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CNST-2420 Exam 6 Final Study Guide

Terms in this set (537)

In addition to water, a stucco base coat mix consists of
Portland cement, lime, and sand
On wood-stud and cold-formed steel-stud wall assemblies, stucco is typically applied in three coats. Beginning from the first to the last, the coats are generally called
scratch coat, brown coat, and finish coat
On wood-stud and cold-formed steel-stud-wall assemblies, stucco is typically applied in three coats. The total typical thickness of the three coats is
7/8"
The required color of a stucco surface is
integral to the mix of the finish coat
Metal lath is required when stucco is applied on
Stud-wall assemblies
Metal lath, when used in stucco, is installed on the wall
before the application of the first stucco coat
Control joints on a stucco surface are provided primarily to
control drying shrinkage of stucco
Control joints on a stucco surface are formed by using accessories which consist of
any one of the above (galvanized steel, zinc, PVC)
Control joints are required to be more closely spaced on a stucco surface backed by a stud wall than on a stucco surface backed by a masonry wall. True or False?
True
The total thickness of stucco on a concrete or concrete masonry wall is generally
smaller than that on a stud-backed wall
When control joints are provided in a stucco-clad wall, expansion joints are unnecessary. True or False?
False
In an adhered masonry veneer, the most commonly used masonry unit is
lightweight manufactured stone
In an adhered masonry veneer, masonry units are adhered to the backup surface using
polymer-modified masonry mortar
Masonry units in an adhered masonry veneer on a stud wall are applied directly on
a stucco scratch coat over metal furring lath
Masonry units in an adhered masonry veneer
require grouting of joints after adhering the units
The term EIFS is an acronym for
exterior insulation and finish system
EIFS is classified into two categories: polymer-based (PB) EIFS and polymer-modified (PM) EIFS. Which of these two is more commonly used?
PB EIFS
In PB EIFS, the insulation commonly used is
expanded polystyrene
In PB EIFS, the EIFS lamina consists of
base coat, mesh, and finish coat
The thickness of the lamina in PB EIFS is approximately
1/8"
Backwrapping in an EIFS-clad wall refers to
wrapping the terminal edges of EIFS insulation with EIFS mesh
The requirements for control joints in an EIFS wall are
none; control joints are not required in an EIFS-clad wall
Impact-resistant EIFS generally has
two base coats and one finish coat
Expansion joints are required in an EIFS-clad wall. True or False?
True
The dead-load supports for each stone slab (in a stone-clad wall) are generally
two, placed at the same level at quarter points
A bayonet clip in the stone cladding industry refers to
dead-load support
A combined dead-load and lateral-load support anchor for stone cladding consists of
a stainless steel L-shaped bent plate welded to a stainless steel flat plat
the term kerf in stone cladding industry refers to
a slot in a stone slab
when vertical support channels are used in stone cladding, dead-load supports and tiebacks are not required for stone slabs. True or False?
False
The thickness of granite used in wall cladding is generally
1 1/4"
In a stone-honeycomb wall cladding panel, the thickness of the stone is approximately
1/4"
In a stone-honeycomb wall cladding panel, the honeycomb is generally made of
aluminum
A stone-honeycomb panel is anchored to the backup wall using
two interlocking metal channels
In an insulated wall metal panel, the insulation is sandwiched between
a metal sheet on both sides
The weight of insulated metal panels and stone-honeycomb panels is approximately the same. True or False?
True
The term direct-glaze window implies
fixed window
The term picture window implies
a fixed window whose length is greater than its height
Which of the following window types can provide up to 100% ventilation when fully open?
Casement window
Which of the following windows is top-hung?
Awning window
In vinyl- (or aluminum-) clad windows, the cladding is used on exterior
both window frame and sash frame members
Screw splines are provided in
window and curtain wall frames made from aluminum
Screw splines are round, hollow intrusions in frame members that
facilitate the connection of horizontal and vertical members of a(n)
aluminum window
Snap-on joinery is generally used in
aluminum windows
The label on an NFRC-rated window must include the
U-value and solar heat gain coefficient
In a window that carries the performance label "HS-C30 71 × 59," the number 30 indicates that the window
none of the above
In a window that carries the performance label "HS-C30 71 × 59," the letter C indicates that the window
belongs to a performance class called commercial
Nailing flanges are only provided in steel windows. True or False?
False
The use of nailing flanges in windows also requires the use of
none of the above
Most windows are shop-glazed so that they arrive at the construction site in a fully assembled condition. True or False?
True
A hollow metal door frame is obtained from
sheet steel that is pressed into shape
a hollow metal door frame is installed so that it
butts against the jambs of a CMU wall
or
wraps around the jambs of a CMU wall.
Which of the following terms is used with fire-rated windows or doors?
Fire-protection rating
Fire-rated doors are rated as
3 h, 90 min, 60 min, 45 min, or 20 min
Which of the following terms describes an intermediate vertical member of a window frame?
mullion
which of the following terms describes an intermediate horizontal member of a window frame?
rail
Which of the following terms refers to thin and narrow horizontal and vertical members of a window sash?
Muntin
A stool is used in a window in the building's interior. True or False?
True
The two most common types of subfloor for floor coverings are
concrete and wood panel
The vapor retarder below a concrete slab-on-ground should be of an extremely low permeability. This requirement is more important if the floor covering is polymer based. True or False?
True
The coefficient of friction of a floor surface measures its
slip resistance
For a ceramic tile floor covering on a wood subfloor
a cement or fiber-cement backer board underlayment is recommended
The terms "stone panel and stone tile" are used interchangeably in building industry. True or False?
false
A thick-bed mortar consists of
Portland cement, sand and water
For setting the ceramic tiles on the subfloor, the most commonly used mortar is thick-bed mortar. True or False?
False
A thick-bed mortar is proprietary to the manufacturer, while a think bed mortar is generic. True or False?
