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pharm questions for test 4
Terms in this set (31)
Which of the following is NOT true regarding histamine? (2 pts)
A. Histamine release leads to hypertension
B. Histamine is continually released and synthesized by enterochromaffin-like cells in the stomach
C. Histamine causes an increased capillary permeability via contraction of endothelial cells, resulting in edema
D. Histamine binding to the H1 receptor results in bronchoconstriction
True/False: Bradykinin-1 receptors have low expression and are mainly induced in tissue that have inflammation or have been damaged, while Bradykinin-2 receptors are found in most cells causing us to have little to no control over these receptors.
Which of the following is NOT a precaution when administering PGF2a drugs? (2 pts)
A. May aggravate GI disorders
B. Humans may be exposed if absorbed through skin
C. May aggravate bronchodilation in asthmatic patients
D. Vasoconstriction may be exacerbated in older animals
Which of the following drugs should be used for immediate treatment of anaphylaxis? (2 points)
A. H1 Anti-histamines
C. LOX inhibitor
D. 5-HT receptor antagonist
Which of the following is not an effect of phenothiazines:
c. Decreased platelet aggregation
d. Muscle relaxation
Which of the following is false regarding alpha 2 agonists? ( 2 points)
A. Can cause vomiting in dogs and cats
B. Causes reliable muscle relaxation
C. Causes centrally-mediated respiratory depression
D. Causes hypotension and reflex tachycardia
Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with head trauma?
The blood:gas partition coefficient describes the solubility of gas in blood, and can be used to predict the rate of induction and recovery of inhalant anesthetics. The higher the blood:gas partition coefficient (the higher the solubility), the faster the induction and recovery.
CNS activity is lost (what effects occur) in what order with increasing anesthetic dose?
5. no motor response
6. no motor tone
Which of the following local anesthetic is more widely used in equine(2pt)
Name 4 out of the 7 uses of local anesthetic
peripheral nerve blocks
target/site of action of: osmotic diuretics
Effect entire nephron particularly the loop of henle
target/site of action of: carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
target/site of action of: loop diuretics
Na-K-2Cl sympoter in thick ascending limb of loop of henle
target/site of action of: thiazides
Na-Cl symporter in distal convoluted tubule
target/site of action of: aldosterone antagonists
Mineralocorticoid receptor in tubule cell cytoplasm
target/site of action of: cyclic amide diuretics
Na channel in the PCT
Discuss why we administer T4 and not T3 to patients in need of thyroid hormone replacement treatment
T4 is the main secretory product of the thyroid. Most tissues can absorb T4 and convert it to T3 as needed preserving the cells' autoregulatory activity. The CNS and pituitary gland are not as efficient at absorbing T3, in order to get the therapeutic effect in the CNS and pituitary you would need to administer it at a dose that would be toxic to other tissues
Which of the following is correct regarding thyroid disorders?
A. Hyperthyroidism is associated with benign adenomas in dogs and cats
B. Hyperthyroidism is the most common endocrine disorder in dogs
C. Iodine deficiency is associated with hypothyroidism
D. Lymphocytic thyroiditis is the most common endocrine disorder of cats
Which of these statements are true about thyroid hormones?
A. T3 is more potent than T4
B. T3 is the most secreted thyroid hormone
C. rT4 is a major product in dogs
D. Deiodination only removes 2 iodine before the the hormone is recycled
What medication is approved for use in dogs with diabetes mellitus? Describe the origin of the preparation, duration of action, and what type of diabetes mellitus it is used to treat.
Vetsulin. This is pork zinc insulin and is an intermediate to long acting preparation type. It is used to treat uncomplicated diabetes mellitus.
Which type of insulin should be used for treatment of a complicated diabetic patient?
A. Intermediate acting insulin
B. Long acting insulin
C. Fast acting insulin
D. Ultra-short acting insulin
Treatment of patients with diabetes mellitus is determined by the patient's clinical presentation. What is the difference between a complicated and an uncomplicated clinical presentation?
Complicated: patients cannot take food orally (may have vomiting ketoacidosis, or be comatose due to hyperosmolarity). Uncomplicated: patient that is able to eat and take food orally.
Which of the following is the preferred site of insulin injection
Which of the following estrus synchronization drugs is not given via injection?
A. Chorionic gonadotropins (Chorulun)
B. Gonadorelin diacetate tetrahydrate (Cystorelin)
C. EAZI-BREED CIDR
D. Dinoprost tromethamine (Lutalyse)
What phase of the reproductive cycle is an injection of PGF2a effective and what is its use/effect on a cycling animal ?
PGF2a is only effective during diestrus because that is the only time there is a mature CL which expresses PGF2a Rs. This causes diestrus to come to an end, the levels of progesterone in the animal will drop and the cycle will be shortened. It allows animals to be bred sooner (enter estrus sooner).
Horses are long day stimulated for ovulation. All of these are increased EXCEPT:
E. All of the above are increased
Low melatonin in sheep causes all of these things to decreased EXCEPT: (2 pt)
True/False: To obtain prime effect from oxytocin it should not be given in conjunction with calcium
Which patient below could have the most significant side effect of a P4 inhibitor used to treat hyperadrenocorticism.
A. Sparky a 12 year old quarter horse gelding
B. Dutches a 5 year old corgi, 6 weeks pregnant
C. Brownie a 8 year old stray male cat
D. Princess a 5 year old pet holstein cow
Describe the mechanisms of an effective estrus synchronization protocol for a herd of cows that would produce the most accurate estimate of the time of ovulation and therefore predict the best time for artificial insemination?
Injection PGF2a to cause regression of functional CL present & sending cows in diestrus into proestrus. It will not effect cows in proestrus, estrus, or metestrus because a functional CL is not present in any of these stages. A second injection of PGF2a can be given 10-12 days later to stimulate remaining animals to enter diestrus. Estrus will be entered 3 days after the 2nd PGF2a injection. An injection of GnRH causes a surge of LH release leading to ovulation within 2 , so it can be administered at the time of AI.
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