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Diagnosis & Psychopathology EPPP test questions

Terms in this set (133)

Reactive Attachment Disorder, Inhibited Type involves

A. indiscriminate attachments.
B. hypervigilance.
C. over-attachment to a primary caretaker and fear of others.
D. symptoms of Posttraumatic Stress Disorder in children.
Correct Answer is: B

Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability (e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures). In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs) must be present before the diagnosis can be made.
Women diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder likely have similar symptoms to men diagnosed with _________________.

A. Antisocial Personality Disorder
B. Avoidant Personality Disorder
C. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
D. Histrionic Personality Disorder
Correct Answer is: A

Borderline Personality Disorder has several symptoms in common with Antisocial Personality Disorder (i.e., impulsivity); however many of the behaviors are gender-related. Consequently, women are more likely to receive a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder and men a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder.
Approximately what percent of women experience full-blown postpartum (clinical) depression?

A. 1 to 5%.
B. 10 to 20%.
C. 20 to 30%.
D. 30 to 40%.
Correct Answer is: B

The majority of women experience some depression following childbirth but, for most, these symptoms are mild. For about 10 to 20% of women, symptoms are sufficiently severe to qualify for a diagnosis of Major Depression.
Chronic alcoholism may cause cognitive impairments. Specifically, following prolonged, heavy drinking, a person is most likely to
Select one:

A. greater deficits in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills.
B. greater deficits in verbal skills than in visuospatial skills.
C. a comparable pattern of deficits in visuospatial and verbal skills.
D. deficits in either visuospatial or verbal skills, depending on whether the person is left- or right-brain dominant.
Correct Answer is: A

Studies looking at cognitive impairment due to prolonged, heavy alcohol use have found that it is more likely to involve problems in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills.
Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder in children would be most likely to focus on

A. acting as a role-model of gender appropriate behavior for the child.
B. helping the person "come out" as a transgendered individual.
C. peer relationships and self-esteem.
D. working with a medical professional who can prescribe medications to alter hormonal imbalances.
Correct Answer is: C

Treatment of Gender Identity Disorder in children is moderately controversial, with some arguing that any attempt to alter a child's gender identity is sexist, and others stating that it represents a sneaky attempt to prevent the child from growing up to be homosexual. Nonetheless, a number of treatment models have been applied, even though scientific evidence of their success is limited. Typical interventions focus on social skills, self-esteem, and increasing the child's comfort with his or her biological gender. They may include positive reinforcement for gender-appropriate behavior, setting limits on cross-gender behavior, social skills training, and parental training in self-esteem enhancement.
During a grand mal seizure, the clonic phase involves

A. minor abrupt movements of the eyelids, facial muscles, and arms.
B. violent rhythmic contractions of the extremities.
C. extension of the extremities.
D. nonrhythmic jerks of the head, limbs, and trunk.
Correct Answer is: B

Grand mal seizures involve a tonic phase (extension of the limbs), which is then followed by a clonic phase (violent rhythmic contractions)
A psychologist asks a series of questions to determine whether the client has been experiencing vegetative symptoms when assessing a client who reports feeling depressed. Which of the following are vegetative symptoms?

A. psychomotor retardation, appetite changes, social withdrawal
B. sleep difficulties, appetite changes, psychomotor retardation
C. social withdrawal, loss of concentration, reduced energy level
D. confusion, psychomotor agitation, sleep difficulties
Correct Answer is: B

Many clients may report conditions that suggest vegetative symptoms associated with a mental disorder. The classic, or "vegetative," signs of depression include persistent problems with appetite, weight loss or gain, sleep difficulties, reduced energy level, and changes in sexual desire or function. These symptoms are mostly objective, as opposed to subjective and can serve as useful data for diagnostic screening purposes as vegetative symptoms sometimes suggest a serious mental disorder. In particular, it is useful to identify whether any of these symptoms reflects a change from the client's previous functioning.
If the normal clinical dose of methylphenidate is given to a child who does not have ADHD, you would expect the child to:

A. exhibit severe manic-like symptoms.
B. exhibit an increased attention span.
C. exhibit drowsiness and fatigue.
D. show no change in behavior.
Correct Answer is: B

Methylphenidate (Ritalin), a central nervous system stimulant, was originally described as having a paradoxical effect only for children and adolescents with ADHD. However, subsequent research found similar effects in normal children and adults.
Which of the following is true about children with Learning Disorders?

A. Co-existing disorders are no more common in these children then among members of the general population.
B. Although children with Learning Disorders are more likely to have co-existing disorders, as adults, they do not differ from members of the general population in terms of psychopathology.
C. Children with Learning Disorders have higher rates of some disorders and, as adults, continue to exhibit more problems than members of the general population.
D. Children with Learning Disorders are less likely to have other mental disorders than members of the general population.
Correct Answer is: C

It makes sense that children who have serious learning problems would continue to have difficulties as adults.
Also, the studies have clearly found that children with Learning Disorders are at higher risk for certain other disorders in childhood including ADHD, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Conduct Disorder, and Major Depression.
Research on gender differences in anxiety has most often found that:

A. females have more general anxiety than males
B. males have more general anxiety than females
C. females have more social and general anxiety than males
D. males have more social and general anxiety than females
Correct Answer is: A

The results of a meta-analysis on gender differences concluded that females (across all age groups) have a higher level of general anxiety than males. Males scored very slightly higher than females in level of social anxiety, although this difference was not significant
Dementia and depression both involve cognitive deficits. However, in comparison to dementia, depression:

A. is more likely to involve impaired free recall while recognition memory is left relatively intact.
B. is more likely to involve impaired declarative memory while procedural memory is left relatively intact.
C. is more likely to involve impaired nonverbal memory than verbal memory.
D. is more likely to cause deficits on abstract memory tasks than on concrete memory tasks.
Correct Answer is: A

It's sometimes hard to distinguish between depression and dementia because they share several symptoms, especially cognitive deficits. However, the pattern of cognitive deficits differs. For example, depression is likely to impair free recall only, while dementia affects both free recall and recognition.
Which of the following smoking cessation treatments is least effective for long-term abstinence?

A. hypnosis
B. acupuncture Incorrect
C. aversive techniques
D. nicotine replacement
Correct Answer is: D

Nicotine replacement interventions (e.g., nicotine gum, nicotine patch) have not been found to be very effective over the long-term unless they are combined with other treatment interventions. In a meta-analysis based on over 600 smoking cessation studies, the mean quit rate (based on short-term and long-term rates) for hypnosis = .36; acupuncture = .30; aversive techniques = .27; nicotine gum = .16; and control group = .06.
The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy

A. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
B. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
C. has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn't improve long-term abstinence.
D. has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.
Correct Answer is: B

This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more).
Michael has a high-pressure legal career that involves frequent altercations with opposing counsel and ongoing stress. He commonly reacts to the stress of anger by clenching his teeth and generally tensing up. His therapist suggests biofeedback and would most likely recommend which type of biofeedback?

A. EDR
B. EEG
C. EMG
D. HRV
Correct Answer is: C

Biofeedback is the process of identifying physiological variables, or responses, for the purpose of helping an individual develop greater sensory awareness and is achieved by using electronic instrumentation to monitor responses then providing the information to the individual to improve their physiological control of responding.
________________ biofeedback, measures impulses in the muscles and indicates the degree of relaxation or contraction/tension. It is commonly used for conditions such as stress, tension headaches, chronic pain, muscle stiffness, incontinence, urinary urgency and frequency, and when muscles are healing.
Electromyogram (EMG)
______________ biofeedback, also referred to as galvinic skin response training (GSR), measures skin surface changes, giving feedback on the relation between emotional state and the activity of the sympathetic system via sweat gland activity, and is utilized for stress and hyperhidrosis (excessive sweating).
Electrodermal response (EDR)
__________________ or neurofeedback provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes.
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
___________________, sometimes referred to as electrocardiogram (ECG), biofeedback monitors heart rate and cardiac reactivity from sensors placed on a person's fingers or wrist. It is useful for managing stress, high blood pressure, anxiety, and heartbeat irregularities.
Heart rate variability (HRV)
involves skin temperature and blood flow control
thermal or skin temperature (ST) biofeedback
involves control of breathing type and frequency
Respiratory Feedback (RFB)
involves the synchronous control of heart rate and respiration, in which there is a small rise in heart rate during inhalation and a corresponding decrease during exhalation.
Respiratory Sinus Arrhythmia (RSA)
Which of the following is not an iatrogenic stressor for elderly clients?

A. loss of support and companionship
B. trouble reading directions on medicine labels
C. illness due to medication being over prescribed
D. drug interactions from multiple prescriptions from more than one physician
Correct Answer is: A

Loss of support and companionship is a stressor, but not an iatrogenic stressor. An iatrogenic condition is one that is produced by the treatment. Some conditions are obviously iatrogenic in nature, such as a practitioner who inadvertently uses a medical remedy to which the patient is allergic or administers an erroneous medication dose. Others forms of iatrogenesis are less obvious, like symptoms arising in response to therapists' suggestions, e.g., recovered memory syndrome, Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) or unproven medical/psychological treatments.
Research on Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) in the treatment of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder has suggested that

A. the eye movement phase of treatment is not necessary for its success.
B. the eye movement phase of treatment is crucial for its success.
C. the desensitization phase of therapy is not necessary for its success.
D. it is an ineffective treatment.
Correct Answer is: A

Meta-analyses of studies evaluating the EMDR's effectiveness in treating PTSD have suggested that, while EMDR is an effective form of treatment, it is no more effective than other modalities that involve imaginal exposure to the trauma without eye movements. Thus, although it has been noted that studies with larger samples are needed for clarification, the general research consensus is that the eye movement phase of treatment does not contribute to the efficacy of EMDR.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with ADHD in adulthood?

