? (Figure 158)

A.The winds will push the vortices southeast of your takeoff path.

B.The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

C.The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.
A
Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?


A.Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.

B.Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.

C.Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.
C
What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?

A.If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.

B.Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.

C.Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.
B
When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?

A.At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.

B.When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.

C.Only when advised by ATC.
C
What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?

A.Reporting VFR conditions to ARTCC.

B.Obtaining an amended clearance authorizing VFR flight.

C.Seeing and avoiding other aircraft.
A
Which types of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

A.Limits of controlled airspace, military training routes, and special use airspace.

B.Class A, special use airspace, Class D, and Class E.

C.Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B, and Class C.
B
The vertical extent of the Class A airspace extends from

A.18,000 feet to and including FL 450.

B.18,000 feet to and including FL 600.

C.12,500 feet to and including FL 600.
A
Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?

A.The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

B.That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.

C.The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.
A
Class G airspace is that airspace where

A.ATC does not control air traffic.

B.ATC controls only IFR flights.

C.the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.
C
What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?

A.Surface to 700 feet AGL.

B.1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.

C.700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.
C
In addition to a VOR receiver and two-way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?

A.DME, an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability, and ADS-B Out equipment.

B.Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.

C.An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability and ADS-B Out equipment.
A
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?

A.A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.

B.A VOR receiver with DME.

C.A 4096 code transponder.
B
MOAs are established to

A.prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.

B.separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.

C.restrict civil aircraft during periods of high-density training activities.
A
What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

A.Two-way communications, a Mode C transponder, and ADS-B Out equipment.

B.Two-way communications.

C.Transponder, ADS-B Out equipment, and DME.
B
Your transponder is inoperative. What are the requirements for flying in Class D airspace?

A.The entry into Class D is prohibited.

B.Continue the flight as planned.

C.Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.
B
When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?

A.When operating in the Class E airspace.

B.When operating in a Class A airspace.

C.When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.
C
When is an IFR flight plan required?

A.When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.

B.In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.

C.In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.
B
Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan?

A.Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.

B.Class E airspace with IMC and Class A airspace.

C.Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.
A
What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

A.3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

B.5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

C.3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
B
What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)

A.3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

B.5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

C.5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.
B
A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours?

A.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

C.3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 1,000 feet.
B
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in Class G airspace?

A.3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontally 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.1 mile; above clear of clouds; horizontally clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.

C.1 mile; above 500 feet; horizontally 1,000 feet; below 500 feet.
C
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours?

A.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.

C.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
C
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours?

A.2,000 feet; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

C.3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.
A
What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours?

A.1 mile; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.3 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

C.5 miles; above 1,000 feet; horizontal 1 mile; below 1,000 feet.
C
What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours?

A.1 mile; above 2,000 feet; horizontal 2,000 feet; below 500 feet.

B.3 miles; above clear of clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below 500 feet.

C.1 mile; above clear of clouds; horizontal clear of clouds; below clear of clouds.
C
When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?

A.Flight through an MOA.

B.Flight into an ADIZ.

C.Flight into Class A airspace.
B
You are cleared to land on RWY 16L at Eugene Mahlon Sweet Field. As you break out of the clouds, you are lined up with the white lights down the center of the runway, which lets you know that you (Figure 162)

A.are on course and lined up correctly.

B.are off course.

C.should recheck the winds prior to landing.
B
What is the slope of RWY 9? (Figure 251)

A.0.4% up.

B.0.4% down.

C.0.3% down.
B
When lined up for takeoff on runway 4, the compass and heading indicator should read a heading of about (Figure251)

A.040°

B.050°

C.055°
B
When lined up for takeoff on runway 18, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about (Figure251)

A.180°

B.185°

C.175°
B
What is the actual heading of runway 36 at Oshkosh/Wittman Regional (OSH) airport? (Figure 251)

A.0.3%

B.003.6°

C.360°
B
When lined up for takeoff on RWY 27, the compass and heading indicator should display a heading of about (Figure 251)

A.270°

B.275°

C.265°
B
Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

A.Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.

