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278 terms

Patho Pharm

STUDY
PLAY
Role of memory cells is to:
support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens
The role of memory cells is to:
support the immune response by recognizing certain antigens
Tears are considered to be part of the:
1st line of defense/nonspecific defenses
The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the:
signs & symptoms of a disease
Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly:
↓ capillary permeability
Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
active artificial
The process of phagocytosis involves the:
ingestion of foreign material or cell debris by leukocytes
What is normal body temperature on the Celsius scale?
37°
The primary side effect of Benadryl is:
drowsiness
HIV is transmitted by:
blood, semen, and vaginal secretions from an infected person
1 kg equals _____ pounds.
2.2
Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
an unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
An agent often used in the treatment of AIDS is:
zidovudine
Warmth & redness related to the inflammatory response results from:
↑ blood flow into the area of the inflammation
An acute episode of a chronic disease is called a(n):
exacerbation
The fraction ¼ converts to:
Both 0.25 and 25%
A tissue in which the cells vary in size & shape + show ↑ mitotic figures would be called:
dysplasia
The term nosocomial infection means:
infection acquired in a hospital or medical facility
What method do viruses use to replicate?
using a host cell to produce &assemble components
Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include:
histamine & prostaglandins
Which of the following is a factor that may affect drug dosage?
Weight
Roman numeral LXI equals:
61
If a drug order states that a drug is to be administered tid, it should be given:
3 times a day
Which area of the body is sterile?
stomach
Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of:
preventative measure
Which of the following helps to localize & contain the foreign material during an inflammatory response?
Fibrinogen
A serious side effect of the immunosuppressives is:
↑ susceptibility to infections
Varicella is another word for:
Chicken Pox
Opportunistic infection may develop when:
member of resident flora migrates & colonizes a new location in the body
Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
Macrophages
Which are local signs of infection?
pain, erythema, and swelling
The abbreviation for "every day" is:
qd
Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called:
staphylococci
The dose of a given drug may be smaller if administered:
intravenously
Abscess
localized pocket of infection or purulent exudate, sometimes referred to as pus, in a solid tissue
Adhesions
bands of scar tissue joining 2 surfaces that are normally separated
Anabolic
building up or synthesis of complex compounds from simple molecules
Anaerobic
absence of O₂
Anorexia
loss of appetite
Antibiotic
substance derived from microorganisms that is used to treat infection
Antimicrobial
agent that kills or inhibits growth & reproduction of microorganisms
Antiviral
drugs that ↓ replication of viruses, but they do not kill the virus, and thus are not a cure
Apnea
lack of breathing
Apoptosis
programmed cell death; cells self-destruct, appearing to digest themselves enzymatically, and then disintegrate into fragments
Autoantibodies
antibodies formed against self-antigens
Autodigestion
abnormal destruction of tissues by activated digestive enzymes
Autopsy
examination after death
Bifurcation
division of a tube or vessel into 2 channels or branches
Biopsy
excision of very small amounts of living tissue
Bolus
ball of food
Bronchoconstriction
contraction of the bronchiolar smooth muscle & narrowing of the airway
Calculi
stones developing in the body (kidney, bile, gall)
Caseation
necrosis forming a core of cheese-like material consisting of dead macrophages & necrotic tissue
Catabolism
breakdown of complex molecules into simple molecules during metabolism
Chemical mediators
chemicals that affect blood vessels or nerves in a damaged area
Chemical mediators
histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
Chemotaxis
movement of cells towards or away from an area of the body in response to chemical signals
Chemotaxis
phagocytic cells move from an area of tissue injury
Cholestasis
obstructed flow of bile in the liver or biliary tract
Chyme
gastric contents
Clubbing
painless, firm, fibrotic enlargement at the end of a digit
Cohesion
sticking together or being attracted
Collagen
protein that is the basic component of scar tissue & provides strength for new repair
