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SYS 1 URT
SY190 URT DJ
Terms in this set (260)
Primary Flight Controls
Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator
Secondary Flight Controls
Elevator Trim, Aileron Trim, and Trim Aid Device (TAD)
Engine proves what other than thrust for flight
Also provides Power for Aircraft systems (Electrical, hydraulics, and fuel pumps)
What does the hydraulic system operate?
Landing gear and main gear doors, Flaps, Speed brake, nosewheel steering
where is power primarily from after engine start?
what is the voltage for the Starter/generator, Battery, and Aux Batt?
28 V, 24 V, and 24V
What is the secondary source of power?
The Battery (24V)
Is the Fuel system automatic?
system Is auto when placed in auto but can be manual balanced
What does the communication system consist of?
RMU, Intercom System, Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT)
what makes up the Radio Management unit (RMU)?
VHF, UHF, Transponder
What makes up the Navigation system?
VHF, Distance Measuring Equipment (DME), GPS, Attitude Heading Reference System (AHRS), and Traffic Advisory System (TAS)
What are the Primary Flight Instruments?
Electronic Attitude Director Indicator (EADI), Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI), Airspeed Indicator, Altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)
What are the standby flight instruments?
Turn and bank indicator
How does the canopy open?
From the Left Side
What type of seal does the canopy have?
A pressure and weather seal
safety features of the canopy?
A fracturing system for ejection and emergency ground egress
Front cockpit windscreens protect pilots from a birdstrike
how does the ejection system work?
Propelled initially by compressed gas cartridge and then by a rocket motor
Which control surface controls aircraft movement around the pitch axis?
The trim aid device (TAD) assists trimming for which control surface during airspeed and power changes?
T or F? Engine exhaust augments the thrust of the propeller.
Primary aircraft electrical power is provided by which component of the electrical system?
Tuning for each of the communications and navigation radios and the transponder is provided by which component?
T or F? The VHF navigation system provides VOR, ILS, Localizer, and GPS capability?
False no GPS
Primary navigation display is provided by which component of the Electronic flight instrument system (EFIS)?
EHSI (Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator)
Which Standby flight instruments will operate without electrical power?
Turn and bank, Altimeter, magnetic compass, Airspeed Indicator
Landing gear extension and retraction is operated by which aircraft system?
Movement around the roll axis is controlled by which primary control surfaces?
T or F? The Magnetic compass is one of the primary flight instruments?
False it's a standby
Secondary aircraft electrical power is provided by what component?
Control of the transponder is provided by which component?
Which primary instrument provides primary attitude display?
In the event of Inadvertent aircraft contact with the ground, which component will be activated and generate a radio signal?
Is the compressor and power turbines physically connected?
What three elements necessary for engine operation?
Air, Fuel, and Heat
how are wing flaps connected?
What are the 2 major sections that make up the engine?
Gas generation and Power turbine section
Where is the accessory compartment located?
The rear of the engine (AFT of the Gas Generator Section)
What is in the accessory compartment?
Accessory gearbox, Oil tank, Starter/generator, and battery
what does the Gas Generation section contain?
Compressor inlet, Compressor, combustion chamber, and Compressor turbine
Talk about the Compressor
Four-stage axial flow compressor and a single stage centrifugal flow compressor
What does the power turbine section contain?
Power turbines, Exhaust case, Reduction gearbox, and Propeller shaft
What does the power turbine drive?
the reduction gearbox which in turn drives the propeller shaft at a reduced rpm
On initial start up what provides air, heat, and fuel?
Starter provides compressed air, FMU provides the fuel, and the ignition systems provides heat.
Define the ignition system
Dual spark ignition system (2 high volt igniter cables and 2 spark igniters) at the 4 and 9 o'clock position
Ignition toggle switch positions?
ON and Norm
During autostart or normal operations the ignition switch should be in what position?
Where is the circuit breaker for the ignition system located?
on the battery bus circuit breaker panel in the front cockpit
what does the PCL control?
Fuel flow to the engine
How are the front and rear PCLs connected?
push pull rod
How is the PCL connected to the FMU?
Both Mechanically and electrically
What are the three label positions on the PCL?
MAX, IDLE, and OFF
Where is the PMU located and what does it do?
in the accessory compartment and it processes power requests from the PCL and keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
The PMU interacts with other engine systems to maintain what?