A. preference for repetitive, routine work tasks
B. excessive professional perfectionism
C. frequent professional and personal relationship changes
D. avoidance of intimate relationships
Correct Answer is: C

ADHD in adulthood involves impaired social and occupational functioning associated with chief symptoms of inattention, distractability, restlessness and impulsivity. Given restlessness, an individual with ADHD is less inclined to prefer routine, repetitive tasks and, due to impulsivity and attention deficits, are less likely to be occupationally perfectionistic. Studies have found adults with ADHD have a greater difficulty in maintaining personal and professional relationships (correct response) than controls however, while adults with ADHD often have trouble maintaining relationships, they do not avoid them. Compared to adults without ADHD, adults with ADHD tend to participate in more impulsive or risky sexual behaviors and have more sexual partners.
What percentage of children diagnosed with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder continue to exhibit signs of the disorder in adulthood?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50
Correct Answer is: D

Research studies have found that between 30% and 70% of children with ADHD continue to exhibit signs of the disorder throughout their lives.
All of the following are true regarding women and depression, except

A. marriage reduces the risk of depression to a greater extent for men than it does for women.
B. the more children a woman has, the more likely it is that she'll be depressed.
C. women who have multiple roles (e.g., a job, children, a marriage) are more vulnerable to depression than women who don't.
D. gender differences in coping style apparently are a reason why women are at a greater risk for depression than men.
Correct Answer is: C

This choice is not true; women who have multiple roles appear to be at lower risk for depression. This may be because they have many different support sources and outlets for their competence -- i.e., if their life is not going well in one area, they can compensate with success in other areas. The other choices, according to the APA Task Force Report on Women and Depression, are true.
A psychologist refers a client with bulimia nervosa to a physician for a medical evaluation. The physician discovers that the client has a serious medical complication associated with binging and purging, involving a low level of serum potassium. The client is at risk for kidney failure and cardiac arrest. This condition is called:

A. hypoglycemia
B. hypokalemia
C. hyperorexia
D. hypalgesia
Correct Answer is: B

Certain behaviors associated with bulimia, specifically frequent vomiting and laxative use, can lead to serious medical complications, including electrolyte disturbances. Potassium is an electrolyte that is important to the function of the nerve and muscle cells, including the heart. Hypokalemia is the name given to the condition that involves low levels of serum potassium.

Hypoglycemia is characterized by less than normal amounts of glucose in the blood. Hyperorexia refers to excessive appetite and hypalgesia involves a relative insensitivity to pain.
Although Jasper has worked for the same company for nearly 15 years, he has no friends at work and never eats lunch or takes breaks with his coworkers. Jasper hasn't been to a party for eight years. He says he'd like to go to parties but he feels no one will want to talk with him and that people will make fun of him. He also says that he often feels lonely. The best diagnosis is

A. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
B. Paranoid Personality Disorder.
C. Avoidant Personality Disorder.
D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
Correct Answer is: C

The combination of social avoidance, fear of humiliation, and loneliness are characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.
Research on electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT) suggests that:

A. memory deficits caused by ECT are cumulative and nearly always irreversible.
B. memory deficits occur only when ECT is delivered bilaterally.
C. memory deficits are largely reversible although some problems with autobiographical memory may persist for months.
D. memory deficits are largely reversible although problems with semantic memory may persist for months.
Correct Answer is: C

Memory deficits are the primary negative side effect associated with ECT. Although verbal memory deficits are reduced when ECT is delivered to the right hemisphere only, it still causes nonverbal memory problems. Further, while most memory problems are reversible, the person may continue to complain about loss of memory for personal (autobiographical) information for many months.
Factitious Disorder treatment typically involves symptom management rather than curing the disorder. Which of the following is currently considered to be the most effective treatment?

A. confrontational therapy in an inpatient setting
B. individual and group therapy in an inpatient treatment
C. supportive psychotherapy in an outpatient setting
D. group or family therapy in an outpatient setting
Correct Answer is: C

Studies indicate no specific treatment has been identified as consistently effective for Factitious Disorder; however, many agree that establishing a good therapeutic relationship and providing supportive therapy and consistency of care is the best way to manage its symptoms. Also, inpatient treatment is often contraindicated because of the underlying need of individuals with Factitious Disorder "to adopt the sick role."
Which of the following factors is associated with the worst prognosis for Schizophrenia?

A. male, positive symptoms, and late onset
B. male, negative symptoms, and early onset
C. female, negative symptoms, and early onset
D. female, positive symptoms, and late onset
Correct Answer is: B

A number of factors have been associated with a better prognosis in Schizophrenia. These include being female, a later age of onset, and positive symptoms (which are more responsive to medications), as well as good premorbid adjustment, acute onset, precipitating events, treatment with antipsychotic medication soon after onset of illness, consistent medication compliance, and no family history of Schizophrenia.
Orientation is most frequently measured by which of the following scales?

A. Global Orientation and Amnesia Test
B. Gross Orientation and Awareness Test
C. Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test
D. Gollingberg Orientation and Awareness Test
Correct Answer is: C

The Galveston Orientation and Amnesia Test (GOAT), which assesses temporal orientation primarily, was developed to serially evaluate cognition during the subacute stage of recovery from closed head injury. The scale measures orientation to person, place, and time, and memory for events preceding and following the injury.
Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating Tourette's Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side effects including:

A. Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria.
B. dry mouth, headache, and hypotension.
C. anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting.
D. vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.
Correct Answer is: B

Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you'd want to look for less serious side effects, which narrows it down to two responses ("dry mouth, headache, and hypotension" and "vomiting, dizziness, and irritability"). In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may also cause sedation and dizziness.
Depression is often accompanied by memory deficits and other cognitive problems. Memory deficits most often involve:

A. recall memory.
B. recognition memory.
C. implicit memory.
D. recall and recognition memory but not implicit memory.
Correct Answer is: A

Memory impairment is one of the characteristics that is useful for distinguishing depression (pseudodementia) from dementia. In depression, recall memory is affected but recognition memory is not; in dementia, recall and recognition memory are both impaired.
According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be

A. family history of alcoholism.
B. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning.
C. interpersonal pressure and identifications.
D. age and SES.
Correct Answer is: A

If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you'd find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as "the best predictor of (some disorder)" is "family history of that disorder." You won't be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.
Which of the following best describes the results of studies investigating the role of psychosocial stressors in the course of Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent?

A. psychosocial stressors typically play a more significant role in triggering the first or second episodes than subsequent episodes.
B. psychosocial stressors typically play a more significant role in triggering episodes late in the course of the disorder than the first two episodes.
C. psychosocial stressors play a similar role in triggering episodes early and late in the course of the disorder.
D. psychosocial stressors do not play a role in the disorder since, by definition, Major Depressive Disorder is not triggered by external events.
Correct Answer is: A

Major Depressive Disorder, Recurrent involves two or more Major Depressive Episodes, which are characterized by five or more specific symptoms of depression present during the same two week period and representing a change from the previous level of functioning. Individuals with this disorder very commonly have more than two Major Depressive Episodes in the course of their lifetimes, and studies suggest that psychosocial stressors are more likely to trigger an episode early in the course of the disorder than they are later on.
The most serious potential medical side effect of Bulimia Nervosa is

A. dehydration.
B. electrolyte imbalance.
C. fatigue.
D. malnutrition.
Correct Answer is: B

Electrolytes are salts that conduct electricity; they are found in the body fluid, tissue, and blood. Examples are chloride, calcium, magnesium, sodium, and potassium. Electrolyte imbalance can be caused by the frequent induced vomiting and overuse of laxatives that occur in Bulimia Nervosa. The most frequently found electrolyte disturbance in Bulimia is hypokalemia, a reduced level of potassium in the blood. Electrolyte imbalances can cause cardiac irregularities and cardiac arrest, potentially leading to death. Dehydration and fatigue are also potential side effects of Bulimia, but their potential consequences are not as serious as those of electrolyte imbalance.
A PET scan of the brain of a patient diagnosed as schizophrenic would be most useful for:

A. obtaining a record of electrical activity in the cerebral cortex.
B. assessing blood flow in the frontal lobes.
C. detecting a tumor or other structural abnormality in the brainstem.
D. distinguishing between schizophrenic subtypes.
Correct Answer is: B

Positron Emission Tomography (PET) is a functional (versus structural) brain imaging technique that provides information about the metabolic and chemical activities of the brain such as cerebral blood flow.
General symptoms that may accompany the third stage of Alzheimer's Dementia include

A. apathy and emotional blunting.
B. depression and anomia.
C. irritability and anger.
D. paranoia and labile mood.
Correct Answer is: A

These symptoms are characteristic of the third stage of Alzheimer's Dementia according to many authors. The symptoms vary considerably from person to person and may include personality, behavioral, and cognitive changes. The symptoms of depression and anomia and irritability and anger are often seen during the first stage. Paranoia and labile mood are characteristic of the second.
Possible causes of a Mood Disorder caused by a known organic factor such as a medical condition or substance use include:
Select one:
A. PCP use, cataracts, and ulcer
B. viral illness, hallucinogen use, and carcinoma of the pancreas
C. barbiturate use, hypothyroidism, and broken bones
D. hyperthyroidism, cerebral palsy, and arthritis
Correct Answer is: B
The DSM identifies the following disorders as possible causes of organically-based mood symptoms: substances such as hallucinogens and PCP; endocrine disorders, such as hypo- or hyperthyroidism; carcinoma of the pancreas; viral illness; and structural disease of the brain, such as that caused by a stroke.
The findings of the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) research project regarding the relative effectiveness of cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressant medication in the treatment of depression indicate that
Select one:
A. both treatments are about equally effective.
B. cognitive/behavioral therapy is more effective in the short-term, while medication is more effective in the long-term.
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy has an immediate effect, while medication has a delayed effect.
D. cognitive-behavioral therapy is more effective.
Correct Answer is: A
The findings of the NIMH research project were that, on an overall level, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and antidepressant medication are about equally effective in the treatment of depression. There was some evidence that the treatments differed in the types of depression for which they are most effective. Specifically, some evidence suggested that CBT is more effective for milder forms of depression, while medication is more effective for relatively severe forms. But in terms of overall effectiveness, both treatments were found to be about equal.
After reviewing the research on the effectiveness of vocational rehabilitation for patients with Schizophrenia, one could conclude that the single best predictor of future employment is:
Select one:
A. SES
B. level of education
C. symptom severity
D. previous job history
Correct Answer is: D
The research regarding the effectiveness of vocational rehabilitation programs for those with Schizophrenia and other severe mental illness is mixed; however, the most consistent finding is that past employment history is the best predictor of future employment.
A child diagnosed with Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder is most likely to also be diagnosed with:
Select one:
A. Tourette's Disorder
B. Conduct Disorder
C. Enuresis
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
Correct Answer is: B
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is highly comorbid with Conduct Disorder. Between 30% and 50% of children with ADHD also meet the criteria for Conduct Disorder, with the highest comorbidity rates among the two subtypes marked by hyperactivity-impulsivity (Hyperactive-Impulsive and Combined Types). The percentage of patients with Conduct Disorder who also have ADHD is nearly 70%
If you incorrectly selected Tourette's Disorder, you may have been thinking of the reverse relationship. That is, among those with Tourette's Disorder the comorbidity of ADHD is at least 50%; however, most patients with ADHD do not have Tourette's Disorder.
Some studies indicate that the rate of ADHD symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity among identical twins with ADHD to be
Select one:
A. 0.2
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.8
Correct Answer is: D
In terms of the role of genetics, some studies indicate higher rates of ADHD among relatives of afflicted individuals. For example, Biederman (1995) found that when a parent had childhood-onset ADHD, the risk for this diagnosis among his or her offspring was 57%. Additionally, a review of twin studies (Stevens, 1994) indicated that the average heritability is .80 for hyperactivity and impulsivity.
Which of the following conclusions about the effectiveness of treatments for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) is best supported by empirical research?
Select one:
A. stimulant medication and behavior therapy are equal in effectiveness.
B. stimulant medication alone is just as effective as the combination of it with behavior therapy.
C. the combination stimulant medication and behavior therapy is more effective than either treatment used alone.
D. behavior therapy alone is just as effective as the combination of it with stimulant medication.
Correct Answer is: C
The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) conducted a comprehensive study of four modalities of treatment for ADHD: 1) stimulant medication alone; (2) behavioral treatment alone; (3) a combination of medication and behavioral treatment; or (4) routine community care. The study found that the combination treatment and the medication-management treatment were superior to intensive behavioral treatment and routine community treatment.