False
Stone panel flooring is laid on the subfloor using
the thick-bed mortar
A notched trowel
is used in laying thin-bed mortar
A rubber float
is used in laying grout
To ensure that the width of joints between ceramic or natural stone tiles are uniform, the installer uses
plastic spacers
Terrazzo floor covering is like concrete in that it
is a mix of binding agent and aggregate
and
is liquid when placed and cures hard
a cementitious terrazzo floor covering is
approximately 1/2" thick
and
vapor permeable
A cementitious terrazzo floor covering
requires divider strips at spacing not exceeding 5 ft
A cementitious terrazzo mix is laid on a mortar bed, not directly on the subfloor. True or False?
True
An epoxy terrazzo mix is laid on a mortar bed, not directly on the subfloor. True or False?
False
An epoxy terrazzo floor covering
does not require any divider strips except at floor transitions and change of mix color and pattern
The carpet pad under a typical broadloom (wall-to-wall) carpet is typically 1 in. thick. True or False?
False
The texture of the pile in a fusion-bonded carpet is
cut pile
A typical broadloom carpet has two layers of backing. True or False?
True
To ensure that a broadloom (wall-to-wall) carpet stays in position and does not move, it is typically
stretched and hooked to tack strips along the room perimeter
The floor covering in which the base trim and the floor covering can be made jointless and continuous is
sheet vinyl floor
The seams between vinyl floor covering sheets are
welded together with hot air and vinyl bead
A flash cove base is used with
sheet vinyl floor covering
Historical load-bearing masonry structures were designed with the assumption that
all wind loads on the building were resisted by exterior walls only, with no structural interaction between them
Use of the load-bearing masonry wall system became extinct for a while and was revived
after World War II
The structural behavior of a contemporary load-bearing masonry wall building is similar to that of a
conventional wood light-frame building
Referring to a masonry wall as a reinforced-masonry wall implies that the wall contains
vertical reinforcing bars
Masonry walls without joint reinforcement are called plain-masonry walls. True or False?
False
A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall building is required for structural reasons
at each floor level and roof level
A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall building must be a
reinforced-concrete or reinforced-masonry beam
A bond beam in a masonry bearing wall building
is embedded in the walls
a typical bond beam is provided with
horizontal reinforcement
a load-bearing wall structure works best when the floor plan of the building has
all of the above
A cellular-type floor plan in a multistory building is generally inherent in the following occupancies:
residential occupancies
in a cross-bearing wall structure, the load-bearing walls are
perpendicular to the main axis of the building
compared to a longitudinal-bearing wall floor plan, a cross-bearing wall floor plan generally gives larger exterior wall openings. True or False?
True
The commonly used floor system in high-rise and mid-rise masonry bearing wall buildings in North America is
precast-concrete hollow-core slabs
The keyway between precast-concrete hollow-core slabs runs perpendicular to the bearing walls. True or False?
True
The keyway between precast-concrete hollow-core slabs is generally
grouted
and
reinforced with horizontal steel dowels
Where the cutting of masonry units is discouraged, the wall dimensions are based on the masonry module. The module used in CMU walls is
8 in.
The clear height of openings in CMU walls is
3/8 in. greater than the multiples of the masonry unit module
In high-rise residential buildings built with site-cast reinforced-concrete bearing walls using tunnel forms, the floors and roofs are generally constructed of
none of the above
The formwork used in constructing site-cast reinforced-concrete walls and floors simultaneously consists of
sheet steel tunnel forms
Insulating concrete forms can only be used for
none of the above
The concrete tilt-up wall construction system is generally used in
low-rise buildings--- 1 to 4 stories
In a tilt-up wall construction system, the walls are
precast at the construction site
The pipe braces that support concrete tilt-up walls are typically removed when
have been erected, anchored to the footings, the floor and roof structures have been completed, and the exterior finish to wall panels has been applied
the most commonly used strength of concrete for tilt-up wall panels is
4,000 psi
The most commonly used strength of concrete for the slab-on-ground in concrete tilt-up wall buildings is
4,000 psi
The foundations for concrete tilt-up walls consist of
any one of the above
During the erection of concrete tilt-up wall panels, a gap is left between the bottom of a panel and the tip of the footing. This gap is approximately
1 in. to 2 in.
the most commonly used method of connecting tilt-up walls to the slab-on-ground is
a continuous concrete closure strip in the slab-on-ground
or
individual steel plates welded to panels and the slab-on-ground
The adjacent non corner tilt-up wall panels
should not be connected unless the building is located in a seismic or high-wind region
The adjacent corner tilt-up wall panels should be connected together in all situations. True or False?
True
Reinforced-concrete tilt0up walls are generally used as
load-bearing enclosure walls whereas the interior structure consists of a structural steel frame
To provide continuous insulation in a tilt-up wall building, the choice generally is the use of
EIFS cladding on wall panels
or
sandwich tilt-up wall panels
In a sandwich tilt-up wall panel, the structural wythe of concrete is on the exterior face of the wall. True or False?
False
The most commonly used exterior finish on tilt-up wall panels is
paint
The coping on a roof parapet is generally
sloped toward the interior (roof)
The coping on a masonry fence wall is generally
sloped on both sides
a drip mechanism at the underside of a projecting horizontal surface counters the effect of
adhesive forces between water molecules and the building surface
A capillary break is a
wider space in an otherwise narrow joint
Z-flashing is effective in
a horixontal butt joint in cladding
in terms of water infiltration, the exterior masonry walls in historic buildings functioned as
none of the above
the most important feature of an (exterior) drainage wall is
all of the above
Metal anchors are needed to transfer lateral loads to the backup wall in
some veneer walls
a curtain wall is separated from the structural frame of the building by a minimum of
2 in.
A curtain wall is typically used in buildings whose structural system consists of a
reinforced-concrete frame structure or steel-frame structure
A backup wall is required in a
veneer wall
Suction the pulls wind-driven rain into the air space of a drainage wall takes place on the windward face of a wall. True or False?
True
In an ideal pressure-equalized drainage wall,
the backup resists all of the wind load
An ideal pressure-equalized drainage wall is also referred to as a
rain-screen wall
For a pressure-equalized drainage wall to function effectively, the air space must be continuous from floor to floor. True or False?
False
The backup wall in a brick veneer wall assembly consists of a
all of the above
In a brick veneer wall assembly, the wind loads are transferred directly from the veneer to the building's structure. True or False?
