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242 terms

Final Melissa

STUDY
PLAY
biomechanics
Which branch of science applies the laws of physics, specifically the action of forces on bodies at rest or in motion
allow the patient to do as much work as possible
The ieal way to perform a transfer is to
pelvic girdle fractures, painful inflamed joints, debilitated condition
Which of the following pathalogic conditions requires a special handling: pelvic girdle fractures, painful inflamed joints, debilitated condition
to increase the base of support
When lifting a patient, why would you stand with your feet apart
a decrease in vasomotor tone in blood vessels results in a decrease in oxygen to the brain
Why does orthostatic hypotension occur in patients who have been in bed for long periods
transfer toward the strong side
Which of the following statements applies to all types of wheelchair transfers
Standby assist
Which of the following types of whelchair tranfers requires minimal assistance by the radiographer
determine the patient's abilities by talking to the person
When assessing the wheelchair patient for transfer, it is important to
the stronger person
In a two-person lift, who should lift the torso
obese
For which type of patient is it appropriate to use a hydraulic lift
all of the above, maxi-slide, drawsheet, thin sheets of plastic
Which of the following items is used to transfer patients from a cart to a table
drawsheet
Which of the following cart transfer devices require lifting rather than sliding of the patient
standing on one foot
Which describes the narrowest base of support: standing with the legs 3 feet apart, standing with the legs 1 foot apart, standing on one foot, standing with the feet right next to each other
Stronger side
Transfers should be arranged so that which side of the patient is next to the table
being in bed ofr long periods
Orthostatic hypotension results from which of the following
two-person lift
Which of the following wheelchair transfers is used for non-weight bearing: two-person lift, standby assist, assisted standing pivot
the person doing the transfer stands behind the patient
All of the following statements apply to an assisted standing pivot wheelchair transfer except: The patient pivots toward the table until he feels the table on the back of the thighs, the person doing the transfer stands behind the patient, the patient pushes down on the arms of the chair to assist in rising, as the patient rises, the person doing the transfer also rises and straightens the knees
patients who are unable to assist in the move
In what circumstance should a moving device be used to transfer a patient from a cart to a radiography table
false- in the core
Stability muscles are found in the extremities
false- they should assist if they are possible
A basic principle of lifting states that the patient should never assist in the move
true
By asking a patient what his or her moving capabilities are, the radiographer provides only the assistance needed to move the patient comfortably
true
A transfer belt can be used to transfer a patient safely and effectively
true
Wheelchair wheels should be locked for all transfers
true
If a moving device is not readily available, the patient can be transferred to a table by using a draw sheet
communicate with the patient
An effective way to reduce motion is to
PA chest
All of the following radiography procedures can involve the use of positioning sponges except procedures for the: lateral hand, PA chest, oblique lumbar spine, lateral finger
velcro straps
Which of the following immobilization devices is used for a lateral chest film on a nonambulatory patient
they assist the patient in dorsiflexing the foot
Why are velcro straps used for the axial projection of the calcaneus
Velcro restraints
Which of the following immobilization devices is used to help keep the patient from falling off the table
They must be left in place during initial filming
With trauma patients,what immobilization devices would be applied
place traction on the spine to prevent movement
The purpose of the cervical collar is to
thoracic spine, the pelvis, the lower extremities
Which of the following body parts does a backboard immobilize
it is radiolucent, therefore the entire body can be radiographed through the board, it can be used to lift the entire patient onto the radiographic table
What descries the advantages of using a spine board
An air splint provides stability
What is the difference between an air splint and a traction splint used on the lower leg
femur
Which fracture would traction splints be used
communication with the patient is best accomplished at eye level
What does "To stand tall in pediatric radiology, you have to get down on your knees" mean