stimulant medication alone is just as effective as the combination of it with behavior therapy.
However, contrary to this choice, the researchers did not conclude that medication alone was equal in effectiveness to the combination treatment. The latter allowed patients to be administered lower doses of medication, worked better than medication alone in improving some areas of functioning, and resulted in greater family satisfaction. Therefore, they concluded that stimulant medication combined with behavior therapy is the most effective modality.
A psychologist working with a substance-addicted client bases his approach to treatment on Marlatt and Gordon's relapse prevention model. The counselor is likely to incorporate all of the following into his treatment approach except
Select one:
A. identification of situations and cognitions that trigger the urge to use.
B. referral to an inpatient clinic immediately if a client uses the substance.
C. focus on minimizing the abstinence violation effect.
D. helping the client to develop "positive addictions."
Correct Answer is: B
Marlatt and Gordon's relapse prevention (RP) model for the treatment of substance addiction is a cognitive-behavioral approach that focuses on identifying and reducing or eliminating factors that can precipitate relapse. Treatment begins with assessment of the environmental and emotional factors that increase the risk of relapse, such as time spent with friends who still use, the client's beliefs about the benefits of using, and any unrealistic expectations he has about treatment and abstinence. Based on this assessment, the counselor then works with the client to develop a set of applicable cognitive and behavioral interventions, including some that apply to the immediate situation (e.g., self-monitoring of behavior and cognition to reduce exposure to high risk situations) and some global lifestyle changes, such as encouraging the development of alternative, positive addictions, such as exercise or meditation. A central component of the RP model is to reduce what Marlatt and Gordon refer to as the abstinence violation effect (AVE). This occurs when a client "slips" or "lapses" by using the substance again, and attributes the slip to internal, stable and global causes (e.g., "I'm hopeless" or "I'll always be an addict"). The AVE causes reduced feelings of self-efficacy and esteem and thereby often increases cravings to use, leading to a full-blown relapse. The RP model seeks to reduce this effect by, for example, directing the client's attention to situational factors that could have triggered the slip and modifying unrealistic expectations about the course of addiction.
referral to an inpatient clinic immediately if a client uses the substance.
Contrary to this choice, immediate referral to an inpatient clinic following any use of the substance would reinforce the notion that a slip constitutes a full-blown relapse and that the client has failed in his efforts. Therefore, it would not likely be part of treatment based on the RP model.
Which of the following disorders is most likely to respond to pharmacotherapy alone?
Select one:
A. Bipolar I Disorder.
B. Major Depressive Disorder
C. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
D. Anorexia Nervosa.
Correct Answer is: A
Pharmacotherapy (specifically, Lithium therapy in most cases) is the treatment of choice for manic-depressive illnesses such as Bipolar I Disorder. Pharmacotherapy may be supplemented with adjunctive psychotherapy (e.g., to provide support and coping skills). However, psychotherapy is not considered that useful in treating the core symptoms of Bipolar I Disorder. By contrast, although the disorders in the other choices are commonly treated with medication, they also respond to psychotherapy.
An individual with social or specific phobia is most likely to have which type of panic attack?
Select one:
A. situationally bound
B. situationally predisposed
C. unexpected
D. uncued
Correct Answer is: A
A panic attack is a sudden, discrete period of intense apprehension, terror, or fear, often accompanied by an urge to escape or a sense of doom. It consists of four or more symptoms such as: shortness of breath, dizziness, heart palpitations or accelerated heart rate, sweating, trembling, depersonalization, sense of choking, nausea, chest pain, numbness, chill or hot flashes, a fear of dying or going crazy. The symptoms develop abruptly, usually peak within 10 minutes, and may mimic a heart attack or hyperthyroidism. Panic attacks may occur in several of the anxiety disorders. Types of panic attacks include: Unexpected (uncued) panic attacks, which are not associated with any trigger (i.e., they occur "out of the blue" ). The diagnoses panic disorder with agoraphobia and panic disorder without agoraphobia must include two or more unexpected panic attacks, and people with panic disorder also may experience the other types of panic attacks. Situationally bound (cued) panic attacks occur almost invariably on exposure to, or in anticipation of, a situational cue or trigger and are most characteristic of social and specific phobias. Situationally predisposed panic attacks are more likely to occur on exposure to a situational cue or trigger but are not invariably associated with the cue or trigger and do not necessarily occur immediately after the person has been exposed to the cue or trigger. For example, a person may have panic attacks associated with shopping mall environments; however, the person does not have an attack every time he or she goes to a shopping mall and/or does not necessarily have the attack immediately upon entering the mall (the attack may occur after he or she has been shopping for a while). These attacks are most common in panic disorder, but can also occur in social phobia or specific phobia.
Individuals with narcolepsy and individuals with hypersomnia have which of the following in common?
Select one:
A. sleep paralysis
B. cataplexy
C. daytime sleep attacks
D. hypnagogic hallucinations
Correct Answer is: C
Narcolepsy is a condition in which people are overcome with irresistible sleepiness and sleep attacks of brief duration that occur unpredictably. Other distinguishing features of the condition is cataplexy, a sudden loss of partial or complete muscle tone during excitement or arousal, sleep paralysis, and hypnagogic hallucinations. Hypersomnia may be either idiopathic, secondary, or periodic. Like Narcolepsy, individuals with hypersomnia experience daytime sleepiness and sleep attacks, however the attacks last longer and are more resistible than in narcolepsy and there are no auxiliary symptoms. Typically, nocturnal sleep is disrupted in narcolepsy, is prolonged in idiopathic hypersomnia and variable in secondary hypersomnia. Although the exact causes of narcolepsy and idiopathic hypersomnia are unknown, there is evidence for genetic predisposition. Causative factors in secondary hypersomnia include: neurologic, (e.g., brain tumors, head injuries, and cerebrovascular insufficiency); general medical, such as metabolic disorders, various intoxications, and conditions leading to brain hypoxia; and psychiatric, most notably depression.
All of the following are factors that typically distinguish Dissociative Amnesia from amnesia due to known physical causes, except
Select one:
A. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is primarily for autobiographical information.
B. in Dissociative Amnesia, cognitive abilities are usually preserved.
C. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss can be reversed.
D. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an emotional trauma.
Correct Answer is: D
In Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is usually for information acquired after the emotional trauma that brings on the symptoms. There is typically a gap or a series of gaps in recall for the individual's life history. By contrast, in some forms of Amnestic Disorder (e.g., in Amnestic Disorder Due to a Brain Injury), memory loss is typically for information in a circumscribed period of time immediately before the injury occurs. All of the other choices describe features that typically distinguish between Dissociative Amnesia and amnesia due to known physical causes.
A woman with Schizophrenia is most likely to have a _________ with Schizophrenia.
Select one:
A. mother
B. father
C. monozygotic sister
D. dizygotic brother
Correct Answer is: C
Biological relatives of individuals with Schizophrenia have an increased risk of developing the disorder. The more similar their genes are, the greater the risk. Monozygotic (identical) twins have the same genes and studies have shown that they have a 46% concordance rate for Schizophrenia. Dizygotic (fraternal) twins only have a 17% concordance rate. The likelihood of one of the parents or a non-twin sibling having or developing Schizophrenia is about 10%.
Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia?
Select one:
A. loss of abstract thinking functions
B. mild memory loss for recent events
C. seizures
D. apathy
Correct Answer is: B
AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.
Delirium may occur due to intoxication with all of the following substances except
Select one:
A. cocaine.
B. cannabis.
C. caffeine.
D. LSD.
Correct Answer is: C
Hallucinogens (e.g., LSD), cocaine, and cannabis -- as well as alcohol, amphetamines, inhalants, opioids, PCP, and sedatives -- may produce Intoxication Delirium. Caffeine, however, does not cause delirium.
Based on the factors associated with successful smoking cessation, which of the following is most likely to relapse?
Select one:
A. a single, 28 year old man who began smoking in high school
B. a co-habitating, 33 year old woman who began smoking in graduate school
C. a divorced, 44 year old man who started during his last year of college
D. a married, 50 year old woman who started smoking during her medical residency
Correct Answer is: A
In general, the greater the level of dependence on nicotine, the harder it is to stop smoking and the amount of smoking is typically used in order to determine dependence. In this question, however, dependence is not a factor of consideration. Research indicates there are other characteristics linked to successful smoking cessation. They include: being age 35 or older, married or living with a partner, later age when started smoking and being male. Considering these factors, a young single male who started smoking at an early age is least likely to successfully quit and most likely to relapse to smoking.
The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the
Select one:
A. reticular activating system.
B. inferior colliculus.
C. caudate nucleus.
D. locus coeruleus.
Correct Answer is: C
The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus.
The reticular activating system, which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus, controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder ( incorrect options).
Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
Select one:
A. children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B. children do not think catastrophically.
C. children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D. children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.
Correct Answer is: C
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part, argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic interpretations (e.g., I'm going crazy) of bodily symptoms.