False
The anchors used to anchor the brick veneer to the backup wall are generally two-piece anchors to allow differential movement between the veneer and the backup
within the plane of the veneer
The anchors in a brick veneer wall assembly provide
lateral load support to the veneer
The minimum required width of the air space between a brick veneer and a CMU backup wall is
2 in
The minimum width of the air space generally used between a brick veneer and a wood stud backup wall is
1 in
A steel angle used to support the weight of a brick veneer over an opening is called a
lintel angle
A shelf angle must be anchored to the building's structural frame. True or False?
True
A lintel angle must be anchored to the building's structural frame. True or False?
False
In a multistory building, shelf angles are typically used at
each floor level
For a brick veneer that bears on the foundation and continues to the top of the building without any intermediate support, the maximum veneer height is limited to
30 ft
A shelf angle in a brick veneer assembly must provide
gravity load support to the veneer
In a brick veneer assembly, flashing is required
all of the above
In a brick veneer assembly, weep holes are required at
immediately above the flashing
the most efficient weep hole in a brick veneer consists of a
open-head joint
A mortar-capturing device in a brick veneer assembly is used
immediately above a flashing
In a brick veneer assembly with punched windows, vertical expansion joints should be provided at a maximum distance of
20 ft in the field of the wall and 10 ft from a wall's corner
A typical anchor used with a brick veneer and CMU backup wall assembly consists of a
two-piece anchor, of which one is embedded in the CMU backup wall and the other is embedded in the veneer's mortar joint
and
two-piece anchor, of which one is an integral part of the joint reinforcement in the CMU backup wall and the other is embedded in the veneer's mortar joint
When lintel angles and shelf angles are combined in the same angle in a brick veneer-clad building, the angle should be treated as a
shelf angle anchored to the structural frame of the building
In general, a CMU-backed brick veneer is more forgiving of construction and workmanship deficiencies than a steel stud-backed brick veneer. True or False?
True
In a brick veneer assembly with a steel stud backup wall, the design of studs is generally governed by
the deflection of studs to withstand lateral loads
The strength of concrete used in precast concrete curtain walls is generally
greater than or equal to 5,000 psi
Precast concrete curtain wall panels are generally
none of the above
The number of bearing supports in a precast concrete curtain wall panel must be
two
The structural design of precast concrete curtain wall panels is generally the responsibility of the
structural engineer retained by the panel fabricator
During erection of precast concrete curtain wall panels, the panels are leveled. The leveling of the panels is provided in the
panels' bearing supports
The bricks used in brick-faced concrete curtain wall panels are generally
thinner than those used in brick veneer construction
A bond break such as a polyethylene sheet membrane is generally used between the concrete and bricks in a brick-faced precast concrete curtain wall panel. True or False?
False
The connection between the natural stone facing and the backup concrete in a stone-faced precast concrete curtain wall panel is obtained by
flexible steel dowels
The term GFRC is an acronym for
glass fiber-reinforced concrete
A GFRC curtain wall panel consists of
all of the above
The GFRC skin is typically
1/2 in. to 3/4 in. thick.
The glass fibers used in the GFRC skin are referred to as AR fibers. The term AR is an acronym for
alkali resistant
The anchors used in GFRC panels are typically
one-piece anchors.
The GFRC skin is obtained by
spraying the mix over a mold
GFRC curtain wall panels are generally lighter than the corresponding precast concrete curtain wall panels. True or False?
True
The preliminary framing layout of a building is generally prepared by the
project architect
The preliminary framing layout of a steel-frame building is generally presented in
plan view
If the floor of a steel-frame building has primary, secondary, and tertiary components, the tertiary components consist of
none of the above
If the floor of a steel-frame building has only primary and secondary components, the secondary components consist of
floor deck
If the floor of a steel-frame building has primary, secondary, and tertiary components, the secondary components consist of
w-shape beams
or
steel joists
Which of the following is not an ASTM designation for steel bolts?
A507 Bolts
A snug-tight connection between framing members is obtained by
bolting the members and tightening them with a spud wrench using full force
A slip-critical connection between framing members is obtained by
none of the above
Field bolting of steel members is generally preferred over field welding. True or False?
True
A shear connection between a steel beam and a steel column is also called
a simple connection
A shear connection between a steel beam and a steel column can be made without connecting beam flanges to the column. True or False?
True
A rigid connection between a steel beam and a steel column can be made without connecting beam flanges to the column. True or False?
False
In a multistory steel-frame building, the columns are generally spliced
every two floors
In connecting the upper-column shaft with a lower-column shaft in a multistory steel-frame building, we generally require
two flange plates
In a column splice detail, a butt plate is required when
none of these
The fabrication of structural steel components is done based on
shop drawings
Details of connections between structural steel members are prepared by the
none of the above
The erection of structural steel members is generally done by the
none of the above
The installation of a floor or roof deck is done by the
general contractor
or
erector
Camber refers to
Upward deflection of a beam to counter downward deflection by a dead load
In connecting a steel column to concrete foundations, anchor bolts are used. These bolts are embedded into the foundation by
the general contractor
A steel column may or may not need a base plate at the bottom. True or False?
False
To level a column so that it is plumb,
Any of the above
(steel shims are used
high-strength plastic shims are used
leveling bolts are used)
A braced frame steel structure is generally more economical than a comparable rigid frame structure. True or False?
True
The difference between diagonal bracing and K-bracing between steel columns is that
all of the above
(K-bracing provides less spacial interruption, is heavier, and also carries some gravity loads)
Eccentric K-bracing is generally recommended for use
in seismic regions
The term racking refers to the effect produced on the structure mainly by
lateral loads
A steel-frame building may consist of either a rigid frame or a braced frame. A combination of the two systems (braced- and rigid-frame systems) cannot be used in the same building. True or False?
False
Which of the two-a rigid frame or a braced frame-provides greater structural stiffness, that is, greater lateral stability?
braced frame
In a braced-frame steel structure, the braced bays
may be provided on the exterior facade, the interior of the building, or both
A multistory steel-frame structure must be provided with a central shear core. True or False?