Colostomy
surgical creation of an artificial opening from the colon onto the abdominal surface
Colostrum
breast milk containing antibodies for newborns from their mother
Complement
group of inactive proteins, labeled C1-C9 circulating in the blood
Contracture
fixation or deformity of a joint shortening of a muscle or scar tissue causing immobility & deformity of a joint or structure
Cytotoxic
asubstance that damages or destroys cells
Diapedesis
movement of cells the passage of leukocytes through intact capillary walls
Ectopic
outside
Empyema
infection in the pleural cavity, may cause adhesions between pleural membranes, restricting ventilation
Endemic
disease that is always present in a specific region
Endogenous
originating from w/in the body
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Rate at which RBCs settle out of a blood specimen (containing anti-coagulant), an elevation in ESR is a general characteristic of inflammation
Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)
Elevated plasma proteins ↑ rate at which RBCs settle in a blood sample
Eupnea
normal, regular, quiet breathing (normal respiration rate 10-18 inspirations per minute)
Exocrine
pertaining to the secretion of a substance outside an organ
Exogenous
originating from the environment/outside the body
Expectorant
medication used to assist in breaking up mucus
Exudate
collection of interstitial fluid formed in the inflamed area
Exudate
fluid that accumulates & may leak from tissue
Exudate
serous exudate due to an allergy, a purulent exudate, or pus associated w/infection
Fecalith
hard mass of feces, often impacted in the intestine
Fibrinogen
plasma protein that is formed into solid fibrin strands during the clotting process
Fibrinous
exudates are thick & sticky & have a ↑ cell & fibrin content. This type of exudate ↑ risk of scar tissue
Fibroblasts
connective tissue cells
Gangrene
area of necrotic tissue that has been invaded by bacteria
Gastrectomy
removal of the stomach
Glucocorticoids
steroid hormones from the adrenal cortex e.g., cortisol (hydrocortisone), that ↑ blood glucose levels & act to ↓ inflammation in allergic reactions
Glucosuria
glucose in the urine
Glyconeogenesis
conversion of protein & fat into glucose
Glycogen
polysaccharide made up of glucose molecules, stored in the skeletal muscle or liver
Granulation tissue
newly developed, fragile tissue consists of fibroblasts & blood vessels, formed during healing
Granuloma
nodular destructive mass associated w/some chronic inflammation or infections
Hematemesis
brown, granular material, resulting from the partial digestion in the stomach of protein in the blood
Hematocrit
% of RBC in a volume of blood
Hematopoesis
production of blood cells in bone marrow
Hemoptysis
blood-tinged (bright red) frothy sputum that is usually associated w/pulmonary edema
Hepatocytes
liver cells
Hepatotoxins
chemicals or drugs that may cause inflammation of the liver
Homeostasis
relatively stable or constant environment in the body (BP, temp, pH)
Hydrostatic pressure
movement of fluid, electrolytes, O₂ & nutrients out of the capillary at the arteriolar end
Hyperbilirubinemia
jaundice
Hypercapnia
↑ CO₂ levels in the blood
Hyperemia
↑ blood flow in an area resulting in a warm, red area
Hyperglycemia
↑ glucose levels
Hypoglycemia
↓ glucose levels
Hypoxemia
↓ O₂
Hypoxia
↓ O₂ in tissue
Iatrogenic
disease caused by a treatment, procedure, or an error
Icterus
jaundice
Idiopathic
when the cause of a disease is unknown
Ileostomy
surgical creation of an artificial opening from the ileum onto the bile duct
Impaction
retention of feces in the rectum & colon
Inflammation
response to tissue damage indicated by redness, swelling, and pain
Interferons
non-specific agents that protect unintended cells against viruses
Interferons
group of antiviral glycoproteins produced by viral infected cells
Intra articular
into join cavity or joint space
Ischemia
↓ blood supply to an organ or tissue
Isoenzymes
cell enzymes specific to certain organs, that differ slightly in structure, but have similar functions
Ketoacidosis
excessive amount of ketones in the blood
Ketones
chemical by product of lipid metabolism
Ketonuria
ketoacids in the urine
Leukocyte
Neutrophils, Basophils, and Eosinophils
Leukocytosis
above normal # of leukocytes (WBCs) in the blood
Lysis
destruction of a cell, dissolution
Lysosomal
destructive enzymes
Lysosome
membrane-bound vesicle in a cell containing digestive or lytic enzymes, including lysozyme
Lysozyme
enzymes found in some cells and in body fluids such as tears, sweat, or saliva, which can destroy some microorganisms.