Which of the following aspects of the Type A behavior pattern, is, according to research, most strongly connected to increased risk for coronary heart disease?
Select one:
A. job involvement
B. anger and hostility
C. need for achievement
D. impatience
Correct Answer is: B
Friedman and Rosenman (1974) described the Type A personality as someone who is competitive, achievement oriented, highly involved in his work, active, aggressive, and urgent about time and meeting deadlines. Originally, it was hypothesized that the Type A behavior pattern (TABP) increases the risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). However, recent research suggests that some but not all aspects of the TABP increase the risk of CHD. Specifically, hostility, aggression, and anger have been found to be the primary risk factors.
Of the following, which risk factor for childhood depression is the most prominent?
Select one:
A. substance use in parents.
B. comorbid disorder such as ADHD.
C. a parent with a depressive disorder.
D. low socioeconomic status
Correct Answer is: C
Most experts agree that a family history of depression increases the risk of childhood depression more than any other one factor. By some estimates, for instance, maternal depression increases the risk of childhood depression by a factor of 3 to 5. The presence of depression in a parent can lead to depression in multiple ways, such as genetics, marital discord, and poor parenting skills. Other risk factors for childhood depression include substance abusing parents, a divorce, parental unemployment, frequent moves, and illness.
A family with an elderly parent who is in the early stages of Alzheimer's Dementia presents for a initial consultation. The best intervention on the part of a psychologist would be to
Select one:
A. work with the elderly patient on memory exercises.
B. refer the family to a support group.
C. begin family therapy to explore how the patient's diagnosis has affected family subsystems.
D. work with the identified patient in individual therapy.
Correct Answer is: B
Psychological treatment of Alzheimer's focuses primarily on optimizing the patient's immediate environment and providing support for the patient and his or her family. Both these goals can be met at least to some extent through a referral to a support group.
Research comparing anxiety over the lifespan indicates:
Select one:
A. younger adults are more likely to benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy, whereas older adults are more likely to benefit from pharmacotherapy.
B. younger adults are more likely to be underdiagnosed and older adults more likely to be misdiagnosed as having an anxiety disorder.
C. younger adults are less likely to have comorbid symptoms of depression than older adults.
D. younger and older adults are equally likely to perceive symptoms as result of physical health problems.
Correct Answer is: C
Anxiety is the most common psychiatric disorder in older adults, with generalized anxiety disorder being the most prevalent anxiety disorder according to recent findings. Research indicates comorbid symptoms of depression frequently occur in all adults with anxiety, however occurs more often in older adults.
younger adults are more likely to benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy, whereas older adults are more likely to benefit from pharmacotherapy.
Older and younger adults with anxiety have been found to benefit about equally from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) and pharmacotherapy.
younger adults are more likely to be underdiagnosed and older adults more likely to be misdiagnosed as having an anxiety disorder.
Underdiagnosis is more common among older adults, as well as undertreatment of anxiety disorders compared to younger adults.
younger and older adults are equally likely to perceive symptoms as result of physical health problems.
Findings show older adults are more likely than younger adults to attribute anxiety symptoms to physical health problems and therefore more likely to see a medical professional instead of a mental health professional for help.
Compared to the other types of Specific Phobias, the Blood-Injection-Injury Type of Specific Phobia is characterized by:
Select one:
A. dry skin instead of sweaty skin
B. onset during childhood instead of adulthood
C. low blood pressure instead of high blood pressure
D. a tendency to know that the fear is irrational
Correct Answer is: C
In most of the Specific Phobias there is an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. However, in the Blood-Injection-Injury Type there is an initial brief acceleration in heart rate followed by a deceleration and a drop in blood pressure. This often results in vasovagal fainting. Due to this unique physiological response to the feared stimulus, the recommended treatment involves tensing muscles, rather than relaxing them, in the presence of the feared stimulus. Although the Blood-Injection-Injury Type usually does begin in childhood, so do many of the other Specific Phobias. In all Specific Phobias the person recognizes that the fear is excessive or unreasonable (except in children who may not recognize this).
The best way to make an accurate and reliable diagnosis of Alzheimer's Disease is by way of
Select one:
A. neuroimaging techniques (e.g., CT scan, MRI).
B. a brain autopsy.
C. ongoing observation of the patient.
D. mental status exam.
Correct Answer is: B
The key words in this question are "accurate and reliable." There is no laboratory test available which confirms definitively Alzheimer's Disease. Diagnosis of the disorder involves confirming that the diagnostic criteria are met and ruling out other possible causes of the Dementia. Diagnosis is aided by the use of neuroimaging techniques, such as computerized tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), and positive-emission tomography (PET). Indeed, properly applied diagnostic techniques result in an 85% accuracy rate in diagnosing the disorder. However, at this time, the only way to absolutely confirm the diagnosis is via brain autopsy or biopsy.
Research by Foa et al. (1999) found which of the following treatments most effective for post-traumatic stress disorder?
Select one:
A. prolonged exposure
B. stress inoculation training
C. response prevention
D. prolonged exposure combined with stress inoculation training
Correct Answer is: A
Foa et. al. (1999) compared prolonged exposure, stress inoculation training, combined prolonged exposure and stress inoculation training, and a waiting list control group. The results indicated that all treatments (except the waiting list) were effective; however, prolonged exposure was superior to either stress inoculation training or the combined treatment.
Response prevention was not included in the study, and is typically used with disorders that include more of a behavioral component, such as obsessive-compulsive disorder
Which of the following statements is true about the results of meta-analyses investigating the effectiveness of cognitive therapy in the treatment of depression?
Select one:
A. Cognitive therapy is more effective than insight-oriented and interpersonal therapy, but less effective than anti-depressant medication.
B. Cognitive therapy is more effective than insight-oriented therapy but equal in effectiveness to interpersonal therapy and anti-depressant medication.
C. Cognitive therapy is more effective than anti-depressant medication and insight-oriented therapy, but equal in effectiveness to interpersonal therapy.
D. Cognitive therapy is more effective than insight-oriented therapy, interpersonal therapy, and anti-depressant medication.
Correct Answer is: B
Though some individual studies have found cognitive therapy to be the most effective treatment for depression, the results of meta-analyses (such as the one conducted by the National Institute of Mental Health) indicate that cognitive therapy, interpersonal therapy, and anti-depressant medications are about equal in efficacy in the treatment of depression. All three treatments are superior to psychodynamic, or insight-oriented, therapies.
A person with Bipolar II Disorder would have no history of
Select one:
A. manic episodes.
B. hypomanic episodes.
C. major depressive episodes.
D. manic or major depressive episodes.
Correct Answer is: A
Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when the person has a history of at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode. By definition, the person has never had a manic or mixed episode (otherwise, the diagnosis would be Bipolar I Disorder).
Research on the cognitive affects of chemotherapy and radiation on children with cancer indicate:
Select one:
A. cognitive abilities are affected only during the course of treatment with both radiation and chemotherapy.
B. cognitive abilities are affected only during the course of treatment with radiation, whereas chemotherapy is associated with developing cognitive problems following treatment.
C. young boys are at greater risk to have cognitive problems than girls.
D. younger children are at greater risk for more problems and more severe problems than are older children.
Correct Answer is: D
Between infancy and 15 years of age, cancer is the leading cause of death by disease among U.S. children. Among the 11 major types of childhood cancers, leukemias (blood cell cancers), brain and other central nervous system (CNS) tumors account for over half of new cases. Treatment for childhood cancers can include chemotherapy, radiation, surgery and stem cell transplants. Radiation and chemotherapy affect cognitive ability in children due to damage to the tiny blood vessels that carry nutrition and oxygen to the brain, resulting in calcifications; interference with the growing and thickening of the myelin; and with the growth and development of connecting nerve structures over time. Factors that increase the risk of long-term cognitive effects include: diagnosis of cancer at a very young age, cancer treatment that results in reduced energy levels, cancer treatment that affects hearing or vision, cancer treatment that results in physical disabilities, cancer therapy that includes treatment to the central nervous system, numerous or prolonged school absences, a history of learning problems before being diagnosed with cancer.
Research also indicates young girls are more vulnerable to lingering cognitive problems than boys, and children with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) and non-Hodgkin lymphoma are at a higher risk of developing later cognitive problems than those who have other forms of blood cancers. In fact, as many as 40% of all pediatric ALL patients treated with chemotherapy alone will develop serious learning disabilities within two to three years following treatment and for children who receive cranial radiation, with or without chemotherapy, the percentage is 80% to 90%. The most common cognitive problems found as a result of radiation and chemotherapy are with handwriting, spelling, reading or reading comprehension, understanding math concepts, attention deficits (tend to drift off and are easily distracted), short term memory and information retrieval, planning and organizational skills, social maturity and social skills.
Echolalia is not a common symptom of:
Select one:
A. Autism
B. Schizophrenia
C. Tourette's Syndrome
D. ADHD
Correct Answer is: D
Echolalia is the repetition or echoing of verbal utterances made by another person. A 1983 report indicated that up to 75% of verbal persons with autism have some form of echolalia (Prizant, 1983), but it may also be present in Tourette syndrome, developmental disability, and schizophrenia ( incorrect options). When done involuntarily, it is considered a tic.
Which of the following symptoms will be most quickly eliminated by antipsychotic medication?
Select one:
A. delusions
B. alogia
C. avolition
D. affective flattening
Correct Answer is: A
Studies of Schizophrenic individuals show the "positive symptoms," such as delusions, hallucinations and thought disorder, usually respond better than the "negative symptoms" to antipsychotic treatment.
Alogia, or speechlessness, avolition, or lack of initiative or goals and affective flattening are all negative symptoms of Schizophrenia ( incorrect options).
Patients with Schizophrenia are most likely to have:
Select one:
A. an enlarged hippocampus.
B. enlarged ventricles.
C. enlarged frontal lobes.
D. extreme hemispheric asymmetry.
Correct Answer is: B
Schizophrenia has been linked to several structural brain abnormalities, but the most consistent finding is that it is related to enlarged lateral and third ventricles.
While Sleep Terror Disorder and Sleepwalking Disorder are similar in terms of sleep and EEG patterns, there are behavioral differences that distinguish them. Sleepwalking Disorder, in contrast to Sleep Terror Disorder,:
Select one:
A. is accompanied by high levels of autonomic arousal during the episode
B. is associated with prominent, organized motor activity during the episode
C. is not associated with amnesia for the episode when the individual awakens in the morning
D. is not associated with a family history of Sleepwalking and/or Sleep Terror Disorder
Correct Answer is: B
Both Sleep Terror Disorder and Sleepwalking Disorder have been linked to a family history and are associated with amnesia for the episode upon awaking in the morning. Sleepwalking Disorder is usually associated with low levels of autonomic arousal and is characterized by prominent, organized motor activity such as walking around, talking, and eating.
Both disorders do involve motor activity, although the activity associated with Sleep Terror Disorder is less organized and usually involves resisting being touched or held and sitting up.
Which of the following statements is most true regarding the treatment of functional enuresis?
Select one:
A. imipramine is more effective than moisture alarms in the long-term
B. moisture alarms are more effective than imipramine in the long-term
C. hypnosis is more effective than imipramine or moisture alarms
D. anxiolytic medications are more effective than hypnosis, imipramine, or moisture alarms
Correct Answer is: B
Treatments for enuresis include moisture alarms (also known as the "bell and pad" method), antidepressant medications such as imipramine, hypnosis, and bladder control exercises. Of all these treatments, the moisture alarm has the highest long-term success rate and the lowest relapse rate.
Research suggests that the best single treatment for Agoraphobia is:
Select one:
A. implosive therapy.
B. flooding.
C. systematic desensitization.
D. psychotropic medication.
Correct Answer is: B
Flooding involves exposing an individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli while preventing an avoidance response. In-vivo flooding is considered the most effective psychological treatment for Agoraphobia, with reports of long-term improvement for to 75% of treated patients.
Synesthesia is most readily thought of as a/an:
Select one:
A. physiological occurrence.
B. manifestation of psychoses.
C. learned occurrence.
D. expression of imagination.
Correct Answer is: A
Synesthesia is a condition in which an involuntary joining of one sense is accompanied by a perception in another sense. For example, hearing is simultaneously perceived by an additional sense such as sight. Another form of synesthesia joins objects such as letters, shapes, numbers or people's names with a sensory perception such as smell, color or flavor. Synesthesia can involve any of the senses. Colored letters and numbers is the most common form, in which a person sees a certain color in response to a certain letter of the alphabet or number. Other synesthetes hear sounds in response to smell, smell in response to touch, or feel something in response to sight. While extremely rare, some possess synesthesia involving three or more senses. It is hypothesized that synesthesia results from "crossed-wiring" in the brain, where neurons and synapses that are intended to be contained within one sensory system cross to another. Studies suggest the crossed connections may be present at birth in everyone and the connections are then later refined. It is hypothesized that adult synesthetes may retain the crossed connections.
According to current cognitive-behavioral theories, a central factor in the maintenance of anorexia nervosa symptom is
Select one:
A. intense fear of gaining weight.
B. positive reinforcement from family and friends for weight loss.
C. the need to control eating.
D. a fear of sexuality and sexual maturity.
Correct Answer is: C
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is commonly used to treat anorexia nervosa, and is empirically supported as an effective intervention. There are a few different cognitive-behavioral theories of the disorder, but they are similar. They emphasize two major factors in the maintenance of the disorder: an extreme need to control eating, and an extreme tendency to judge self-worth on the basis of body shape and weight. Treatment, after addressing the immediate need to begin eating and gaining weight, includes self-monitoring, examination and restructuring of distorted beliefs, and relapse prevention training.
Which of the following is not characteristic of Nicotine Withdrawal?
Select one:
A. hypersomnia
B. weight gain/increased appetite
C. decreased heart rate
D. depressed or dysphoric mood
Correct Answer is: A
Symptoms of Nicotine Withdrawal have a rapid onset and are characterized by insomnia, decreased heart rate, increased appetite and depressed or dysphoric mood ( incorrect options). Studies indicate that a desire to avoid negative affect, as well as the rapid withdrawal symptoms, are primary reasons nicotine dependent individuals relapse.
What is the approximate probability that a person with a Schizophrenic brother (not an identical or fraternal twin) would also have Schizophrenia?
Select one:
A. 0.6
B. 0.45
C. 0.1
D. 0.005
Correct Answer is: C
The concordance rate for Schizophrenia among siblings is about 10%. If you didn't know this, you might have been able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high. And 0.5% is at the low end of estimates of the approximate lifetime prevalence rate of Schizophrenia and therefore should have seemed too low to be the concordance rate among related individuals.
Which of the following is least likely to cause secondary impotence?
Select one:
A. medication use
B. alcohol use
C. diabetes mellitus
D. old age
Correct Answer is: D
Secondary impotence is diagnosed when a man persistently or recurrently fails to attain or maintain an erection even though in the past he has successfully achieved an erection. The erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older men; therefore, aging alone is not likely to be a cause of impotence. The other responses are common physical causes of secondary impotence
The research has consistently found that, in comparison to whites, African-Americans are more likely to be diagnosed as:
Select one:
A. schizophrenic.
B. depressed.
C. having a Personality Disorder.
D. having Bipolar Disorder.
Correct Answer is: A
Most studies have found Schizophrenia to be slightly more common in African Americans than whites, although some critics of these studies argue that the difference is due more to methodological problems than actual race-related differences in psychopathology.
Of the "big 5" personality dimensions one would most expect a sociopathic personality to have the dimension of:
Select one:
A. Extraversion
B. Openness
C. Conscientiousness
D. Sensing
Correct Answer is: A
This is one of those where the right answer - extraversion - is a "rule out". The Big Five personality dimensions are extraversion, agreeableness, openness, emotional stability and conscientiousness. An antisocial personality is described as deceitful, impulsive, irritable, consistently irresponsible and with a lack or remorse. You might not always expect an antisocial person to be extroverted, but of the choices, it is what you would most expect.
Recent research on sex reassignment surgery outcomes, following surgery, indicates gender dysphoria:
Select one:
A. continues to be experienced by a majority of individuals.
B. is no longer experienced by a majority of individuals.
C. is increasingly experienced by a majority of individuals.
D. is no longer experienced by a majority of male-to-female patients, whereas female-to-male patients experienced an increase in gender dysphoria.
Correct Answer is: B
Studies of individuals who have undergone sex reassignment surgery have found the vast majority no longer expressed gender dysphoria and were psychologically, socially and sexually functioning well following surgery. Smith et al. (2005) found, post-operatively, female-to-male and homosexual transsexuals functioned better in many respects than male-to-female and non-homosexual transsexuals and non-homosexual individuals with greater psychopathology and body dissatisfaction reported the worst post-operative outcomes.
The best systematic method for tracking the progression of Alzheimer's Disease is
Select one:
A. daily observation of changes in the patient's mood and behavior.
B. reports from significant others and family members.
C. obtaining self-reports from the patient.
D. administering assessments of cognitive functioning on a regular basis.
Correct Answer is: D
This is one of those questions that may drive you crazy, because all four choices describe ways in which an Alzheimer's patient can be assessed. Thus, you must choose the best answer. Because Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type is a cognitive disorder, it makes sense that the most direct way to assess it on an ongoing basis is to regularly administer cognitive assessments. The question is really as much about how Alzheimer's is defined as it is about how to assess it.
A young woman with schizophrenia has difficulty initiating activities, such as paying her bills, starting assignments or reading, and once she does get started, she is unable to finish. This is an example of:
Select one:
A. alogia
B. anhedonia
C. akesthesia
D. avolition
Correct Answer is: D
Avolition refers to a lack of initiative, motivation or goal-directed activities and is considered a "negative" symptom of Schizophrenia or Schizophreniform disorder when it is severe enough to prevent an individual from doing basic activities.
Alogia refers to a lack of spontaneous speech. Anhedonia refers to the inability to experience pleasure. Akathisia is a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of restlessness, an inability to sit or keep still, a pressing need to be in constant motion and behaviors such as fidgeting, crossing and uncrossing the legs while sitting, rocking from foot to foot, marching in place and pacing ( incorrect options).