ITT, Torque, N1, and Np
When does an amber PMU status illuminate?
When the PMU has accommodated a fault after landing
PMU status light in flight indicates?
fault in either of or a mismatch between the weight on wheels switches, and the PMU will not revert to the ground mode after landing
a red PMU FAIL light illuminates when?
If the PMU is nonfunctional
Primary power for PMU is?
Permanent Magnet Alternator
PMU backup power circuit breaker is located where?
On battery bus
Where is the starter/generator located?
on the accessory gearbox
Starter switch has what positions?
Auto/Reset, Norm, and Manual
What does the oil system include?
Pressure, Scavenge, and cooling system
How many oil pickups are located in the tank?
two for inverted and normal flight
What is normal oil pressure?
Aerobatics oil pressure
When will an amber oil light Illuminate?
When oil pressure is between 15-40 psi at IDLE power or between 40 and 90 for 10sec above idle
When will a red oil light illuminate?
if oil pressure is 15 psi or below at IDLE or 40 PSI or below above idle
when will both oil lights illuminate?
If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for 5 seconds or more
Where is the oil circuit breaker located?
On the battery bus
The propeller is a?
four bladed, variable pitch, constant speed propeller
What works together to control propeller speed and what is the constant speed?
PMU and the PIC for a constant (2000RPM)
What does the reduction gear reduce the engine rpms from?
30000 to 2000
How is Np Measured?
by a phase shift torque probe located on the reduction gear box
What monitors the torque probe?
What does the backup mechanical overspeed governor not allow the propeller rpm to exceed?
How does propeller pitch change?
Oil pressure to the pitch change mechanism
Three basic blade angles?
Feathered, High pitch, and low pitch
Which position produces the least drag?
What happens if the engine fails during flight?
the propeller will move towards feather
The engine cowling doesn't do what?
Secure the engine to the frame
The purpose of the inertial separator is to
Keep debris away from the engine
Are the compressor and power turbines are physically connected?
What three elements are necessary for engine operation?
Air, Fuel, and heat
As exhaust is released, additional thrust is provided? T or F
Once the engine is started, and the ignition switch is in the ON position, igniters are automatically energized and de-energized by the PMU. T or F?
The primary purpose of the ignition system is to
ignite the air and fuel mixture in the combustion chamber
friction control settings made to the front PCL affect the rear PCL. T or F?
When starting the T-6A, the PCL should be
pushed forward until a green ST READY annunciator is illuminated
The PMU is located where?
underneath the engine, in the accessory compartment
The PMU performs the following functions, except?
Release the correct amount of fuel
The PMU STATUS annunciator illuminates after landing when the PMU
After engine start the starter becomes a what?
The Manual starter switch position will be used under normal circumstances. T or F?
If oil pressure is ______ psi or below at IDLE power, the red oil PX annunciator will illuminate.
If oil pressure remains between 15 and 40 psi at IDLE power for more than 5 seconds, _______ will be illuminated.
both the amber and red oil PX annunciators
The chip detector sensor is located in the
The oil system provides filtered oil to all of the following systems, except
The reduction gearbox reduces engine output from _____________ RPM to propeller speeds of ____________ RPM
30,000 to 2,000
The phase shift torque probe monitors
Regulates oil pressure to the Pitch change mechanism
If the propeller pitch change mechanism loses oil pressure, the propeller will automatically move towards the __________ Position
Varying levels of thrust are achieved by changing
keeps the engine and propeller within operating limits
If the oil filter gets clogged
the system uses unfiltered oil
In straight and level flight, for PCL positions above IDLE, oil pressure should be maintained between
90 and 120 PSI
The phase shift torque probe is located
in the reduction gearbox
propeller pitch refers to the
angle of the propeller blades
which propeller position produces the least amount of drag
The propeller pitch change mechanism is able to change propeller blade angle by using
The PMU directs the PIU to maintain propeller RPM at
The power turbine is driven by
During aerobatic flight, oil pressure should be maintained at or above
What are the functions of the EDM?
drives the primary, alternate, and engine/systems displays and illuminates advisory, caution, or warning annunciators, when appropriate
Where is the EDM located?
Left avionics bay
What non engine related task do the EDM perform?
Fuel balancing, fuel quantity indications, activation of the nosewheel steering annunciator, display DC volts and amps, hydraulic pressure, cockpit pressure altitude, and cockpit pressure differential
What is the purpose of the PEDD (primary engine data display system)?