B.Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.

C.The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.
B
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A.Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.

B.Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.

C.Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.
C
Which is not a type of hypoxia?

A.Histotoxic.

B.Hypoxic.

C.Hypertoxic.
A
If you experience tunnel vision and cyanosis, you may have symptoms of

A.hypoxia.

B.hyperventilation.

C.carbon monoxide poisoning.
A
Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight?

A.Promptly descend to a lower altitude.

B.Increase cabin air flow.

C.Avoid sudden inhalations.
A
Carbon monoxide poisoning, common in flying as a result of an exhaust leak, is considered what type of hypoxia?

A.Hypemic.

B.Histotoxic.

C.Hypoxic.
C
Hyperventilation occurs when

A.an insufficient amount of air is breathed into the lungs.

B.there is a lack of oxygen in the bloodstream.

C.an excessive amount of air is breathed into the lungs.
C
A corrective action to overcome symptoms of hyperventilation is to

A.take quick, deep breaths.

B.lower altitude immediately.

C.slow the breathing rate.
A
A pilot making a blood donation in order to help a sick associate should be aware that for several weeks

A.sufficient oxygen may not reach the cells in the body.

B.fewer oxygen molecules will be available to the respiratory membranes.

C.the ability of the body tissues to effectively use oxygen is decreased.
C
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions

A.are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.

B.occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.

C.must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.
C
Which system is most likely responsible for a pilot suffering spatial disorientation?

A.Cardiopulmonary system.

B.Autokinesis system.

C.Vestibular system.
C
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if

A.kinesthetic senses are ignored.

B.eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.

C.body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.
C
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

A.Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.

B.Rely on the kinesthetic sense.

C.Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.
C
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

A.Rely on kinesthetic sense.

B.Use a very rapid cross-check.

C.Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
B
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?

A.Use a very rapid cross-check.

B.Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly.

C.Avoid banking in excess of 30°.
A
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

A.pilot disorientation.

B.false horizon.

C.elevator illusion.
B
A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of

A.spinning in the opposite direction.

B.being in a noseup attitude.

C.diving into the ground.
A
An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of

A.tumbling backwards.

B.a noseup attitude.

C.a descent with the wings level.
C
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as

A.elevator illusions.

B.autokinesis.

C.false horizons.
A
While making prolonged constant-rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as

A.Coriolis illusion.

B.autokinesis.

C.the leans.
A
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause

A.Coriolis illusion.

B.elevator illusion.

C.inversion illusion.
B
The sensory system responsible for most of the illusions leading to spatial disorientation is the

A.visual system.

B.vestibular system.

C.postural system
A
Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of

A.rising or falling.

B.turning.

C.motion reversal.
C
Pilots should take care when retrieving charts or dropped objects on the flight deck to avoid

A.autokinesis.

B.false horizon.

C.Coriolis illusion.
C
Pilots should take care when retrieving charts or dropped objects on the flight deck to avoid

A.autokinesis.

B.false horizon.

C.Coriolis illusion.
A
To preserve night vision, the most appropriate flight deck lighting is

A.reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.

B.the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.

C.increase the interior intensity to slightly above the outside level.
C
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A.Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see.

B.The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.

C.Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.
B
Which statement is correct regarding the use of flight deck lighting for night flight?

A.Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.

B.The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.

C.Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.
A
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?

A.Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

B.Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.

C.Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.
A
Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be

A.higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach.

B.lower than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.

C.higher than actual, leading to a higher-than-normal approach.
A
What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway?

A.An upsloping runway.

B.A wider-than-usual runway.

C.A downsloping runway.
A
The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a

A.lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short.

B.slower approach with the risk of reducing airspeed below VSO or landing hard.

C.higher approach with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.
B
Why is fatigue hazardous to flight safety?

A.The pilot hurries to get done in order to rest.

B.Fatigue may not be apparent to a pilot until serious errors are made (an impaired pilot is a dangerous pilot).

C.The pilot is lazy and rushes to get done quickly.
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