Which of the following is considered a negative symptom?
Select one:
A. disorganized speech
B. delusions
C. anhedonia
D. auditory hallucinations
Correct Answer is: C
Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure and a negative symptom is one in which something that should be present is missing, or is not present to a sufficient degree. The other response choices represent positive symptoms, ones in which something is present that should not be present, or is present to too great a degree.
Of the following, which treatment modality is, according to recent research, most likely to be effective in treating Borderline Personality Disorder?
Select one:
A. Interpersonal Therapy (IPT)
B. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT)
C. Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)
D. Reality Therapy
Correct Answer is: B
Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT) is a cognitive-behavioral therapy intended to treat Borderline Personality Disorder as well as other long-standing behavioral disorders. The term "dialectical" reflects the treatment's focus on the synthesis of opposites, such as the acceptance of the client in the context of helping them change, as well as the therapy's goal of replacing rigid, dichotomous thinking with flexible, dialectical thinking. Treatment includes a variety of cognitive and behavioral interventions, focused on specific goals and learning new skills, such as teaching mindfulness, skills training, cognitive modification, and exposure. Research has found DBT to be an effective mode of treatment for Borderline Personality Disorder, especially in the control of self-mutilating and self-damaging impulsive behavior.
Which of the following parasomnias usually affects middle-aged or elderly individuals?
Select one:
A. night terrors
B. sleep talking
C. sleep walking
D. REM sleep behavior disorder
Correct Answer is: D
REM sleep behavior disorder is a parasomnia that occurs later in the night than NREM disorders, usually affects middle-aged or elderly individuals, especially males, and sufferers often also have a neurological disorder. In this disorder, the temporary muscle paralysis that normally occurs during REM sleep does not occur so individuals may act out dreams through potentially violent movements or behaviors during sleep that can cause injuries to themselves or bed partners.
NREM disorders occur early in the night and include somnambulism, or sleepwalking, sleep talking, enuresis (bed-wetting), and night, or sleep, terrors ( incorrect options). These are all more common in children.
The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is
Select one:
A. panic attacks.
B. anxiety and depression.
C. addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers.
D. somatic delusions.
Correct Answer is: B
The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.
Parasomnias activate one or more physiological systems during the sleeping and waking cycle at an inappropriate time. Which of the following types of parasomnias involves an individual involuntarily grinding or clenching their teeth while sleeping?
Select one:
A. REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD)
B. somnambulism
C. sleep bruxism
D. sleep talking
Correct Answer is: C
Parasomnias are undesirable motor, verbal, or experiential phenomena that occur as primary sleep events or secondary to systemic disease and are categorized as occurring in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep, non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep, or as types not related to a specific sleep state. Because it involves a partial arousal, an individual exhibits symptoms of being asleep and awake at the same time. Parasomnias are most commonly caused by biological factors, stress, depression and other related factors, they tend to be more common in children than adults, and in some cases, run in families. Sleep bruxism refers to when a person involuntarily grinds or clenches their teeth while sleeping, sometimes leading to wearing down the teeth and jaw discomfort. Treatment typically involves wearing a mouth guard during sleep.
Other types of parasomnias include: somnambulism (sleepwalking), which tends to run in families; nightmares, nocturnal leg cramps, sleep talking, sleep enuresis (bedwetting), sleep paralysis, confusional arousals, sleep terrors (nigh terrors) and REM Sleep Behavior Disorder (RBD).
One common barrier to treatment in cases of Anorexia Nervosa is
Select one:
A. the associated feature of mild paranoid delusions impairs the development of rapport and trust.
B. symptoms are often ego-systonic so patients resist presenting for treatment.
C. family denial that the patient has a problem.
D. patients' lack of physical strength due to extreme thinness prevents them from engaging in psychotherapy.
Correct Answer is: B
Individuals with Anorexia Nervosa rarely present for treatment on their own because they have a distorted body image and wish to be extremely thin. When they do seek treatment on their own, it is usually due to distress about the physiological and psychological consequences of starvation, not because of weight loss per se. More commonly, the patient is "dragged into" therapy by concerned family members. Thus, one common barrier to treatment is the patient's lack of motivation to change in regards to the core symptoms, starvation and weight loss. Therefore, treatment of Anorexia Nervosa may require an initial inpatient stage in order to restore the person to a more healthy weight, and special attention to the therapeutic relationship is often necessary. Regarding this choice ("family denial that the patient has a problem"), family denial is sometimes an issue in Anorexia Nervosa, but family members are more likely to deny their own role in the problem than the fact that the patient has a problem. As noted, patients are often brought to the attention of medical professionals by family members.
Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures:
Select one:
A. parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum
B. parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdala
C. frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdala
D. frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum
Correct Answer is: D
Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder.
Generalized tonic-clonic seizures are associated with
Select one:
A. grand mal epilepsy.
B. petit mal epilepsy.
C. Jacksonian epilepsy.
D. temporal lobe epilepsy.
Correct Answer is: A
Generalized tonic-clonic seizure is the name for what was previously referred to as grand mal seizure; thus, this choice "grand mal epilepsy" is the best answer. These seizures involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff. There may also be an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures may last up to an hour, and afterward the person falls into a deep sleep.
All of the following statements are true of Tourette's Disorder, except:
Select one:
A. onset of the disorder always occurs before the age of 18.
B. both motor tics and vocal tics are present.
C. uncontrollable outbursts of vulgar and obscene utterances are present in the majority of cases.
D. the disorder is more common in males than females.
Correct Answer is: C
Tourette's Disorder is a Tic Disorder that involves multiple motor tics (involuntary jerky movements) and vocal tics (vocal sounds such as grunts, barks, and clicks).
uncontrollable outbursts of vulgar and obscene utterances are present in the majority of cases.
Coprolalia, or involuntary utterances of obscenities, occurs in 10% or less of cases -- not the majority, which is why this option is correct (remember, the question is asking for the statement that isn't true).
For a diagnosis to be made, onset of the disorder must be before age 18. The disorder is between 1.5 and 3 times more common in males than in females.
A friend of yours was involved in a car accident three weeks ago in which the other driver was killed. She tells you she needs to see you for therapy and that she is having dreams about the accident. She has been unable to drive or ride in a car and she tells you that "she feels nothing" about the accident. You refer her to another competent therapist who will probably diagnose your friend with
Select one:
A. Acute Stress Disorder.
B. Post-traumatic Stress Disorder.
C. Specific Phobia.
D. Generalized Anxiety Disorder.
Correct Answer is: A
Your friend will be diagnosed with Acute Stress Disorder. She has witnessed a traumatic event and is reexperiencing it through dreams. She is avoiding activities associated with the trauma and is experiencing a general numbing of feeling.
For "Post-traumatic Stress Disorder," the same symptoms would need to continue beyond one month. For "Specific Phobia," while your friend may have phobic symptoms, it is related to a specific traumatic event rather than all cars, and for "Generalized Anxiety Disorder," again the symptoms have only been occurring for a few weeks and are specific to the traumatic situation.
The most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is:
Select one:
A. systematic desensitization
B. flooding
C. cognitive-behavioral therapy
D. benzodiazepines
Correct Answer is: C
Cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) has been found to be the most effective treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder, probably because it combines a number of behavioral and cognitive interventions.
An adolescent exhibiting foreclosure is most likely to respond in which of the following ways when asked about her career choice?
Select one:
A. I haven't given my career much thought yet.
B. My father, who's a lawyer, has convinced me that I'd make a good lawyer too.
C. I've given that a lot of thought and I think being a veterinarian best suits my interests.
D. That's something that's been bothering me lately and I'm worried that I'm never going to be able to reach a decision.
Correct Answer is: B
James Marcia distinguishes between four identity statuses. Identity foreclosure is characterized by a commitment to an identity (e.g., career) that was defined or suggested by a parent of other significant person.
According to Marlatt's theory of substance dependence:
Select one:
A. a relapse of dependence is likely if the person makes non-dispositional attributions for use following a "slip" (use of a drug after a period of abstinence).
B. substance use is "over-learned" in that it is maintained by itself as well as by multiple cognitive mediators and external reinforcers.
C. addictions can be easily extinguished.
D. excessive substance use is related to an unresolved need for power.
Correct Answer is: B
Marlatt's model of substance dependence holds that addicts learn to associate substance use with relief of self-criticism and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of cues and mediators that serve to encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person's expectations, however, excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is self-reinforcing -- it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is "over-learned" in that, due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior.