Provides cockpit with visual indication of engine operation
What is on the PEDD?
torque, ITT, Np, IOAT, and N1
What is the purpose of the alternate engine data display system?
Provides each cockpit with back visual indication of engine operations
What is on the AEDD?
RITT, Torque, N1, Cockpit pressure altitude, Differential pressure, Fuel flow, and Fuel quantity
What Np is prohibited while on the ground?
62 to 80
What is on the ESD?
Oil temp, Oil press, Hydraulic pressure, DC volt, and DC amp
What is the purpose of the fire warning system?
designed to monitor both average and discrete temperatures and respond to fire or hot gases
What are the sensor tubes filled with in the fire warning system?
Helium has with the core element filled with hydrogen gas
Will a kink, twist, or dent affect the system reliability
All of the functions performed by the engine data manager are engine related? T or F
Where is the EDM located
in the left avionics bay
All primary engine data is processed by the PMU prior to being displayed on the primary engine data display?
In the event of abnormal engine operation, the primary engine data displays will warn the pilot by
In order to prevent possible damage due to ground resonance, what is the Np stabilized operation prohibited range while on the ground?
All data provided to the alternate engine data display is first processed by the PMU?
On the alternate engine data display Delta P measures the
difference between cockpit pressure and outside pressure
the engine/systems display provides
Oil temperature, oil pressure , hydraulic pressure, DC volts, and DC amps
Normal operating range for the oil pressure gauge is 90 - 140 PSi. T or F?
Shutoff valves activated by the firewall shutoff Handle may be reset by pushing the handle back in. T or F?
When testing the integrity of the fire warning system, you will know the system is working properly if _________ and the aural tone sounds.
the FIRE and MASTER WARN annunciators illuminate
The engine data manager does not
control all electronic displays in the cockpit
The primary engine data display system
provides each cockpit with a visual indication of engine operation
What are the indications of a hot start?
High/rapidly rising ITT, lower N1, lower Np
What are the indications of a hung start?
low rising ITT; Lower N1; Lower Np
What are the indications of a No start?
No ITT indication, lower N1, no NP indication, no torque indication
What are the indications of PMU failure?
Power step change, PMU FAIL annunciator, MASTER WARN light, aural tone
the engine data manager is located
in the left avionics bay
the alternate engine data display serves as a backup to the primary engine data display and therefore displays some of the same data. T or F
The primary engine data display provides
ITT, torque, N1, Np, and IOAT
the engine/systems display does not display ____________ data in each cockpit
All data presented on the Alternate engine data display is processed by the PMU? T or F
The FIRE switch located in the front cockpit is used to
test the integrity of the fire warning system
Types of Abnormal starts
Hot, Hung, and No start
What is the Voltage of the starter/generator, the battery, and the Aux batt?
28 VDC 300 Amp, 24 VDC, 24 VDC
What are the two electrical buses?
Battery and Generator buses
What allows isolation of the buses?
Bus tie switch
What provides primary power?
Starter/Generator (located on the accessory gearbox)
What regulates the starter/generator?
The generator control unit
What protection does the Generator control unit provide the generator?
provides voltage regulation, overvoltage and under voltage protection , and generator overload protection
What controls power from the generator?
Generator control switch (Gen)
Avionics master switch funnels power for what?
power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits (except back up)
Where are knee board lights located?
Under forward and aft glareshields
where are the dimming controls located for the instruments, control panels, and displays?
Trim control panel
Where is lighting controls mounted for EFIS, RMU, AOA, and the GPS panel?
On the individual units
Where are utility lights located?
on the right console in each cockpit. They can also be detached and relocated
When does the LDG light come on?
When gear is locked and down
How do the Navigation lights act?
They're both constantly illuminated
What electrical component allows isolation of the generator and battery buses?
Bus Tie Switch
The starter/generator is regulated and monitored by a __________ located under a panel in the rear cockpit?
generator control unit
Generator power is controlled by the ________________ switch located on the right forward switch panel in each cockpit?