sandbags
Which immobilization device is radiopaque
slow the rate of hemorrhage
The purpose of inflatable trousers is to
pigg-o-stat, octastop board, sheet restraint
Which immobilization devices are useful for pediatric imaging
false
Proper immobilization can reduce the need for repeat radiographs and increase radiation exposure
true
Tape, velcro restraints and plexiglas all can be useful immobilization devices
true
Positioning sponges are the most commonly used immobilization devices
false
Traction splints should be removed for radiographic procedures
false
Head clamps help immobilize the head and cervical spine
tympanic
Which body temperature measurement takes the shortest length of time
hyperthermic, febrile
A 42 year old patient has a temperature of 101.3 F. Which of the following terms describes the patient's condition
hypothermia
A patient comes to the emergency department with an oral temperature of 96.6 F. This finding is consistent with
12 to 20
The average adult respiratory rate is
respiration
The exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the external environment and the blood circulating in the body is
radial artery, brachial artery, carotid artery
Which arteries can be used for taking a pulse
the peak pressure during contraction of the heart
Systolic pressure is defined as
160/95
All of these adult blood pressure recording would be considered normal except: 100/60, 120/70, 140/80, 160/95
brain, heart, liver
Which of these tissues is most sensitive to hypoxia: brain, heart, liver
air entrainment mask, simple mask, nasal cannula
Which of the following is classified as a low flow oxygen delivery device: air entrainment mask, simple mask, nasal cannula, all of the above
thoracostomy tube
What is the name of the tube that drains the intrapleural space and mediastinum
false
The normal pulse of a 5 yr old child is lower than that of a 32 yr old male patient
true
The major muscle of ventilation is the diaphragm
true
Oxygen is odorless and tasteless gas
true
A physician must prescribe oxygen therapy because it is considered a drug
false
A nasal cannula provides a high concentration of oxygen and therefore is considered a high-flow device
false
An oxygen hood provides oxygen to pediatric patients by full covering their bed
false
The most common location for a central venous catheter is the aorta
true
A swan-ganz catheter monitors pulmonary arterial pressure
ethics
The science of rightness and wrongness of human conduct and character is
law
the regulations established by a government that apply to people within a certain political subdivision is called
morals
Generally accepted customs of right living and conduct and an individual's practice of these customs
norm
The standard set by members of a profession is called
true
The ARRT has a published code of ethics
false
The ARRT Code of ethics provides the radiologic technologist with an operational blueprint of laws of professional conduct
informing the patient
Each of these is a component of ethical analysis except: identifying the problem, developing alternative solutions, selecting the best solution, informing the patient
professional ethics
The internal controls of a profession based on human values or moral principles is called
rights-based ethics
The belief that individual rights provide vital protection of life, liberty, expression and property is called
principle-based ethics
The use of moral principles as a basis for defending a chosen path of action in resolving an ethical dilemma is called
virtue-based ethics
The ethical theory that emphasizes the agents who perform actions and make choices is called
beneficence
Select the ethical principle described by actions that benefit others
autonomy
Select the ethical principle described by actions that respect the independence of other people
veracity
Ethical principle described as being truthful is right
nonmaleficence
The ethical principle described by "above all, do no harm"
fidelity
Ethical principle described by acts that observe convenants or promises
false
Information obtained directly from the patient through observation does not need to be kept confidential
false
A radiologic technologist is free to share a diagnosis with a patient
true
A patient has the right to be informed of and to make decisions about his or her own health care treatment
constitutional, legislative and case law
The three types of law are
constitutional
Which type of law defines individual rights
false
The standard of care for radiologic technology was established in 1914 and remains unchanged
true
A radiographer may be called to testify in a legal case
assault
what occurs when a patient believes that he has been threatened in such a way that the person has reason to fear or expect immediate bodily harm