a relapse of dependence is likely if the person makes non-dispositional attributions for use following a "slip" (use of a drug after a period of abstinence).
You might have gone for this option, since you probably knew that Marlatt is associated with a theory of relapse prevention that has to do with attributions regarding the reasons for "slips." However, according to Marlatt, a slip is likely to lead to a full-blown relapse when the person makes dispositional attributions for it, such as when the person blames him or herself. Relapse prevention involves teaching the person to make non-dispositional attributions, such as blaming the situation or the nature of the disease. So this question illustrates the importance of reading carefully and processing what you read, rather than relying on the recognition of "buzzwords."
A 17-year-old male has suddenly begun engaging in numerous high-risk sexual encounters, getting very little sleep, and exhibiting an inflated self-esteem. His most likely diagnosis is:
Select one:
A. ADHD
B. Bipolar I Disorder, Single Manic Episode
C. Conduct Disorder
D. none; this is normal adolescent behavior
Correct Answer is: B
Although this question provides a limited amount of information, it appears that the young man may be in the midst of a Manic Episode based on his decreased need for sleep, inflated self-esteem, and excessive involvement in pleasurable activities that are likely to result in painful consequences. Another clue is that these behaviors began suddenly, which is not characteristic of the other diagnoses listed. Although ADHD and a Manic Episode are both characterized by excessive activity, impulsive behavior, and poor judgement, ADHD must begin before age 7 and has a chronic course with no clear onset. Conduct Disorder is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior in which the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal norms or rules are violated.
Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome involves the processes termed:
Select one:
A. alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
B. anticipation, defensiveness, exhaustion.
C. alarm, stimulation, resistance.
D. attention, accommodation, adaptation.
Correct Answer is: A
This paradigm was an early attempt to explain how we react to stress. It postulates that after we become aware of the stressful situation (alarm), we summon our resources and meet the challenge (resist). After the trauma is over, we collapse (exhaustion).
Caution is necessary when considering Ritalin for a hyperactive child who has
Select one:
A. a family history of Tourette's Syndrome.
B. a family history of drug abuse.
C. a co-diagnosis of a Learning Disorder.
D. a co-diagnosis of Conduct Disorder.
Correct Answer is: A
Some hyperactive children develop motor tics when taking methylphenidate. Leading experts warn that the drug should not be used (or should be used with caution) when a child has a pre-existing Tic Disorder or a family history of a Tic Disorder.
Cognitive and behavioral symptoms such as impaired motor coordination, attention and memory, intellectual disability, hyperactivity, impulsivity, and poor judgment are characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). The brain areas most likely to be affected by FAS include:
Select one:
A. brainstem, amygdala, and frontal lobes.
B. basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes.
C. medulla, thalamus, and temporal lobes.
D. hypothalamus, thalamus, and parietal lobes.
Correct Answer is: B
Brain imaging research has found that the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes are most likely to be negatively impacted by repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development. Other commonly affected areas include the cerebellum, corpus callosum, and hypothalamus.
An interpersonal therapist who is working with a client suffering from a prolonged grief reaction would attempt to
Select one:
A. connect the person's current grief reaction to losses of significant others in early childhood.
B. help the client understanding how the loss is impacting the current therapeutic relationship.
C. build up a positive relationship with the client and avoid discussing the loss until the termination phase of therapy.
D. modify the client's maladaptive behaviors under the assumption that psychological change follows behavioral change.
Correct Answer is: B
Though the correct answer is an imprecise description of what an interpersonal therapist would do, it is the best answer available. Interpersonal therapists believe that depression is caused and maintained by disturbances in early life, especially attachment disturbances. Rather than focusing on the past, however, they focus on the connection between the presenting problem and client's current relationships -- including the current relationship with the therapist. Grief reactions are a common focus of interpersonal therapy.
A child of a military veteran with Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder is most likely to display which of the following behavioral problems?
Select one:
A. eating disturbances
B. kleptomania
C. hyperactivity
D. Oppositional Defiant Disorder
Correct Answer is: C
When a parent suffers from Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder, the whole family is affected, and children are particularly vulnerable to the disruption it causes in the family system. The disorder often impairs one's ability to parent, and it may render parents more likely to become impatient, angry, or neglectful with their children. Young children especially are not cognitively equipped to make sense of this behavior, and research has identified a number of behavioral problems they are likely to display. Depression, anxiety, self-blame, aggression, hyperactivity, and social withdrawal are common, and so are symptoms of PTSD itself, such as low frustration tolerance and outbursts of anger--some describe PTSD as a disorder that may be transmitted intergenerationally. Even though such children may experience a variety of behavioral problems, hyperactivity is the best answer because, of the choices listed, it is the one most commonly identified as occurring in children of PTSD sufferers.
Research on psychosocial treatments for smoking cessation have provided the most support for the use of which of the following types of interventions?
Select one:
A. group therapy.
B. behavioral.
C. hypnosis.
D. acupuncture.
Correct Answer is: B
Treatment for nicotine is usually multimodal and psychosocial interventions are often combined with temporary nicotine replacements such as a patch or gum and/or pharmacological agents such as buproprion. Many different therapeutic approaches have been applied, and many have been found to be successful at least in some cases or some studies. However, of all psychosocial treatments for smoking cessation, behavioral approaches have the most support in the evidence-based literature. A number of reviews and meta-analyses have found that smokers undergoing behavioral treatments, as compared to control subjects, have about double the quit rate at a six-month follow-up. Examples of behavioral interventions include reinforcement for abstinence and withholding of reinforcement for non-abstinence; stimulus control, whereby stimuli or situations that cue smoking are identified and avoided; and aversive therapy, such as rapid smoking, whereby the person smokes to the point of discomfort or nausea.
A high level of expressed emotion by family members has been found to be predictive of relapse for which of the following disorders?
Select one:
A. schizophrenia
B. eating disorders
C. mood disorders
D. all of the above
Correct Answer is: D
The relationship between a family's level of expressed emotion (EE) and the risk of relapse among patients with Schizophrenia has been known for many years; however, recently EE has also been linked to eating disorders and mood disorders. In fact, in a meta-analysis the relationship of EE to relapse in eating disorders and mood disorders was significantly greater than the relationship found for Schizophrenia.
From Wolpe's classical conditioning perspective, neurotic depression:
Select one:
A. is a conditioned response that can be alleviated through extinction trials in which the neutral (conditioned) stimulus is repeatedly presented without the depression-inducing (unconditioned) stimulus.
B. is a response to anxiety and can, therefore, be alleviated by using systematic desensitization to eliminate the anxiety.
C. is due to attributional biases that, through conditioning, have become associated with certain types of events and can be eliminated through reattribution training.
D. results when there is an absence of response contingent reinforcement and is best treated by counterconditioning in which depression is paired with a variety of pleasure-producing (unconditioned) stimuli.
Correct Answer is: B
Even if you are unfamiliar with Wolpe's explanation of depression, you may have been able to pick the right answer to this question as long as you have him associated with systematic desensitization. Wolpe distinguished between several types of depression. He linked neurotic depression to anxiety and considered systematic desensitization to be an effective treatment.
The Personality Disorder that has been found to have the best prognosis is:
Select one:
A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Paranoid Personality Disorder
C. Dependent Personality Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
Correct Answer is: A
The majority of individuals diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) demonstrate significant reduction or remission of symptoms by middle age or sooner. Longitudinal studies involving those diagnosed in adolescence or early adulthood indicate that symptom resolution with impulsive symptoms are the quickest to resolve, followed by cognitive and interpersonal symptoms and finally affective symptoms are the most chronic and show the least improvement with increasing age.
The second stage of Alzheimer's Dementia is characterized by:
Select one:
A. loss of implicit memory
B. loss of short-term memory
C. inability to perform complex tasks
D. inability to recognize family or friends
Correct Answer is: C
Alzheimer's Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit) and they begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage -- Stage 3 -- which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3 they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.
According to Theodore Millon, people with Narcissistic Personality Disorder rely primarily on which of the following defense mechanisms?
Select one:
A. repression, rationalization, and projection
B. repression, displacement, and sublimation
C. rationalization, reaction formation, and sublimation
D. identification, intellectualization, and displacement
Correct Answer is: A
This is a difficult question unless you are a Theodore Millon fan. According to Millon, when narcissistic people experience personal failure and public humiliation, they resort to defense mechanisms -- first repression, and if that fails, then rationalization and projection.
Linehan's dialectical behavior therapy shows promise in the treatment of borderline patients. It involves a combination of treatment modalities that include
Select one:
A. inpatient therapy.
B. social skills training.
C. family therapy.
D. psychotropic medication.
Correct Answer is: B
Dialectical behavior therapy or DBT consists of outpatient individual therapy, social skills training and follow-up telephone consultations. It also discourages the expression of overt inappropriate affect. Its combination of social skills training (usually done in group therapy settings) and outpatient individual psychotherapy has been found to decrease hospitalization and suicide attempt rates
A difference between tangentiality and circumstantiality is that:
Select one:
A. in circumstantiality, the person is delayed in reaching the point, whereas in tangentiality, the person avoids reaching the point at all.
B. in tangentiality, the person is delayed in reaching the point, whereas in circumstantiality, the person avoids reaching the point at all.
C. tangentiality is speech that is not understandable, due to the lack of a meaningful connection between words or sentences; by contrast, circumstantial speech is understandable.
D. circumstantiality is speech that is not understandable, due to the lack of a meaningful connection between words or sentences; by contrast, tangential speech is understandable.
Correct Answer is: A
If you were not familiar with the term "tangentiality," thinking about the phrase "going off on a tangent" might have helped you. Tangentiality is defined as responding to a question in an oblique or irrelevant way; in other words, the person avoids the point entirely. Circumstantiality, by contrast, is a pattern of speech that is delayed in reaching the point due to much irrelevant detail or many parenthetical remarks. Eventually, however, the point is reached.
Autistic children tend to do as well as or better than other children the same age on tests of
Select one:
A. abstract problem solving.
B. facial recognition.
C. response speed.
D. field independent processing.
Correct Answer is: D
Field dependence-independence is a construct viewed as a dimension of cognitive style, or the way in which individuals think, perceive, remember, and use information to solve problems. Those with a field independent cognitive style tend to use internal referents to solve problems and tend to see environments in terms of their constituent parts rather than as organized wholes. By contrast, a field dependent style relies on external or environmental referents to solve problems; perception tends to be dominated by the overall organization of the environment (or field) rather than its individual parts. Autistic individuals tend to have a field-independent cognitive style, and on some tasks that assess field independence, they consistently outperform their same-age peers. For example, numerous studies have found that autistic children outperform age-matched children on the Childhood Embedded Figures Test, which requires examinees to identify a simple figure hidden in a complex background design. Good performance on this test indicates field independence because it requires separating an item from the field in which it is embedded.
Illnesses, such as Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, which have an unknown cause are said to be:
Select one:
A. idiopathic
B. allopathic
C. autoplastic
D. homeopathic
Correct Answer is: A
Idiopathic simply means of unknown cause.
Allopathic refers to the typical biomedical treatments which are practiced by most physicians in North America and Europe today. Homeopathic refers to a more natural approach to healing in which the patient is given small doses of substances, which in larger doses, cause the same symptoms that they are suffering from. Autoplastic refers to adaptation through altering one's own behavior ( incorrect options).
Which of the following are all possible causes of a Mood Disorder caused by a known organic factor (substance use or medical condition)?
Select one:
A. hypothyroidism, broken bones, and barbiturate use
B. arthritis, hyperthyroidism, and cerebral palsy
