How can we help?
You can also find more resources in our
Select a category
Something is confusing
Something is broken
I have a suggestion
What is your email?
What is 1 + 3?
Upgrade to remove ads
Role of memory cells is to:
support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens
The role of memory cells is to:
support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens
Tears are considered to be part of the:
1st line of defense/nonspecific defenses
The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
signs & symptoms of a disease
Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
↓ capillary permeability
Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
The process of phagocytosis involves the:
ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes
What is normal body temperature on the Celsius scale?
The primary side effect of Benadryl is:
HIV is transmitted by:
blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from an infected person
1 kg equals _____ pounds.
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
An agent often used in the treatment of AIDS is:
Warmth & redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
↑ blood flow into the area of the inflammation
An acute episode of a chronic disease is called a(n):
The fraction ¼ converts to:
Both 0.25 and 25%
A tissue in which the cells vary in size & shape + show ↑ mitotic figures would be called:
The term nosocomial infection means:
infection acquired in a hospital or medical facility
What method do viruses use to replicate?
using a host cell to produce &assemble components
Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
histamine & prostaglandins
Which of the following is a factor that may affect drug dosage?
Roman numeral LXI equals:
If a drug order states that a drug is to be administered tid, it should be given:
3 times a day
Which area of the body is sterile?
Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
Which of the following helps to localize & contain the foreign material during an inflammatory response?
A serious side effect of the immunosuppressives is:
↑ susceptibility to infections
Varicella is another word for:
Opportunistic infection may develop when:
member of resident flora migrates & colonizes a new location in the body
Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
Which are local signs of infection?
pain, erythema, and swelling
The abbreviation for "every day" is:
Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called:
The dose of a given drug may be smaller if administered:
localized pocket of infection or purulent exudate, sometimes referred to as pus, in a solid tissue
bands of scar tissue joining 2 surfaces that are normally separated
building up or synthesis of complex compounds from simple molecules
absence of O₂
loss of appetite
substance derived from microorganisms that is used to treat infection
agent that kills or inhibits growth & reproduction of microorganisms
drugs that ↓ replication of viruses, but they do not kill the virus, and thus are not a cure
lack of breathing
programmed cell death; cells self-destruct, appearing to digest themselves enzymatically, and then disintegrate into fragments
antibodies formed against self-antigens
abnormal destruction of tissues by activated digestive enzymes
examination after death
division of a tube or vessel into 2 channels or branches
excision of very small amounts of living tissue
ball of food
contraction of the bronchiolar smooth muscle & narrowing of the airway
stones developing in the body (kidney, bile, gall)
necrosis forming a core of cheese-like material consisting of dead macrophages & necrotic tissue
breakdown of complex molecules into simple molecules during metabolism
chemicals that affect blood vessels or nerves in a damaged area
histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
movement of cells towards or away from an area of the body in response to chemical signals
phagocytic cells move from an area of tissue injury
obstructed flow of bile in the liver or biliary tract
painless, firm, fibrotic enlargement at the end of a digit
sticking together or being attracted
protein that is the basic component of scar tissue & provides strength for new repair
surgical creation of an artificial opening from the colon onto the abdominal surface
breast milk containing antibodies for newborns from their mother
group of inactive proteins, labeled C1-C9 circulating in the blood
fixation or deformity of a joint shortening of a muscle or scar tissue causing immobility & deformity of a joint or structure
asubstance that damages or destroys cells
movement of cells the passage of leukocytes through intact capillary walls
infection in the pleural cavity, may cause adhesions between pleural membranes, restricting ventilation
disease that is always present in a specific region
originating from w/in the body
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Rate at which RBCs settle out of a blood specimen (containing anti-coagulant), an elevation in ESR is a general characteristic of inflammation
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Elevated plasma proteins ↑ rate at which RBCs settle in a blood sample
normal, regular, quiet breathing (normal respiration rate 10-18 inspirations per minute)
pertaining to the secretion of a substance outside an organ
originating from the environment/outside the body
medication used to assist in breaking up mucus
collection of interstitial fluid formed in the inflamed area
fluid that accumulates & may leak from tissue
serous exudate due to an allergy, a purulent exudate, or pus associated w/infection
hard mass of feces, often impacted in the intestine
plasma protein that is formed into solid fibrin strands during the clotting process
exudates are thick & sticky & have a ↑ cell & fibrin content. This type of exudate ↑ risk of scar tissue
connective tissue cells
area of necrotic tissue that has been invaded by bacteria
removal of the stomach