False
The central shear core in a steel-frame building
Should consists of reinforced concrete walls in both directional of the building
or
should consist of steel- braced frames along both directions of the building
Lime is made by
heating crushed limestone and then pulverizing it
Quicklime reacts readily with water. True or False?
True
Hydrated lime is obtained by treating
quicklime with water
Quicklime is most commonly used in building construction. True or False?
True
Hydrated lime-water paste sets and hardens due to the
chemical reaction of carbon dioxide in air with lime
Which of the following materials is a pozzolana?
Fly ash
One of the important cementitious ingredients in making Roman concrete was
volcanic ash
Hydrated lime is available in two types, which are referred to as
Types N and S lime
A pozzolanic material must be composed mainly of
microscopic and amorphous silica
The main ingredient used in the manufacture of Portland cement is
limestone
ASTM specifications classify Portland cement into five basic types, referred to as
Types I, II, III, IV, and V.
The most commonly specified type of Portland cement is
Type I/II
Which type of Portland cement is commonly used in making precast concrete members?
Type III
White Portland cement is generally weaker than normal (gray-colored) Portland cement. True or False?
False
The aggregate for concrete is generally subdivided into coarse aggregate and fine aggregate. The distinction between the two types of aggregate is based on the
aggregate's particle size
In a No. 4 sieve, the dimensions of voids are approximately
1/4" x 1/4"
A well-graded coarse aggregate is one in which the size of all aggregate particles is approximately the same. True or False?
False
Everything else being the same, a concrete with a larger coarse aggregate requires less Portland cement and water paste to give the same concrete strength. True or False?
True
Lightweight structural concrete is heavier than insulating concrete. True or False?
True
The slump of concrete is measured
when the concrete is fresh
The slump of concrete is a measure of the
workability of concrete
The test specimen used for determining the compressive strength of concrete in the United States is a
6" Diameter, 12" high cylinder
The compressive strength of concrete is generally measured
28 days after casting the concrete in a test specimen
In a high-rise building, the concrete may be brought from the ground to the location of placement by
buckets
or
pumping
After concrete has been placed in the form, it should be consolidated as much as is economically practical. True or False?
False
The consolidation of concrete on a construction site are generally done
using a power-driven rod vibrator
The finishing operations of a concrete surface usually involve striking, floating, and troweling. The sequence in which these three operations are generally performed is
striking, floating, and troweling
Portland cement sets and gains strength by virtue of its chemical reaction with
water
The rate at which concrete gains strength increases as the ambient air temperature increase. True or False?
True
High-strength concrete is defined as concrete whose compressive strength is greater than or equal to
6,000 psi
A high-strength concrete generally requires a
water-reducing agent
Steel reinforcing bars, generally used in concrete, have a yield strength of
60 ksi
A #8 reinforcing bar has a diameter of
1 in
In a welded wire fabric mat that has a designation of 8 X 8-D4.0 X 4.0, the number 4.0 indicates that the wires are
deformed wires, each with a cross0sectional area of 0.04 in^2
Epoxy-coated bars are generally used in
parking garages built in cold climates
According to building codes, plain concrete (concrete without steel reinforcement) is not permitted in new construction. True or False?
False
The yield strength of prestressing steel is
none of the above
The term prestressed concrete refers to both pretensioned and posttensioned concrete. True or False?
True
Which of the following statement is true?
The term tendons includes strands
Which of the following statements is true?
Pretensioning is generally done at the precaster's plant and yields a precast, prestressed concrete member
In a typical site-cast reinforced-concrete structure, the cost of formwork and shores is
approximately equal to the combined cost of concrete and steel
Concrete shell roofs are not commonly used because
none of the above
In site-cast concrete construction, shores are used
in elevated concrete slabs
Height adjustability in shores made of dimension lumber
is provided through
lapped members clamped together with specially made clamps
or
a screw-based metal assembly
Scaffold-type shores are generally made from
steel pipes
High-density overlay (HDO) on form plywood
all of the above
Aluminum is commonly used as form and shore material because
its strength-to-weight ratio is high, which reduces the weight of forms and shores
The term flying form refers to
a large formwork assembly for floor and roof slabs
Reshoring concrete structures are necessary where excessive deflection of floor slabs or foundation settlement is anticipated on removal of shores. True or False?
False
The structural design of formwork design is the responsibility of the
general contractor
Form liners are used to
Produce textured concrete surfaces
The primary purpose of steel reinforcement is to increase the tensile strength of concrete elements. However, steel reinforcement is also used to increase the shear strength and compressive strength of concrete elements. True or False?
True
Stirrups are used in a concrete beam
to increase the shear strength of the beam beyond that provided by concrete
Stirrups are generally made of
No. 3 or No. 4 bars
A doubly reinforced beam is one in which
reinforcing bars are provided at the top and bottom of the beam
Mechanical couplers are used
Where lap splicing of reinforcing bars will produce excessive congestion
Hooks are used
none of the above
Hooks in bars are produced by turning the bars through
90 or 180 degrees
Steel reinforcement in concrete elements that are permanently exposed to the earth, such as footings, must have a minimum concrete cover of
3 in
The chairs used to support reinforcing steel bars are generally
plastic chairs
and
steel chairs with plastic-coated feet
The most important reason for providing ties in a concrete column is to
prevent the buckling of longitudinal column bars
The most important reason for providing ties in a concrete wall is to
ties are generally not provided in a concrete wall
formwork for a concrete wall generally consists of
Plywood, form ties, walers, and stiffbacks fastened together with clamps
A vapor retarder is required under
Under some interior concrete slabs-on-ground
The strength of concrete in a residential concrete slab-on-ground is generally
3,000 psi
A construction joint in a concrete slab-on-ground is required if the concrete in the slab cannot be placed in one continuous operation. True or False?
True
The tendons used for prestressing a PT concrete slab-on-ground generally consist of
a single 1/2" diameter, seven wire strand
In a PT concrete slab-on-ground, the tendons are stressed from the
live ends
Pocket formers in a PT concrete slab-on-ground are used at
live ends
A PT concrete slab-on-ground may either be a ribbed slab or a constant-thickness slab. True or False?