C. cataracts, ulcer, and PCP use.
D. carcinoma of the pancreas, hallucinogen use, and viral illness
Correct Answer is: D
This is not an easy question, as it requires knowledge that many psychologists might consider obscure. If you got it wrong, you should remind yourself that you are not going to answer all of the questions on the exam correctly, and a small percentage will be so obscure or unclear that the most you can reasonably ask of yourself is to take a good guess.
The DSM identifies the following disorders as possible causes of an organically-based mood symptoms: Substances such as hallucinogens and PCP; endocrine disorders, such as hypo- or hyperthyroidism; carcinoma of the pancreas; viral illness; and structural disease of the brain, such as that caused by a stroke. Only the correct choice contains three factors that each fall into one of these categories: carcinoma of the pancreas, hallucinogen use, and viral illness.
The prevalence rate for autism and autism spectrum disorders in epidemiological studies since 2000 indicate a convergence in the range of:
Select one:
A. 60/10,000
B. 27.5/10,000
C. 10/10,000
D. 4/10,000
Correct Answer is: A
It appears the prevalence rate for autism and autism spectrum disorders has increased worldwide over the past decade however whether there is an increased incidence of autism has yet to be determined partially due to confounding changes diagnostic classification, assessment and varied methodologies of surveys.
Research on the genetic contribution to major depression indicates the risk for depression for biological offspring is:
Select one:
A. essentially the same whether they have one or two parents with depression.
B. higher if they have one parent with depression than if they have two parents with depression.
C. higher if they have two parents with depression than if they have only one parent with depression.
D. higher if they have a mother with depression than if they have a father with depression.
Correct Answer is: A
Research findings show having a biological parent with depression increases an offspring's risk for major depression. What may be surprising however is that the risk is similar whether one or both parents experience major depression. Studies also indicate maternal and paternal depression affect biological offspring similarly in terms of rates of major depression.
Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is:
Select one:
A. behavioral-reinforcement
B. structured family intervention with parental training
C. multi-systemic therapy
D. victims family therapy
Correct Answer is: C
Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extrafamilial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth's social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior. It is provided using a home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration.
Loss of declarative memory is associated with
Select one:
A. Alzheimer's Dementia.
B. Parkinson's Disease.
C. Dissociative Disorders.
D. Personality Disorders.
Correct Answer is: A
Alzheimer's dementia affects declarative memory which includes both episodic memory (memory of your last birthday, how you spent your last vacation) and semantic memory (red is a color).
When a person with deep dyslexia is presented with the written word "cat," he is most likely to respond with which of the following?
Select one:
A. tac
B. dog
C. at
D. I don't know
orrect Answer is: B
People with deep dyslexia exhibit a number of reading errors including semantic paralexia, which involves producing a response that is similar in meaning to the target word (e.g., dog for cat or arm for leg).
Research comparing patients with schizophrenia from non-Western developing countries to those from Western industrialized countries has found that they differ in terms of:
Select one:
A. symptoms
B. age and gender
C. gender and prognosis
D. course and outcome
Correct Answer is: D
Several studies conducted by the World Health Organization have consistently found differences in the course and outcome of schizophrenia patients from developing and industrialized countries. Patients from developing countries more often exhibit an acute onset of symptoms, a shorter clinical course, and a complete remission of symptoms. No consistent differences were found between these two groups in regards to age, gender, or type of symptoms.
Depressive episodes that occur in a seasonal pattern most likely include:
Select one:
A. loss of weight
B. increased sleep
C. increased energy
D. increased craving for protein-rich foods
Correct Answer is: B
Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern (better known as Seasonal Affective Disorder) is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. The depressive symptoms in Seasonal Affective Disorder most often include: decreased energy, increased sleep, overeating, weight gain, and a craving for carbohydrates.
A psychologist meets with a patient who smiles and giggles when talking about a painful experience. The patient is most likely exhibiting:
Select one:
A. inappropriate affect.
B. restricted affect.
C. labile affect.
D. mania.
Correct Answer is: A
Inappropriate affect represents a lack of congruence between an individual's feelings and expression of those feelings.
Restricted affect is a mild reduction in range or intensity of emotional expression and isn't as marked as flat affect, which is an absence of emotional expression. Labile affect is rapid and abrupt shifts in expression. Mania is an episode of very elevated, expansive mood, and an associated feature of bipolar disorder (* incorrect options).
A 50-year old has memory loss as the result of her long-term heavy alcohol consumption. Most likely, she has trouble
Select one:
A. getting dressed.
B. remembering someone she met a week ago.
C. recalling her first date.
D. repeating five digits forward and backward.
Correct Answer is: B
People with Korsakoff's Syndrome (amnesia due to heavy, long-term alcohol consumption) have severe anterograde amnesia along with retrograde amnesia for events that occurred in the relatively recent past.
getting dressed.
Procedural memory is undisturbed.
recalling her first date.
Remote memories are usually intact.
repeating five digits forward and backward.
Short-term memory is unaffected.
A unilateral, severe, and throbbing headache that involves nausea and sensitivity to light is most likely a
Select one:
A. migraine headache.
B. tension headache.
C. cluster headache.
D. cranial neuralgia.
Correct Answer is: A
The International Headache Society (IHS) has developed a headache classification system that divides headaches into thirteen types -- four of which are listed by the choices here. This question best matches the description of a migraine headache. Migraines are felt on one side of the head by a majority of sufferers and are typically throbbing in nature. In addition, nausea (with or without vomiting) as well as sensitivity to light and sound often accompany migraines.
Of the following, which is most likely to cause rapid and abrupt changes in cognitive functioning?
Select one:
A. Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type
B. AIDS Dementia Complex
C. Vascular Dementia
D. Korsakoff's syndrome
Correct Answer is: C
Dementia is characterized by multiple cognitive deficits such as memory impairment, language disturbances, and impairments in executive functioning that have a specific physiological cause--i.e., a medical condition or the persisting effects of a substance. Vascular Dementia is diagnosed in individuals who have Dementia judged to be caused by a cerebrovascular disease such as a stroke. Its onset is typically abrupt and it typically has a fluctuating, stepwise course characterized by rapid changes in cognitive functioning and orientation.
By contrast, the course in Alzheimer's Dementia tends to be slow and progressive, with abilities deteriorating over the span of several years. In AIDS Dementia Complex, the course is also typically progressive, but punctuated by abrupt accelerations. Korsakoff's syndrome is dementia caused by a lack of thiamine in the brain, which is usually caused by chronic alcoholism and sometimes by severe malnutrition. Onset is variable--sometimes rapid and sometimes insidious.
Linnehan's dialectical behavioral therapy is a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy that involves
Select one:
A. intensive individual sessions.
B. family therapy.
C. individual and group sessions.
D. group therapy.
Correct Answer is: C
Linnehan uses dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) in the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. DBT is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy that emphasizes social skills training, self-soothing exercises, and group dynamics. The patient is offered intensive individual and group sessions that are a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy. DBT has been shown to reduce hospitalization and self-mutilating behavior
The primary triggers of relapse in individuals attempting to quit smoking are withdrawal symptoms and
Select one:
A. emotional factors such as negative affect.
B. environmental factors such as the presence of other smokers.
C. the use of alcohol, caffeine, or other substances that were associated with smoking in the person's past.
D. events that are attributed to external, uncontrollable, and global factors.
Correct Answer is: A
Research suggests that the primary physical factor in maintaining smoking is avoidance of withdrawal, and the primary psychological factor is regulation of emotional states. Specifically, smoking functions to minimize negative affects and evoke positive affects. This is why the most common triggers of relapse are withdrawal symptoms and negative affects.
The risk of a monozygotic twin of a Schizophrenia proband developing Schizophrenia is approximately:
Select one:
A. 0.25
B. 0.5
C. 0.75
D. 1
Correct Answer is: B
The term "proband" refers to the index population, that is, those persons identified with a particular disorder. Studies have found that the risk for a monozygotic (identical) twin of a schizophrenic proband to be diagnosed with Schizophrenia is about 46%. The risk for dizygotic (fraternal) twins is about 17%.
A diagnosis of childhood onset Conduct Disorder:
Select one:
A. requires an onset of two or more symptoms prior to age 13.
B. is equally common in boys and girls.
C. is associated with less overt aggression than adolescent onset Conduct Disorder.
D. is associated with a poorer prognosis than adolescent onset Conduct Disorder.
Correct Answer is: D
Age of onset of Conduct Disorder is correlated with a number of factors including symptoms (childhood onset is associated with more severe aggression) and prognosis -- i.e., individuals with childhood onset are much more likely to continue to engage in antisocial behaviors in adolescence and adulthood.
Medical treatment regimens for chronic illness most often results in:
Select one:
A. greater compliance for children as compared to adolescents
B. greater compliance for adolescents as compared to children
C. equal compliance for children and adolescents
D. greater compliance for girls and adolescent females as compared to boys and adolescent males
Correct Answer is: A
Compliance with medical treatment regimens, such as those designed to manage diabetes, tends to be lower for adolescents as compared to children or adults. There are many reasons for this, including adolescents' greater desire to be similar to their peers and independent from the restrictions of their parents.
Which of the following appears to be related to abnormal regulation of melatonin levels?
Select one:
A. Schizoaffective Disorder
B. Bipolar Disorder
C. Mood Disorder with Melancholic Features
D. Mood Disorder with Seasonal Pattern
Correct Answer is: D
Mood Disorder With Seasonal Pattern (better known is Seasonal Affective Disorder) is diagnosed when the person displays onset and remission of Major Depressive Episodes at characteristic times of the year. In most cases, onset is in fall or winter and remission is in spring. It is believed that Seasonal Affective Disorder is related to abnormal regulation of melatonin secretions. The fact that Seasonal Affective Disorder often responds to light therapy (exposing the patient to bright light for about two hours either before sunrise or after sundown) lends support to this hypothesis, since melatonin levels are affected by light-dark cycles.
The preferred treatment for Agoraphobia is
Select one:
A. implosive therapy.
B. systematic desensitization
C. in-vivo exposure with response prevention.
D. participant modeling.
Correct Answer is: C
Much research supports the generally accepted conclusion that in-vivo exposure with response prevention is the preferred psychological treatment for Agoraphobia.
For women in general, the typical pattern of depression and dysfunctional physical symptoms accompanying a menstrual cycle is that:
Select one:
A. there is no typical pattern.
B. the symptoms occur shortly before and terminate shortly after the onset of menses.
C. the symptoms occur shortly after the onset of menses.
D. the symptoms occur and terminate shortly before the onset of menses.
Correct Answer is: A
The key words in this question were "for women in general." You had to know that PMS is actually not typical of most women. While it is not uncommon for women to have mild psychological symptoms during the latter part of the luteal phase, there is no specific pattern typical of most women. Make sure you read each word in the question.
the symptoms occur shortly before and terminate shortly after the onset of menses.
If the question were about women who do suffer from PMS, this would be the correct answer.
People diagnosed with PTSD are often successfully treated with psychotherapy and don't need to be referred for medication treatment unless:
Select one:
A. They also have a high level of cognitive functioning
B. They experience feelings of numbness
C. They tolerate exploratory psychotherapy well
D. Their target symptoms of avoidance and derealization interfere with daily life
Correct Answer is: D
PTSD is not usually treated with phamacotherapy unless the target symptoms of intrusive experiences, flashbacks, transient psychosis, marked derealization, and avoidance and numbing markedly interfere with daily life. With these symptoms, short-term medication is indicated. When the target symptoms of major depression, panic disorder or persistent psychotic symptoms become too intense, long term medication is indicated
Bill comes to the session and reports that for the last six months, his wife and employer have been poisoning his food. In addition, his next door neighbor has assisted them by switching lunch boxes with him. The local DJ is in on the scheme - telling him over the radio to "eat right to stay fit." The appropriate diagnosis is
Select one:
A. Schizophrenia
B. Schizophreniform Disorder
C. Brief Psychotic Disorder
D. food poisoning
Correct Answer is: A
Bill's symptoms meet the criteria for Schizophrenia. He has one or more delusions and auditory hallucinations, with symptoms lasting at least 6 months.
His symptoms have lasted for more than one month which rules out Brief Psychotic Disorder as well as Schizophreniform Disorder.
Sets with similar terms