steroid hormones from the adrenal cortex e.g., cortisol (hydrocortisone), that ↑ blood glucose levels & act to ↓ inflammation in allergic reactions
glucose in the urine
conversion of protein & fat into glucose
polysaccharide made up of glucose molecules, stored in the skeletal muscle or liver
newly developed, fragile tissue consists of fibroblasts & blood vessels, formed during healing
nodular destructive mass associated w/some chronic inflammation or infections
brown, granular material, resulting from the partial digestion in the stomach of protein in the blood
% of RBC in a volume of blood
production of blood cells in bone marrow
blood-tinged (bright red) frothy sputum that is usually associated w/pulmonary edema
chemicals or drugs that may cause inflammation of the liver
relatively stable or constant environment in the body (BP, temp, pH)
movement of fluid, electrolytes, O₂ & nutrients out of the capillary at the arteriolar end
↑ CO₂ levels in the blood
↑ blood flow in an area resulting in a warm, red area
↑ glucose levels
↓ glucose levels
↓ O₂ in tissue
disease caused by a treatment, procedure, or an error
when the cause of a disease is unknown
surgical creation of an artificial opening from the ileum onto the bile duct
retention of feces in the rectum & colon
response to tissue damage indicated by redness, swelling, and pain
non-specific agents that protect unintended cells against viruses
group of antiviral glycoproteins produced by viral infected cells
into join cavity or joint space
↓ blood supply to an organ or tissue
cell enzymes specific to certain organs, that differ slightly in structure, but have similar functions
excessive amount of ketones in the blood
chemical by product of lipid metabolism
ketoacids in the urine
Neutrophils, Basophils, and Eosinophils
above normal # of leukocytes (WBCs) in the blood
destruction of a cell, dissolution
membrane-bound vesicle in a cell containing digestive or lytic enzymes, including lysozyme
enzymes found in some cells and in body fluids such as tears, sweat, or saliva, which can destroy some microorganisms.
degenerative changes in the walls of large arteries, can ↑incidence of heart attack, strokes, peripheral vascular disease in diabetics
"vulture cells" active in phagocytosis; mature monocytes that have migrated into the tissues from blood
general feeling of unwellness
dark-colored (tarry) stool that results from significant bleeding that has occurred higher in the digestive tract
double layer of peritoneum that supports the intestines & conveys blood vessels & nerves to supply the wall of the intestine
obstruction or rupture of capillaries & small arteries resulting in tissue necrosis & ↓ function
very small living organisms not visible to the naked eye, usually single-celled
visible only when magnified by lenses in a microscope
physical size, form, structure, and shape of cells or organs
controls the release of hormones from glands
degeneration of nerve fiber
involved in phagocytosis of microorganisms
blood, small, hidden amounts of blood that are not visible but are detectable on tests of a stool specimen
movement of fluid, CO₂, and other wastes into the blood
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
sudden acute type of dyspnea common in patients w/left sided congestive heart failure
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
during sleep the body fluid is redistributed, leading to pulmonary edema & the individual wakes up gasping for air & coughing
erosion through the cell wall
ability to pass through
process by which neutrophils (a leukocyte) & macrophages, the "vulture cells," randomly engulf & destroy bacteria, cell debris, or foreign matter
likelihood or chance of occurrence
abnormally large volume of urine excreted w/in a given time period
destructive enzymes released by neutrophils during an inflammatory response, that breakdown protein into amino acid
abnormal ↓ in systolic pressure during inspiration
exudates are thick, yellow-green in color & contain more leukocytes & cell debris as well as microorganisms. Typically indicated bacterial infection & the exudate is usually referred to as pus.
fever producing substances (e.g., interleukin -1)
light bubbly or crackling sounds associated w/serous secretions
occurs in damaged tissue in which the cells are capable of mitosis. Damaged tissue is replaced by identical tissue from the proliferation of nearby cells.
takes place when there is extensive tissue damage or the cells are incapable of mitosis. Wound area must be covered & filled in by some form of tissue.
occurs when there is minimal tissue damage, the damaged cells recover, and the tissue returns to normal w/in a short period of time
organs covered w/peritoneum only on the anterior surface (kidney + pancreas)
deeper & higher sounds resulting from thicker mucus
folds containing the empty stomach wall
tissue that fills the gap or defect in tissue (not normal, functional, nor does it contain any specialized structures such as hair follicles or glands)
watery exudate, consists primarily of fluid w/small amounts of protein & WBCs (e.g., allergic reaction from a burn)
channels filled w/blood from 2 sources (branches of the hepatic artery & venous blood from the portal vein)
congestion in the spleen
exudates from the upper respiratory tract
"fatty diarrhea" marked by frequent, bulky, greasy, loose stools, often w/a foul odor. Common w/malabsorption disorders (Celiac disease and Cystic Fibrosis)
narrowing of a tube, valve, or opening stricture
high-pitched crowing noise usually indicates upper airway obstruction
property of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force
abnormal narrowing of a duct or tube
persistent spasms of the rectum associated w/a need to defecate
hormone, hormones that have other endocrine glands as their target
open, crater-like lesion on the skin or mucous membranes
producing or aggravating ulcers
relaxation of smooth muscle causing an ↑ in the diameter of arterioles
whistling sound indicating an obstruction in the airway
Which of the following is an enzyme that is used in cancer chemotherapy?