Generator control (GEN)
The rear cockpit avionics bus receives power through the ____________ bus.
front cockpit avionics
Circuit breakers labeled FWD AVI and AFT AVI control front and rear cockpit avionics buses and are located on the front cockpit
battery bus and generator bus circuit breaker panels
A circuit breaker labeled AFT BAT on the front cockpit battery bus circuit breaker panel controls the
rear cockpit battery bus
Except for the back up UHF control head and UHF transceiver, power for all avionics and radio systems in both cockpits is furnished through___________ on the right forward switch panel in the front cockpit
Avionics master switch
An amber ________________ light on the annunciator panel in each cockpit will indicate an open bus tie switch.
Circuit breakers protecting systems and equipment operating from the battery bus are located on the __________ panel in each cockpit?
Each circuit breaker is marked with the maximum __________ it will allow to pass before popping?
current load in amperes
Battery power is controlled through ________________ switch on the right forward switch panel in either cockpit?
A switch labeled AUX BAT on the front cockpit left console test panel is positioned forward to test the _______________________ during preflight checks
External power is controlled by the _______________ switch and distributed on the _______________ bus
Lighting for EFIS displays, the RMU, the AOA indexer, and the GPS control panel is adjusted using the knob labeled INSTR PANEL on the trim control panel. T or F?
__________ lights can be detached and relocated to the right canopy rail for use as an area or map light.
The landing light will only come on when the landing light switch is activated and the landing gear
is down and locked
When switched on, white position lights at the trailing edge of each wing tip ____.
are constantly illuminated
the generator provides 28 VDC power, and is capable of supplying __________ amps.
The generator can be controlled form either cockpit through use of the generator
If a component or circuit malfunctions, the affected ______ will open, shutting off current flow to that component or circuit.
The battery can be controlled from either cockpit through use of the ______________ switch.
Light output from the instruments, control panels, and displays can be adjusted by using dimming controls located on the _______________ panel in each cockpit.
The taxi light is located aft and inboard of the
right main landing gear strut
A fault occurs in the circuit controlling the anti collision lights. The COLL circuit breaker will pop on the battery bus circuit breaker panel located on the _______________ cockpit.
Left side of the front
The starter/generator provides 28 volts DC, while the battery and auxiliary battery are ___________ VDC units.
How many fuel tanks does the t6 fuel system use?
three (Left/Right wing tanks and collector tank)
How many pounds of usable fuel does the t6 carry?
1,100 (Its possible to carry 1200 but the primary refueling method limits it to 1100)
How are the wing tanks refueled and which is most likely used?
Single point and gravity refueling (single point most likely used)
How is fuel fed to the engine?
Motive flow system
How many engine driven pumps are in the fuel system?
2 (high pressure and low pressure) but the electric boost pump is also provide for engine start in case of low pressure pump failure
What provides fuel feed during negative GT flight operations?
How many lbs of fuel does the fuel tanks hold?
Left/right hold 530 while collector holds 40
If fuel pressure is sensed below __________psi in the motive flow line and the PCL is above idle the boost pump is activated.
How many transfer jet pumps are on the T6?
how can you stay inverted and receive fuel from the flip flop valve?
a minimum of 60 secs
How many fuel level probes are in the T-6A fuel tanks?
7 (3 in each tank and one in the collector tank)
When do the fuel tank arrows turn yellow?
at 150 lbs
when do you get L/R FUEL LO annunciators?
when fuel is below 110 lbs
What does FUEL PX mean?
Low fuel pressure
fuel imbalance has exceeded 30lbs for more than 2 mins
M FUEL BAL
When fuel balance switch is not in the AUTO position
BOOST PUMP selected by switch, starter relay, or low pressure switch
The motive flow system is normally driven by the electric boost pump. T or F
when using the primary refueling method , the total amount of usable fuel in the tanks is approximately
the collector tank holds a maximum of approximately __________ pounds of fuel.
What is the primary method of refueling the T-6A?
Single point pressure refueling
Using the single point pressure refueling method, approximately how long does it take to refuel the aircraft?
3 - 5 mins
The secondary or backup method for refueling the T-6A is called ___________ refueling.
over the wing gravity
The engine driven high pressure fuel pump is fed from the
engine driven low pressure fuel pump
The motive flow line routes fuel to which of the following pumps?
Primary jet pump and transfer jet pumps
The collector tank is equipped with two fuel pumps for engine feed operations. Which one is used after engine start?
Primary jet pump
During negative-G flight, the flip-flop valve activates, providing the engine access to fuel located in the ______.
Once the engine is running and motive flow has been activated, the boost pump is automatically turned off by the low-pressure switch. T or F?