Macroangiopathy
degenerative changes in the walls of large arteries, can ↑incidence of heart attack, strokes, peripheral vascular disease in diabetics
Macrophages
"vulture cells" active in phagocytosis; mature monocytes that have migrated into the tissues from blood
Malaise
general feeling of unwellness
Mastication
chewing
Melena
dark-colored (tarry) stool that results from significant bleeding that has occurred higher in the digestive tract
Mesentery
double layer of peritoneum that supports the intestines & conveys blood vessels & nerves to supply the wall of the intestine
Microangiopathy
obstruction or rupture of capillaries & small arteries resulting in tissue necrosis & ↓ function
Microorganisms
very small living organisms not visible to the naked eye, usually single-celled
Microscopic
visible only when magnified by lenses in a microscope
Morphologic
physical size, form, structure, and shape of cells or organs
Multiparity
several children
Negative feedback
controls the release of hormones from glands
Neuropathy
degeneration of nerve fiber
Neutrophil
involved in phagocytosis of microorganisms
Occult
blood, small, hidden amounts of blood that are not visible but are detectable on tests of a stool specimen
Osmotic pressure
movement of fluid, CO₂, and other wastes into the blood
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
sudden acute type of dyspnea common in patients w/left sided congestive heart failure
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
during sleep the body fluid is redistributed, leading to pulmonary edema & the individual wakes up gasping for air & coughing
Perforation
erosion through the cell wall
Permeability
ability to pass through
Phagocytosis
process by which neutrophils (a leukocyte) & macrophages, the "vulture cells," randomly engulf & destroy bacteria, cell debris, or foreign matter
Probability
likelihood or chance of occurrence
Polydipsia
↑ thirst
Polyphagia
↑ appetite
Polyuria
abnormally large volume of urine excreted w/in a given time period
Proteases
destructive enzymes released by neutrophils during an inflammatory response, that breakdown protein into amino acid
Pruritis
itching sensation
Pulsus paradoxus
abnormal ↓ in systolic pressure during inspiration
Purulent
exudates are thick, yellow-green in color & contain more leukocytes & cell debris as well as microorganisms. Typically indicated bacterial infection & the exudate is usually referred to as pus.
Pyrexia
fever
Pyrogens
fever producing substances (e.g., interleukin -1)
Rales
light bubbly or crackling sounds associated w/serous secretions
Regeneration
occurs in damaged tissue in which the cells are capable of mitosis. Damaged tissue is replaced by identical tissue from the proliferation of nearby cells.
Replacement
takes place when there is extensive tissue damage or the cells are incapable of mitosis. Wound area must be covered & filled in by some form of tissue.
Resolution
occurs when there is minimal tissue damage, the damaged cells recover, and the tissue returns to normal w/in a short period of time
Retroperitoneal
organs covered w/peritoneum only on the anterior surface (kidney + pancreas)
Rhonchi
deeper & higher sounds resulting from thicker mucus
Rugae
folds containing the empty stomach wall
Scar
tissue that fills the gap or defect in tissue (not normal, functional, nor does it contain any specialized structures such as hair follicles or glands)
Serous
watery exudate, consists primarily of fluid w/small amounts of protein & WBCs (e.g., allergic reaction from a burn)
Sinusoids
channels filled w/blood from 2 sources (branches of the hepatic artery & venous blood from the portal vein)
Splenomegaly
congestion in the spleen
Sputum
exudates from the upper respiratory tract
Steatorrhea
"fatty diarrhea" marked by frequent, bulky, greasy, loose stools, often w/a foul odor. Common w/malabsorption disorders (Celiac disease and Cystic Fibrosis)
Stenosis
narrowing of a tube, valve, or opening stricture
Stridor
high-pitched crowing noise usually indicates upper airway obstruction
Surface tension
property of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force
Stricture
abnormal narrowing of a duct or tube
Tenesmus
persistent spasms of the rectum associated w/a need to defecate
Tropic
hormone, hormones that have other endocrine glands as their target
Ulcer
open, crater-like lesion on the skin or mucous membranes
Ulcerogenic
producing or aggravating ulcers
Vasodilation
relaxation of smooth muscle causing an ↑ in the diameter of arterioles
Wheezing
whistling sound indicating an obstruction in the airway
Which of the following is an enzyme that is used in cancer chemotherapy?