True
A reinforced concrete, four-side-supported slab panel is
a one-way slab
or
a two-way slab
A reinforced-concrete, four-side-supported slab panel measuring 15 ft X 22 ft is
a two-way slab
A reinforced-concrete, four-side-supported slab panel measuring 15 ft X 32 ft is
a one-way slab
In a band beam reinforced-concrete floor, the beams are
wide and shallow
A band beam floor is generally more economical than a beam-and-girder floor because
its formwork is more economical
A standard-module one-way joist floor is constructed using pans that are
20 in wide
or
30 in wide
Based on structural considerations only, the thickness of the slab in a standard-module one-way joist floor need not exceed
2" to 2.5"
Pans used as formwork for one-way joist floors have a
U-shaped profile
A wide-module one-way joist floor is constructed using pans that are
66" wide
or
53" wide
In a one-way joist floor, the supporting beams run in one direction and the joists run in the other direction. If the spans in the two directions are unequal, the beams should preferably span along the
shorter direction
The formwork used for a waffle slab has a
dome profile
Using standard formwork components for a waffle slab, the center-to-center distance between waffles (voids) is
3', 4', or 5'
A flat slab floor consists of
a slab with drop panels at each column
A flat plate floor consists of
a slab of constant thickness
commonly used beamless concrete floors are
flat-plate and flat-slab floors
In a posttensioned elevated concrete floor, prestressing tendons are combined with conventional steel reinforcement. True or False?
True
The primary reason for using posttensioned concrete floors is to
reduce floor depth
The strength of concrete used in precast concrete members is generally
5 ksi to 6 ksi
Portland cement used in precast concrete members is generally
Type III
Architectural precast concrete refers to concrete members used in building interiors. True or False?
False
In mixed precast construction, precast concrete members are generally used for
floors
in total precast construction, precast concrete members are generally used for
all of the above
a 12-in.-thick hollow-core floor slab will generally span up to approximately
40'
When a concrete topping is used over hollow-core slabs, its thickness is approximately
2"
The purpose of concrete topping on hollow-core slabs is to
all of the above
The most commonly used width of a double-tee floor unit is
8 ft
Double-tee floors are commonly used
Where spans are in excess of 50 ft
The fire-resistance rating of concrete members is a function of
all of the above
Roughly how old is WLF construction?
200 years
When WLF was first discovered, it was called a
Balloon frame
WLF construction originated in
United States
In the early version of WLF construction, the studs were continuous from the foundation of the roof. True or False?
True
In time, the early version of WLF construction was modified to what is now called a
platform frame
The type of WLF construction that has the largest amount of cross grain lumber is a
platform frame
The framing members in a WLF building are generally
2-by solid lumber members
The center-to-center spacings of framing members in a WLF building are generally
12, 16, or 24 inches
The center-to-center spacing of framing members in a WLF building is mainly based on
structural considerations
and
the size of sheathing panels
The top plate in a WLF wall generally consists of
two 2-by members
The bottom plate in a WLF wall is called
a sill plate
or
a sole plate
depending on the location of the wall
A sill plate in a WLF wall must be anchored to the foundation with at least
1/2-in. diameter bolts spaced a maximum of 6 ft on centers
A corner made by two WLF walls must have at least
three studs
A jack stud is always accompanied by a king stud. True or False?
True
In a WLF wall assembly, a cripple stud is used
above a header or below rough sill
A header over an opening bears directly on
jack studs
A precut stud length equal to 7 ft 8 5/8 in. is commonly used because
it provides a floor-to-ceiling height of 8 ft
The header over an opening in a wall made of 2 x 6 studs consists of
three 2-by lumber members nailed together with two intervening fillers
In a WLF building, a floor framing plan indicates
the layout of floor joists, floor beams, and blocking
A non-load bearing wall in a building is one that supports the loads from the roof but not from any floor. True or False?
False
The primary purpose of full-depth blocking in a floor frame is to
prevent buckling of floor joists
Blocking between floor joists is required where
the joists bear on a wall
and
the joists bear on a beam
A floor in a WLF building that supports a non-load-bearing wall generally requires no additional strengthening or stiffening when
the wall runs perpendicular to floor joists
A roof with gable ends on both sides in a rectangular building has
eaves on two sides
A rectangular roof with ip ends on two sides has
eaves on all four sides
In the building industry, the slope of a roof is generally expressed
as a rise-to run ratio
Because a ridge board is a structural member, its size depends on roof loads. True or False?
False
A bird's mouth cut in rafters is made at the ridge. True or False?
False
In a roof with a ridge beam
none of the above
The most commonly used material for floor sheathing in a wood light-frame building is
OSB panels
Metal clips used to connect roof sheathing panels are generally
H-shaped
If the cross-grain lumber dimensions in a WLF building are the same throughout the entire building, it is not subjected to any swelling or shrinkage. True or False?
False
The type of construction that can be achieved with wood light-frame members is
Type III(A), III(B), V(A), or V(B)
The maximum number of stories allowed by the International Building Code for a fully sprinklered, R-2 occupancy building in Type V(B) construction is
three
In a podium-type building, the horizontal separation assembly must have a minimum fire rating of
3 h
The structure below the podium in a podium-type building must be fully sprinklered only if used for automobile parking. True or False?
False
The podium structure in a podium-type building must be Type I(A) construction. True or False?
True
In referring to a floor or roof of a building as a horizontal diaphragm, the reference is with respect to
lateral loads
Hold-down bolts, when provided in a WLF wall building are used in
walls
A wood light-frame building is essentially a
load-bearing-wall structure
Horizontal beveled wood siding is generally made by slicing a
solid lumber piece
Horizontal siding is provided on
the walls of a wood light-frame building
Horizontal wood siding material is generally finished smooth on the front and back faces. True or False?
False
Each course of beveled horizontal wood siding is nailed to the wall through
one line of nails near the bottom of the siding
Vertical joints between adjacent horizontal siding boards are generally
none of the above
To produce a drainage layer with horizontal siding, we generally use
none of the above
Fiber-cement siding is
noncombustible and not prone to fungal decay
Vertical siding for a wood light-frame building is generally made from small strips of plywood. True or False?
False
An eave is generally horizontal and the rake is inclined. True or False?