The wing tanks are internally vented to each other by float values. T or F
The fuel system incorporates an auto balance system which maintains the fuel load in each wing tank to within ____________ pounds of the other wing.
Using the primary refueling method, the maximum fuel quantity for one wing tank is ______ lbs.
The flip-flop valve in the collector tank provides a minimum of _______________ seconds of fuel regardless of aircraft orientation.
Which method of refueling fills the wing tanks simultaneously?
single point pressure refueling
Which of the following maintains fuel balance by shutting off fuel flow to the light wing tank?
Transfer (solenoid) valve
Both the primary and transfer jet pumps operate by what type of flow?
How long does it take to defuel the T-6A through the over the wing gravity refueling ports?
The T-6A cannot be defueled through the over the wing gravity refueling ports.
Fuel is routed from the engine-driven fuel pump to the primary jet pump through which line?
Motive flow line
which side is the landing light on?
the landing light is on the left
What turns on with the Aux batt?
standby instruments, lights for standby, UHF, Fire 1#
What are the three separate axes of flight?
Longitudinal(roll), vertical(yaw), and lateral(pitch)
What are the primary flight controls?
Ailerons, Rudder, Elevator
What are the secondary flight controls?
Trim tabs and TAD(Trim aid device).
What are the Aileron system components?
L/R aileron, Two control sticks, Interconnect Tube, Push-pull rods, and Bellcranks
When the control stick is defected left what happens?
right aileron trailing edge moves down. Left moves up
Aft control stick input cause elevator to do what?
elevator trailing edge to deflect up
Stepping on the left rudder pedal cause the rudder to deflect to the?
What does the trim interrupt button do?
Rapid disconnect of all trim systems NOTE (When button is released power is restored to trim but TAD remains disengaged)
When does the TAD start inputting trim settings?
after the 80 KIAS and no weight on wheels
The ailerons control movement of the aircraft in the ________ axis.
Longitudinal or roll
Which of the following is not a part of the aileron control system?
Left and right aileron
Front and rear cockpit control sticks
The elevator controls aircraft movement around the lateral or pitch axis. T or F?
Elevator System Components
Elevator, two control sticks, push-pull rods, interconnect tube, bellcranks, elevator cables, downsprings, bobweight
Rudder System Components
Two sets of rudder pedals
What does the TAD measure for rudder trim inputs
Pitch rate, altitude, airspeed, and engine torque
What is the purpose of the bobweight located on the forward control stick?
Enhances control feedback and helps prevent overstressing of the airframe
The rudder controls aircraft movement around the vertical or yaw axis. T or F
Rudder pedal position is adjusted with a hand crank located on the ______
lower portion of the center console
Which flight control electromechanical trim systems utilize movement of the actual primary control surface?
In the event of conflicting aileron or elevator trim inputs from the front and rea cockpit, the front cockpit input will take priority.
Visual indication of pitch, roll, and yaw trim can be found on the ______.
trim position indicators located on both trim panels
A primary purpose of the TAD system is to assist the pilot
in maintaining directional trim
The TAD computes input to the rudder trim system based on
Engine torque, airspeed, altitude, and pitch rate
In addition to the TRIM OFF annunciator, actuating the trim interrupt button will also illuminate the ___________ annunciator light.
What control surfaces are locked when the gust lock is engaged
All fall to the gust locks power (Ailerons, Rudder, and Elevator)
The primary aircraft flight controls consist of the
Ailerons, elevator, and rudder
What is the best describes the function of the aircraft's elevator?
The elevator system is used to cause movement in the lateral or pitch axis
The aileron ground adjustable trim tabs are for maintenance use only and should not be tampered with by the aircrew.
What is the purpose of the bobweight attached to the forward control stick?
Provides higher stick forces as G loading increases, helps prevent overstressing the airframe
Which of the following is not included in the rudder control system?
Pilot control of aileron trim is accomplished by movement of an electromechanical trim tab installed on the right aileron. T or F
The Trim aid device computer relays trim input to the
Rudder trim tab actuator
The TAD maintains a takeoff trim setting until ______ KIAS and no weight on the wheels.
A green TAD OFF annunciator will illuminate when
the TRIM AID switch is set to off
The flight control gust lock is used to
Lock the primary flight control surfaces when parked
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Fox and McDonald's Introduction to Fluid Mechanics
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