battery
what occurs when a technologist touches a patient or performs an examination without the patients permission
false imprisonment
The most common claim in a health care facility is
true
Radiologic technologist have an obligation to maintain patient confidentiality
negligence
Failure to use such care as reasonably prudent person would use in like or similar situation is called
res ipsa loquitur
Which term applies when a patient is injured through no fault of his own while in the complete control of another
corporate liability
This theory requires the hospital or health care entity to be responsible for the quality of care delivered to consumers
true
Informed consent requires that patients have all of the information they need to make decisions about their health care
false
Respondeat superior translates into "the thing speaks for itself"
true
Radiologic technologist are legally liable for their actions in the daily performance of diagnostic procedures
true
Health care providers who do not remain current in the field may be liable under the legal theory of medical malpractice
true
The general definition of the standard of care is that degree of skill, knowledge and care ordinarily possessed and employed by a member of the profession in good standing
False
approximately 90% of all medical negligence claims are somehow related to diagnostic imaging
false
A person must be informed of the reason for restraint and the possible risks if restraints are not used after the restraints have been applied
sterilization
Which of the following terms describes the complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms
handwashing
The most important way to prevent the spread of infections is
viruses
Microorganisms that need a host to reproduce and are unresponsive to antibiotics are called
protozoa
Which of the following microorganisms is able to ingest food particles and may be equipped with a rudimentary digestive system
a mosquito, tick, or flea, a fomite, such as a cassette, West Nile virus
Exogenous mode of transmission includes
immunocompromised individuals
Which is most susceptible to a nosocomial infection
antiseptic
What chemical method of asepsis is applied topically
medial asepsis
Handwasing falls into which category of asepsis
patients with tuberculosis, pathogenic organisms that remain in the air
Airbone precautions are used for which of the following
droplet precautions
Which precautions is/are used when pathogens are disseminated by means of large particulate droplets expelled from the patient
false
Standard precautions are used to protect the patient only
true
Contact precaution techniques required two health care providers
true
Their morphology, genetic constitution, and biochemistry classify bacteria
false
Fungi carry their own genetic information as either RNA or DNA
false
The incubation period for all infectious diseases is 1 week
true
An example of an endogenous mode of transmission is acquiring a staphylococcal infection after a finger cut
true
A physician can cause an iatrogenic infection
true
Hepatitis B is an example of a virus transmitted as a blood-borne pathogen
false
Medial asepsis reduces the number of infectious agents to zero by means of sterilization
true
Radiology departments use halogen chlorine and iodine as a bactericidal agent
stomach
A nasogastric NG tube is placed though the nasopharynx into the
removing flatus from the stomach
A primary purpose of the NG tube is
false
There is no discomfort associated with a nasogastric tube
false
For insertion of the NG tube, the patient is placed in the Trendelenburg position
true
An NG tube should be lubricated with water-soluble lubricating jelly just before insertion
fluoroscopy, aspiration of gastric contents, ausculation
Placement of the NG tube can be verified by
Levin, Salem-sump, Cantor
What are some examples of an NG tube
true
Urinals are provided to patients who are not ambulatory
false
Male urinals and female urinals are identical
false
A radiographer would not need to wear gloves while assisting a patient with a urinal
true
Nondisposable bedpans must be sterilized between uses between patients
urination, defecation
A bedpan may be used for
false
Sterile gloves must be worn while assisting a patient with a bedpan
defecation
A cleansing enema is used to promote
hypotonic enema
A tap enema is also called a
true
A hypertonic enema may be prescribed to prepare the colon for a barium enema
NPO after midnight, clear liquids the day before, a cleansing enema the morning of the examination
Bowel preparation for a barium enema may include
colon
A barium enema is used to diagnose pathologic conditions of the
damage to the rectal wall from overinflation of the balloon catheter