True
The transition from a projecting eave to a rake needs special detailing when the eave is provided with
a horizontal soffit
Which of the following terms for gypsum board is proprietary to a manufacturer?
Sheetrock
Gypsum board is one of the best materials for fire protection because
each molecule of gypsum contains two molecules of water that retard the progress of fire
The most commonly used size for gypsum boards is
4 ft x 8 ft
Of Types R and X gypsum board panels, both of the same thickness, Type R is more fire resistive. True or False?
False
One sheet of Type X Gypsum board panel, 5/8 in. thick, used on each side of a stud wall gives a fire rating of
60 min
Moisture-resistant gypsum board panels are generally
green in color
Gypsum wall board panels used on curved walls are generally
1/4 in. thick
High-impact gypsum board panels generally have a
fiberglass mesh at the back side
Gypsum sheathing is generally used on the
exterior side of an exterior stud wall
It is better to install ceiling gypsum board panels before installing the wall panels in a room. True or False?
True
The most important reason for using more than one layer of gypsum board panels on one or both faces of a wall is to obtain a stronger wall assembly. True or False?
False
In a SIP, the insulation generally consists of
expanded polystyrene
The facing in a SIP generally consists of
OSB on both faces
In a SIP structure, the interior walls are constructed of 4 ft x 8 ft SIP panels. True or False?
False
In a SIP building, exterior wall panels are typically
4 1/2 in. or 6 1/2 in. thick
Adjacent structural insulated wall panels in a SIP building are connected through
any one of the above
A corner between structural insulated wall panels in a SIP building requires
a minimum of two 2-by lumber studs
The connection of a wall panel to a concrete foundation, as shown in this text, requires the use of
two sill plates, one of which is treated
IN a SIP structure, an intermediate floor may be framed with any one of the following except
SIP panels
In a SIP structure, the roof may be framed with any one of the following except
all of the above (without exception)
A SIP manufacturer generally supplies standard-size panels, which must be cut to size at the site as required by project drawings. True or False?
False
Similar to the conventional WLF structure, the interior gypsum board wall finish must be nailed to the studs in a SIP structure. True or False?
False
The maximum size of available SIP panels is
8 ft x 24 ft
Which of the following ferrous metals has the largest amount of carbon?
Cast Iron
Which of the following ferrous metals is least corrosion resistant?
Cast Iron
An integrated mill produces steel using
iron ore
The mini mill method of steel manufacturing predates the integrated mill method. True or False?
False
An electric arc furnace uses
three electrodes to melt steel scrap
Slag is
a waste product generated from the manufacture of steel
When steel structures first appeared, they were called
all of the above
Which of the following statements is true?
All structural steel sections are made by preheating billets or blooms and rolling them to shape
Steel decks are made from cold-formed steel. True or False?
True
The steel type most commonly used for framing members (columns and beams) of a steel building is
steel type A9923 with a yield strength of 50 ksi
A W-shape section is so called because
it is an I-section with wide flanges
W-shape, S-shape, HP-shape, and M-shape are all structural steel I-sections. True or False?
True
Which of the following steel shapes is most commonly used for the structural frame of buildings?
W-shape
The designation W14 x 38 means that the
nominal depth of the section is 14 in and its weight is 38 lb/ft
To obtain the structural engineering properties of standard steel sections, the following publication is generally used
Steel Construction Manual
In a steel angle, both legs must have the same thickness but may be of different lengths. True or False?
True
The acronym HSS stands for
none of the above
HSS members are made by
bending and welding heated steel plates
Which of the following does not represent a steel joist series?
J-series
In the steel joist designation 24LH10, the number 24 gives the
depth of the joist in inches
A K-series steel joist that is 20 in. deep cannot be used to span more than
40 ft
Steel joists are braced against instability by
horizontal bridging members at the bottom of the joists
AND
horizontal bridging members at the top of the joists.
Diagonal bridging may be used as an alternative to horizontal bridging to stabilize steel joists. True or False?
True
Steel joists and joist girders are best utilized in a building that has concentrated loads. True or False?
False
Steel roof decks are either form decks or composite decks. True or False?
False
Steel floor decks are either form decks or composite decks. True or False?
True
The thickness of sheet steel in a roof or floor deck is generally specified in terms of
Gauge number
Which of the following decks requires structural concrete topping?
All of the above
Roof decks are anchored to supporting members by continuous welds along the support lines. True or False?
False
A pour stop is generally used with
floor decks
Two dissimilar metals are generally separated from each other by a separator, which helps to prevent
galvanic corrosion
In a galvanized steel plate that carries the designation G60, the number 60 means that
none of the above
Spray-on fire protection materials for steel contain
Portland Cement with mineral fibers or lightweight aggregate
Spray-on fire protection of steel gives a much cleaner appearance than gypsum board encasement of steel. True or False?
False
Fire-protection of structural steel framing members is mandated by building codes for all buildings. True or False?
False
Soil and rock consist essentially of the same matter. True or False?
True
In the commonly used soil classification system, sand and silt are classified as

a. coarse-grained soils
b. fine-grained soils
c. organic soils
d. inorganic soils
e. none of the above
none of the above
The four commonly used classifications of soils arranged in order of decreasing particle size are
gravel, sand, silt, and clay
Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Gravel particles have a platelike shape.
b. Sand particles have a platelike shape.
c. Silt particles have a platelike shape.
d. Clay particles have a platelike shape.
Clay particles have a platelike shape
Cohesive soils are those in which the dry soil particles tend to separate from each other when mixed with a small amount of water. True or False?
False
To obtain soil-sampling tubes from below ground, which soil-testing method is commonly used?
Test boring method
During soil testing, soil samples are obtained from
several locations on the site and from several depths below ground
All testing of soil samples is generally done at the site

a. because modern soil sampling equipment is fully equipped with soil testing facility.
b. because the delay in bringing soil samples to the laboratory falsifies test results.
c. because the vibration of soil samples caused by transportation falsifies test results.