Pegaspargase
What would be an external source of ionizing radiation?
gamma rays delivered by a cobalt machine
One reason for staging a malignant tumor at the time of diagnosis is to:
determine the best treatment & prognosis
Neoplasms are caused by:
uncontrolled cell division
Chemotherapy usually involves a combination of drugs in order to:
↓ adverse effects + be effective in more phases of the cell cycle
Radiation therapy destroys:
primarily rapidly dividing cells
The common local effects of an expanding tumor mass include:
obstruction of a tube or duct + cell necrosis & ulceration
Glucocorticoids are often prescribed during a course of chemotherapy & radiation because:
may ↓ inflammation around the tumor
Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma differs from Hodgkin's lymphoma in that non-Hodgkin's lymphoma usually presents as:
multiple, scattered, enlarged & painless lymph nodes
Identify the common dose-limiting factor for chemotherapy:
bone marrow depression
What would be the result of a ↓ # of erythrocytes in the blood?
↓ hematocrit
The most critical adverse effects of chemotherapy & radiation therapy include:
thrombocytopenia & leukopenia
Hydroxyurea is believed to function in cancer therapy by:
interfering w/formation of DNA
Iron-deficiency anemia frequently results from any of the following EXCEPT:
diabetes mellitus
What is the spread of malignant cells through blood & lymph to distant sites called?
Metastasis
What is the cause of sickle-cell anemia?
defective gene inherited from both parents
The process of carcinogenesis usually begins with:
irreversible change in the cell DNA
Basal cell carcinoma is an example of which type of cancer?
skin
Which anemia is considered to result from a malabsorption problem?
Pernicious anemia
Methyltestosterone may be used to treat:
breast cancer
Which of the following is an agent used to treat the anemia that often occurs after chemotherapy?
Epoetin Alfa
W/acute leukemias, ↑ # of malignant leukocytes leads to:
↓ hemoglobin, thrombocytopenia, constant bone pain, splenomegaly
Which of the following is an example of an antitumor antibiotic?
Dactinomycin
A warning sign of possible cancer would be any of the following EXCEPT:
sudden development of fever, nausea, and diarrhea
Which of the following is an example of an antiandrogen?
nilutamide
Which of the following would be significant signs of bronchiectasis?
chronic cough producing large quantities of purulent sputum
What are the early signs & symptoms of myocardial infarction?
persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse
What is the cause of chronic bronchitis?
chronic irritation, inflammation, and infection of the larger airways
What are typical signs &symptoms of epiglottitis?
sudden fever, sore throat, and drooling saliva
Which are predisposing factors to thrombus formation in the circulation?
damaged blood vessel walls, immobility, prosthetic valves
Infant respiratory distress syndrome results from:
insufficient surfactant production
Persistent thick mucus in the broncholes of a child w/cystic fibrosis may cause:
air trapping, atelectasis, repeated infections, irreversible damage to tissue
Why does ventricular fibrillation result in cardiac arrest?
insufficient blood is supplied to the myocardium
What is the most common cause of viral pneumonia?
influenza virus
Cigarette smoking is a risk factor in coronary artery disease because it:
promotes thrombus formation
What results from ↑ secretion of epinephrine?
↑ heart rate & force of contraction
Loss of blood supply in a limb may lead to:
Necrosis, Ulcers, Gangrene
What is the most common cause of death immediately following a myocardial infarction?
cardiac arrhythmias
Which of the following causes bronchodilation?