The most common complication of a barium enema is
barium and air
The two contrast media used for a barium enema are
glucagon
The smoth muscle relaxant given to a patient before a double contrast barium enema is
polyps
A double contrast barium enema is indicated for
true
A patient should increase his fluid intake for several days after a barium enema
true
A colostomy is an opening made from the bowel to the outside of the body
false
All colostomies are permanent
alert to comatose
Levels of consciousness range from
lethargy, irritability, slowing respiration
What are indications of a deteriorating head injury
maintain an open airway
With a deteriorating head injury, the first priorty shuld be
shock
A general term that indicates a failure of the circulatory system to support vital body functions
true
Hypovolemic shock is caused by the loss of a large amount of blood
true
A myocardial infarction can lead to cardiogenic shock
pallor
A sign or symptom of shock is
vasogenic
Anaphylactic shock is what type of shock
Anaphylactic shock
Administration of iodinated contrast media may induce
laryngeal edema
What is the most immediately life threatening anaphylactic reacton
seizure
The condition in which excessive insulin is present is called
orange juice
What may be given to a patient to counteract insulin shock
excessive thirst
A sign or symptom of a diabetic coma
increase intrathoracic pressure, is used when a person may be choking, is used to propel an object out of the throat
The Heimlich maneuver
false
The heimlich maneuver should never be performed on a pregnant woman
false
A radiographer may stop doing cardiopulmonary resuscitation when the schedule is backed up
false
A stroke is the same thing as cardiac arrest
slurred speech, loss of vision, paralysis
What are signs or symptom of a CVA
true
Nausea is both a psychologic and a physiologic reaction
epistaxis
The medical term for a nosebleed is
vertigo
The medical term for fainting is
hemorrhage
Bleeding outside the vessel is called
false
Wound dehiscence is a common postoperative occurrence
false
CPR is indicated in all situations involving cardiac arrest
Aseptic technique
-use to reduce the number of harmful microorganism
sterile field
-microorganism-free
Tracheostomy
-surgical creation of an opening into the trachea through the neck; also used to refer to the creation of an opening in the anterior trachea for insertion of a tube to relieve upper-airway obstruction and to facilitate ventilation.
Chest tubes
-chest tubes are used to removed fluid, blood and air from the pleural cavity. -Assist in reinflating collapsed lungs (atelectasis) and alleviating pneumothorax (i.e., air in the thoracic cavity)
Urinary catheters
-urinary catheterization is the insertion of a tube into the bladder using aseptic technique.
the Foley catheter (a retention balloon type) and the straight type catheter
-the two main types of urinary catheters are
Urinary catheters can be use:
-empty the bladder (e.g., before surgery, radiologic or other examinations, or childbirth)-relieve retention of urine or bypass obstruction-irrigate the bladder or introduce drugs -permit accurate measuring of urine output -relieve incontinence
Voiding cystourethrograms
-radiography of the bladder and urethra in which radiographs are performed before, during, and after voiding
Pacemakers
-electromechanical devices inserted under the patient's skin to regulate the heart rate.
Asepsis
freedom from infection
bacteria
microscopic single cell organisms; procaryotic (except blue-green)
Blood borne pathogens
disease causing microorganisms that may be present in human blood
Chemotherapy
treatment of disease by chemical agents
Cyst
stage in the life cycle of certain parasites during which they are enclosed in a protective wall
Dimorphic
occurring in two distinct forms
Disease
any deviation from normal structure/function of any part, organ, or system. Exhibited by a characteristic set of symptoms and signs. Cause/prognosis may be known or unknown
Disinfectant
chemicals used to render pathogenic organisms inert reducing or eliminating infectious organisms
Eucaryotes
organisms whose cells have a true nucleus
Flora
microbial community found on or in a healthy person
Fomite
object that is not in itself harmful but may harbor pathogenic microorganisms and thus serve as an agent of transmission of infection
Fungi
general term for a group of eucaryotic protists. Characterized by the absense of cholorophyll and has a rigid cell wall
Host
animal or plant that harbors or nourishes another organism
iatrogenic
resulting from the activities of physicians
immunity
security against a particular disease
infection
invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in body tissues.