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
none of the above
In terms of soil behavior in earthquakes, building codes classify a construction site based on soil conditions. The primary property of soil that is used in this classification is
the stiffness/density of soil
The bearing capacity of a soil refers to

a. the density of soil
b. the modulus of elasticity of soil
c. the compressive strength of soil
d. whether the soil is native to the site
e. none of the above
none of the above
The bearing capacity of a soil is generally expressed in terms of
pounds or kips per square foot
If the bearing capacity of the soil is high, the footing area required is large. True or False?
False
The maximum presumptive bearing capacity value of bedrock provided by the International Building Code is
12.0 ksf
The building codes do not mandate geotechnical investigations for all building construction sites. True or False?
True
Grading at a site refers to

a. evaluating the existing subsurface conditions of a site
b. evaluating the groundwater conditions at a site
c. compacting the soil to required density
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
none of the above
Engineered fill refers to the soil that is
all of the above

specially formulated to provide the required properties

placed per geotechnical engineer's specifications
compacted per the geotechnical engineer's

specifications and inspection
A benched excavation is generally used
on open suburban sites
sheet piles are used
as excavation supports
Which of the following is not used for excavation supports?
Precast concrete piles
In the excavation support system using soldier piles, the soldier piles consist of
structural steel sections
In the soldier pile and lagging system, the lagging generally consists of
pressure treated lumber
An alternative to lagging that is commonly used with the soldier pile system of excavation support is
shotcrete over welded wire reinforcement (WWR)
Tiebacks used with the anchored soldier pile system of excavation support consist of
prestressing tendons or reinforcing steel bars in grouted holes
Contiguous bored piles are constructed using
site-cast reinforced concrete
In terms of design and construction, secant piles are related to
contiguous bored piles
The center-to-center distance between secant piles is generally

a. 5 to 8 ft
b. 8 to 12 ft
c. 10 to 15 ft
d. 15 to 20 ft
e. none of the above
none of the above
Soil nailing refers to
a cut face of excavation supported by closely spaced steel bars in grouted holes and shotcrete over WWR
Dewatering of an excavation, as described in this text, can be done by the
sump method
well-point method
In the Unified Soil Classification System, the symbol M stands for
a. medium-grained soil
b. moist soil
c. soil of medium plasticity
d. none of the above
none of the above
In the Unified Soil Classification System, the symbol GP stands for
poorly graded gravel
Which of the following soils has the lowest liquid limit?
sand
The expansiveness of a soil is determined from the values of
liquid limit and plasticity index
A raft foundation is a shallow foundation system. True or False?
True
Which of the following foundation systems does not extend, generally uninterrupted, for the entire footprint of the building?
Pier or pile foundation
A strip footing is generally used under a
wall
A strap footing is generally used where
the columns in the building abut the property line
A deep foundation system consists of a
pier or pile foundation
Which of the following foundation items must be integrated under a concrete cap?
driven piles
Drilled piers used as foundation elements consist of
cast-in-place reinforced concrete
Which of the following foundation systems has large voids?
Raft foundation
Pile foundations are commonly used in coastal areas. True or False?
True
Drilled piers transfer building loads mainly by end bearing, while piles do so by both end bearing and skin friction. True or False?
False
In expansive soils, drilled piers are subjected to
an uplift force in the expansive region of the soil, which generally occurs in the upper soil layer
The augers used for boring pier holes generally use
a rotary operation with a helix-type blade cutter
A tremmie is used during the drilling of a pier to

a. prevent the caving in of the soil.
b. bring the cut soil out of the hole.
c. bring up the groundwater that collects at the bottom of the pier.
d. seal the pier hole against percolation of water.
e. none of the above.
none of the above
Where a tremmie is used in a pier, casing is unnecessary. True or False?
False
In a deep foundation system, foundation settlement is generally larger than in a shallow foundation system. True or False?
False
Settlement of foundations causes stresses in the structural frame of the building when the settlement is
nonuniform over the foundation area
A commonly used foundation drainage system consists of
a perforated drain pipe set within a layer of crushed stone or gravel, the layer wrapped with a filter fabric
A reinforced concrete slab-on-ground foundation is suitable for
lightly loaded low-rise buildings on stable soils
A ribbed reinforced concrete slab-on-ground foundation is preferred over a constant-thickness slab foundation because
it provides the same strength and stiffness at a lower cost
A foundation system consisting of perimeter foundation walls and an elevated ground floor with an underlying crawl space is commonly used
for low-rise building in cold climates
A posttensioned (PT) concrete slab-on-ground foundation generally consists of
a PT slab, perimeter beams, and intermediate beams
A PT concrete slab-on-ground foundation does not require control joints. True or False?
True
A PT concrete slab-on-grade foundation is commonly used
on expansive soils
A foundation system consisting of grade beams bearing on drilled piers and an elevated ground floor with an underlying crawl space is
suitable for lightly loaded low-rise buildings on expansive or low-bearing-capacity soils
Void boxes used for concrete formwork in foundation systems are made of
e
A foundation system consisting of perimeter grade beams and a reinforced concrete slab thickened over drilled piers is suitable
where the soil is expansive
In a building with a foundation system consisting of grade beams bearing on drilled piers and an elevated ground floor with an underlying crawl space, the ground floor is generally constructed of

a. wood frame
b. steel frame
c. precast concrete
d. any one of the above
e. none of the above
any one of the above
Waterproofing that is applied to the outside of basement walls is called
either positive-side or blind-side waterproofing
In a basement excavation with walls supported by an excavation retention structure, waterproofing is applied to the excavation retention structure. True or False?
True
Which of the following two terms are used synonymously?
Lumber and solid sawn lumber
The approximate density of lumber is
35 pcf
The cellular structure of wood consists mainly of
hollow, long tubular cells
If we cut a cross section through a tree trunk, we will see a number of rings. The most appropriate term for these rings is
growth rings
The walls of wood cells consist primarily of
cellulose
The terms sapwood and heartwood refer to
two different parts of the same tree
The difference between softwoods and hardwoods is based on the
botanical characteristics
Which of the following species of wood is not a softwood?
Oak
Which of the following species of wood is not a hardwood?
Redwood
Spruce is a softwood species. True or False?
True
Lumber used for structural framing of buildings in North America is generally derived
from softwood species
Hardwoods are generally used for fine-quality flooring, furniture, and wall paneling. True or False?