Epinephrine
Obstruction in the upper airway would be indicated by:
stridor
When does flail chest occur?
several ribs are fractured at 2 sites
Which of the following drugs decreases sodium & fluid retention in the body?
hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in:
↓ cardiac & smooth muscle contractions
Which statement describes a coronary artery bypass procedure?
attaching a section of vein to the coronary artery proximal & distal to the obstruction
Cystic fibrosis is transmitted as a:
autosomal recessive gene
What is the maximum volume of air a person can exhale after a maximum inspiration?
vital capacity
How is acute sinusitis usually manifested?
severe localized pain & tenderness in the face
What does the term hemoptysis refer to?
bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
What drug is taken in small doses on a continuing basis to ↓ platelet adhesion?
Acetylsalicylic acid (ASA or Aspirin)
Destruction of alveolar walls & septae is typical of:
emphysema
Which is the common source of a pulmonary embolus?
Thrombus forming in femoral veins
Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise?
contraction & relaxation of skeletal muscle
What describes the basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction?
total obstruction of a coronary artery that causes myocardial necrosis
What are early signs & symptoms of infectious rhinitis?
serous nasal discharge, congestion, and sneezing
A modifiable factor that ↑ risk for atherosclerosis is:
sedentary lifestyle
Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following except:
walking down stairs
What does vomiting initially cause?
metabolic alkalosis
A frequent cause of peptic ulcer disease is:
Helicobacter pylori infection
A cathartic may be necessary if:
there is discomfort associated w/elimination
The functional unit of the kidney is the:
Nephron
An agent used to promote weight loss is:
Orlistat
What would be the result of chronic bleeding from gastric carcinoma?
occult blood in the stool & anemia
Which of the following is related to Wilms' tumor?
a genetic defect
Which disease is manifested by dysuria & pyuria?
Cystitis
Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?
Ileum
Which of the following describes the supply of bile following a cholecystectomy?
small amounts of bile are continuously secreted & flow into the duodenum
Pyelonephritis may be distinguished from cystitis by the presence in pyelonephritis of:
urinary casts & flank pain
What does esophageal atresia cause?
no fluid or food to enter the stomach
___________ is the involuntary discharge of urine and usually occurs at night.
Enuresis
Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body after a meal?
Glycogenesis
What is a common cause of hiatal hernia?
↑ intra-abdominal pressure
Which of the following is true of the visceral peritoneum?
It is the outer covering of the stomach & intestines
What is a common sign of acute gastritis?
vomiting w/epigastric tenderness
Common causes of urolithiasis include all of the following except:
Hyperlipidemia
Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?
they emulsify lipids & lipid-soluble vitamins
What is the cause of psoriasis?
↑ mitosis & shedding of epithelium
Where is a Colles' fracture located?
wrist (distal radius)
Which signs are typical of Graves' disease?
Exophthalmos, heat intolerance, and restlessness
What is the cause of Tinea infections?
fungus
Which of the following describes the characteristic lesions of herpes zoster?
painful vesicles along a dermatome or cranial nerve pathway
Why is amputation frequently a necessity in diabetics?
necrosis & gangrene in the legs
What causes the itching associated with scabies?
mites burrowing into the epidermis
Which of the following constitutes a Colles' fracture?
distal radius is broken
What is the recommended treatment for insulin shock if the patient remains conscious?
oral administration of concentrated glucose
What is the basic pathology of rheumatoid arthritis?
systemic inflammatory disorder due to an autoimmune reaction
Therapeutic measures for osteoporosis include:
dietary supplements of Calcium & Vitamin D
Which of the following is characteristic of osteoarthritis?
degeneration of articulating cartilage in the large joints
How are antiviral drugs effective in treating infection?
limiting the acute stage & viral shedding
Which of the following does not usually develop as a complication of diabetes?
osteoporosis
What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
vesicle
Which of the following conditions may cause immunosuppression?
Cushing's disease
What is the primary cause of type I diabetes?
destruction of pancreatic cells by an autoimmune reaction
Which of the following statements regarding acute necrotizing fasciitis is true?
infection that rapidly causes extensive tissue necrosis & toxic shock.
How can pediculosis be diagnosed?
presence of nits at the base of hair shafts
Which of the following may cause insulin shock to develop in a diabetic person?
vomiting