What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
determine the best treatment & prognosis
Neoplasms are caused by:
uncontrolled cell division
Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
↓ adverse effects + be effective in more phases of the cell cycle
Radiation therapy destroys:
primarily rapidly dividing cells
The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
obstruction of a tube or duct + cell necrosis & ulceration
Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy & radiation because:
may ↓ inflammation around the tumor
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma differs from Hodgkin's lymphoma in that non-Hodgkin's lymphoma usually presents as:
multiple, scattered, enlarged & painless lymph nodes
Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
bone marrow depression
What would be the result of a ↓ # of erythrocytes in the blood?
The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy & radiation therapy include:
thrombocytopenia & leukopenia
Hydroxyurea is believed to function in cancer therapy by:
interfering w/formation of DNA
Iron-deficiency anemia frequently results from any of the following EXCEPT:
What is the spread of malignant cells through blood & lymph to distant sites called?
What is the cause of sickle-cell anemia?
defective gene inherited from both parents
The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
irreversible change in the cell DNA
Basal cell carcinoma is an example of which type of cancer?
Which anemia is considered to result from a malabsorption problem?
Methyltestosterone may be used to treat:
Which of the following is an agent used to treat the anemia that often occurs after chemotherapy?
W/acute leukemias, ↑ # of malignant leukocytes leads to:
↓ hemoglobin, thrombocytopenia, constant bone pain, splenomegaly
Which of the following is an example of an antitumor antibiotic?
A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
Which of the following is an example of an antiandrogen?
Which of the following would be significant signs of bronchiectasis?
chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
What are the early signs & symptoms of myocardial infarction?
persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse
What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
chronic irritation, inflammation, and infection of the larger airways
What are typical signs &symptoms of epiglottitis?
sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva
Which are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, prosthetic valves
Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
insufficient surfactant production
Persistent thick mucus in the broncholes of a child w/cystic fibrosis may cause:
air trapping, atelectasis, repeated infections, irreversible damage to tissue
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because it:
promotes thrombus formation
What results from ↑ secretion of epinephrine?
↑ heart rate & force of contraction
Loss of blood supply in a limb may lead to:
Necrosis, Ulcers, Gangrene
What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?
Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
Obstruction in the upper airway would be indicated by:
When does flail chest occur?
several ribs are fractured at 2 sites
Which of the following drugs decreases sodium & fluid retention in the body?
Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
↓ cardiac & smooth muscle contractions
Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?
attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal & distal to the obstruction
Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a:
autosomal recessive gene
What is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration?
How is acute sinusitis usually manifested?
severe localized pain & tenderness in the face
What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
What drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to ↓ platelet adhesion?
Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA or Aspirin)
Destruction of alveolar walls & septae is typical of:
Which is the common source of a pulmonary embolus?
Thrombus forming in femoral veins
Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
contraction & relaxation of skeletal muscle
What describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
total obstruction of a coronary artery that causes myocardial necrosis
What are early signs & symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
A modifiable factor that ↑ risk for atherosclerosis is:
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except:
walking down stairs
What does vomiting initially cause?
A frequent cause of peptic ulcer disease is:
Helicobacter pylori infection
A cathartic may be necessary if:
there is discomfort associated w/elimination
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
An agent used to promote weight loss is:
What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
occult blood in the stool & anemia
Which of the following is related to Wilms' tumor?
a genetic defect
Which disease is manifested by dysuria & pyuria?
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
small amounts of bile are continuously secreted & flow into the duodenum
Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:
urinary casts & flank pain
What does esophageal atresia cause?
no fluid or food to enter the stomach
___________ is the involuntary discharge of urine and usually occurs at night.
Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body after a meal?
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
↑ intra-abdominal pressure
Which of the following is true of the visceral peritoneum?
It is the outer covering of the stomach & intestines
What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
vomiting w/epigastric tenderness
Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following except:
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
they emulsify lipids & lipid-soluble vitamins
What is the cause of psoriasis?
↑ mitosis & shedding of epithelium
Where is a Colles' fracture located?
wrist (distal radius)
Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
Exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness
What is the cause of Tinea infections?
Which of the following describes the characteristic lesions of herpes zoster?
painful vesicles along a dermatome or cranial nerve pathway
Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
necrosis & gangrene in the legs
What causes the itching associated with scabies?
mites burrowing into the epidermis
Which of the following constitutes a Colles' fracture?
distal radius is broken
What is the recommended treatment for insulin shock if the patient remains conscious?
oral administration of concentrated glucose
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
dietary supplements of Calcium & Vitamin D
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
degeneration of articulating cartilage in the large joints
How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?
limiting the acute stage & viral shedding
Which of the following does not usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
What is the primary cause of type I diabetes?
destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is true?
infection that rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis & toxic shock.
How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop in a diabetic person?
Upgrade to remove ads