True
In the United States, most structural lumber is grown in the
western and southern regions of the United States
Redwood is grown mainly in
California
Which of the following species of wood is naturally decay resistant?
Cedar
In a 2 × 6 stud, the wood grain is parallel to the
vertical direction
Wood is
Stronger along the grain than across the grain
Structural lumber is typically
flat-sawn
Flat-sawn lumber is dimensionally more stable than quarter-sawn lumber. True or False?
False
Which of the following terms means the same as quarter-sawn?
Radially sawn
The weight of a piece of lumber is 2 lb. The weight of the same piece after it is fully dried is 1.8 lb. What was the original moisture content in the wood?
11%
Fungal decay in wood occurs when the moisture content in wood is
greater than or equal to 20%
The moisture content in a piece of lumber has been measured to be 15%. According to the wood industry, this piece of lumber will be classified as
dry
From the user's viewpoint, the difference between MC 15 and KD 15 is generally ignored. True or False?
True
The term 5-DRY implies that the lumber has been
surfaced when its moisture content was ≤19%
The term S2S implies that the lumber has been
surfaced on two sides
A 10-ft-long stud was installed in position when the wood's moisture content was 19%. During a long dry spell, the wood's moisture content became 8%. The new stud length will be
approximately the same was he initial stud length of 10 ft.
A piece of lumber has been specified as 2 in. x 4 in. in cross section. This refers to its
actual cross-sectional dimensions
The actual dimensions of 4 x 8 lumber are
3-1/2 in. x 7-1/4 in.
The actual dimensions of 2 x 12 lumber are
a. 1-1/2" x 11"
b. 1-1/2" x 11-1/2"
c. 1-1/2" x 11-3/4"
d. 1-3/4" x 11-3/4"
e. none of the above
none of the above
In calculating the board foot measure, we must use the actual dimensions of lumber, not its nominal dimensions. True or False?
False
A retailer of building materials purchased 1,000 pieces of 2 x 12 lumber, each 10 ft long. How many board feet did the retailer purchase?
20,000 bd ft
Which of the following lumber cross sections is that of a dimension lumber?
4 x 8
Which of the following is not a lumber grade?
No. 4
The basis for distinguishing lumber as board, dimension lumber, and timber is the
cross-sectional dimensions of lumber
A lumber grade stamp must include information on the cross-sectional dimensions of lumber. True or False?
False
A lumber grade stamp must include the mill identification number. True or False?
True
Which of the following grades will not apply to a 2 x 8 lumber?
Construction
Which of the following grades can only be used as blocking?
Utility
Lumber used for structural framing members, such as studs, floor joists, and rafters, is graded using
only visual inspection
Preservative-treated lumber is effective
against both fungi and termites
A termite shield is generally made of
galvanized sheet steel
Wood certified by the Forest Stewardship Council (FSC) is available
a. only in the United States
b. in the United States and Canada
c. in the United States, Canada, and Mexico
d. in (c) and several other countries
in (c) and several other countries
The most common use of glulam members is in
long-span beams
Unprotected glulam members with a large cross section are considered to provide a fire resistance rating of up to
1 h
A glulam member
Is generally stronger and stiffer than sawn lumber of the same dimensions
Unbalanced beams can be used only as single-span beams. True or False?
True
Balanced glulam beams are mandated for
a. continuous beams
b. single-span beams
c. beams with an overhang
d. (a) and (c)
e. (b) and (c)
(a) and (c)
continuous beams and beams with an overhang
Laminated veneer lumber (LVL) is
a. produced by gluing together wood veneers that are approximately 1/8 in. thick
b. generally used as floor joists and beams
c. glued with all veneers running in the same direction
d. stronger along the grain and weaker across the grain
e. all of the above
all of the above
Wood I-joists are made of LVL or solid sawn lumber flanges and webs. True or False?
False
Compared to sawn lumber joists, wood I-joists are
dimensionally more stable
Characteristics of a truss include
a. greater spanning capability than a sawn lumber beam having the same amount of material
b. individual members joined together to form an array of interconnected rectangular frames
c. individual members joined together to form an array of interconnected triangular frames
d. (a) and (b)
e. (a) and (c)
(a) and (c)
greater spanning capability than a sawn lumber beam having the same amount of material
and
individual members joined together to form an array of interconnected triangular frames
Nail plates, used to join members of a truss, are generally used only on one face of the truss. True or False?
False
Wood trusses are generally spaced at
24 in. on center
Plywood panels are made by gluing under heat and pressure layers of
wood veneers so that the wood grains in adjacent layers are perpendicular to each other
Cross-graining makes a plywood panel
a. dimensionally more stable
b. less likely to split than solid sawn lumber
c. stronger in the direction of face veneer grains
d. all of the above
e. (a) and (c)
all of the above
-Dimensionally more stable
-Less likely to split than solid sawn lumber
-Stronger in the direction of face veneer grains
The most commonly used plywood panel (nominal size is 4 ft. x 8 ft. True or False
True
Plywood panels should be placed with their longer dimension
perpendicular to rafters or joists
With respect to veneer quality, softwood plywood is graded in grades
A to D
An OSB panel generally has greater shear strength than a plywood panel of the same size and thickness. True or False
True
Grade stamps on engineered wood panels specify
a. intended use and exposure
b. allowable spans
c. mill number
d. thickness
e. all of the above
all of the above
-intended use and exposure
-allowable spans
-mill number
-thickness
Exterior siding panels may be made of OSB or plywood. True or False?
False
Several different types of nails are used in wood frame construction. They are typically distinguished from each other by the
nail head and nail shank
The nails most commonly used in wood frame construction are
6d, 8d, 10d, and 16d
Nails work best when they are subjected to
shear
Which of the following nailed connections is the strongest?
Face nailing
Nail popping is primarily a problem in floor sheathing and is caused by the shrinkage of floor sheathing. True or False?
False
Joist hangers are steel connectors
that connect floor joists with a supporting beam
The adhesives used in making engineered wood products contain
formaldehyde
Gaseous emissions produced by engineered wood products decrease over time. True or False?
True
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