medical asepsis
reduction in numbers of infectious agents which in turn decreases the probability of infection but does not necessarily reduce it to zero
microorganism
microscopic organism; those of medical interest include bacteria, viruses, fungi, and protozoa
nosocomial
pertaining to or originating in the hospital; said of an infection not present or incubating before admittance to the hospital but generally occurring 72 hours after admittance
pathogen
any disease producing microorganism
procaryotes
cellualar organisms that lack a true nucleus
protozoa
a subkingdom comprising the simplest organisms of the animal kingdom. Unicellular, range in size from submicroscopic to macroscopic. Most free living but can be commensalistic, mutualistic or parasitic
reservoir
alternate or passive host or carrier that harbors pathogenic organisms, without injury to itself, and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected
standard precautions
precautions to prevent the transmission of disease by body fluids and substances
sterilization
complete destruction or elimination of all living microorganisms, by physical methods, chemical agents, radiation, or mechanical methods
surgical asepsis
procedure used to prevent contamination by microbes and endospores before, during, or after surgery using sterile technique
vaccine
suspension of attenuated or killed microorganisms (bacteria, viruses, or rickettsiae) administered for the prevention, improvement, or treatment of infectious disease
vector
carrier, especially an animal (usually an arthropod) that transfers an infective agent from on host to another
virion
complete viral particle found extracellularly and capable of surviving in crystalline form and infecting a living cell; comprises the nucleoid (genetic material) and the capsid; also called viral particle
virus
any of a group of minute infectious agents not resolved in the light microscope, with certain exceptions (eg poxvirus) and characterized by a lack of independent metabolism and by the ability to replicate only within living host cells
angiography
roentgenographic visualization of blood vessels following the introduction of contrast material; used as a diagnostic aid in conditions such as cerebrovascular attacks (strokes) and myocardial infarctions
arthrography
roentgenography of a joint after the injection of opaque contrast material
atelectasis
collapse of a lung
auscultation
act of listening for sounds within the body chiefly for ascertaining the condition of the lungs, heart, pleura, abdomen, and other organs and for detecting pregnancy
Foley catheter
indwelling catheter retained in the bladder by a balloon inflated with air or fluid
lithotomy position
patient in the dorsal decubitus position with the hips and knees flexed and the thighs abducted and externally rotated; also called dorsosacral position
microorganisms
microscopic organisms; those of medical interest include bacteria, viruses, fungi and protozoa
pneumothorax
accumulation of air or gas in the pleural space
purulent
consisting of or containing pus; associated with the formulation of or caused by pus
serous
resembling serum, having a thin watery constitution
sterile
aseptic; free of living microorganisms
tracheostomy
surgical creation of an opening into the trachea through the neck
Trendelenburg position
position in which the patient is supine on the table or bed, the head of which is tilted downward 30 to 40 degrees, and the table or bed is angled beneath the knees
urinary meatus
external urethral orifice; the opening of the urethra on the body surface through which urine is discharged
voiding cystourethrography
radiography of the bladder and urethra in which radiographs are performed before, during, and after voing
barium
bulky, fine white powder, without odor or taste and free from grittiness; used as a contrast medium in roentgenography of the digestive tract
bedpan
vessel for receiving the urinary and fecal discharges of a patient unable to leave his or her bed
colostomy
surgical creation of an opening between the colon and the surface of the body; also used to refer to the opening, or stoma, so created
defecation
evacuation of fecal material from the intestines
emesis basin
kidney-shaped vessel for the collection of vomitus
enema
a liquid injected or to be injected into the rectum
enterostomal therapist
health professional (usually a nurse) with special training and certification in the care of ostomies and related concerns
flatus
gas or air evacuated through the anus
Fowler's position
position in which the patient's head is raised 18 or 20 inches above the flat position; the knees are also raised
low-residue diet
diet that gives the least possible fecal residue, such as gelatin, sucrose, dextrose, broth and rice
lumen
cavity or channel within a tube or tubular organ (plural, lumina)
nasogastric (NG) tube
tube of soft rubber or plastic inserted through a nostril and into the stomach; for instilling liquid foods or other substances or for withdrawing gastric contents
ostomate
one who has undergone enterostomy or ureterostomy
perineum
region between the thighs, bound in the male by the scrotum and anus and in the female by the vulva and anus
purgation
catharsis; relief of fecal matter affected by a cathartic
Sims' position
position in which the patient lies on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed and the left arm parallel along the back
stoma
opening established in the abdominal wall by colostomy, ileostomy, and so forth
urinal
vessel or other receptacle for urine
viscosity
physical property of liquids that determines the internal resistance to shear forces