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51 terms

Stage 3 (Reily) exam

While allowing your eyes to adapt to darkness for a night flight, you should

a. use low-level blue-white light for two hours prior to the flight
b. wear dark glasses that block all wavelengths of light except blue for one
hour before flight
c. avoid bright white lights, such as headlights, landing lights, strobe lights, and flash lights for at least thirty minutes before flight
Determine the total distance required for takeoff to clear a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT: Standard
Pressure altitude: Sea level
Takeoff weight: 2,700 lb.
Headwind component: Calm

a. 1,400 feet
b. 1,000 feet
c. 1,700 feet
Assuming a constant fuel consumption rate throughout the flight, how much fuel will remain after the pilot lands at the destination?

a. 11.0 gallons
b. 12.2 gallons
c. 13.1 gallons
What is the maximum amount of baggage that can be carried when the airplane is loaded as follows?
Front seat occupants: 387 lb.
Rear seat occupants: 293 lb.
Fuel: 35 gal.

a. 45 pounds
b. 63 pounds
c. 220 pounds
The variation in the area is

a. 7°E
b. 7°30'W
c. 7°30'E
If a true heading of 135° results in a ground track of 130° and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from

a. 246° and 13 knots
b. 019° and 12 knots
c. 200° and 13 knots
En route to First Flight Airport (area 5), your flight passes over Hampton Roads Airport (area 2) at 1456 and then over Chesapeake Municipal at 1501. At what time should your flight arrive at First Flight?

a. 1526
b. 1516
c. 1521
What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?

a. The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time
b. The estimated time en route plus 30 minutes
c. The estimated time en route plus 45 minutes
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb

a. High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude
b. Low temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude
c. High temperature, low relative humidity, and low density altitude
The key concepts of effective workload management are

a. planning and preparing for high workload periods during periods of lower workload, and assigning appropriate priority to tasks
b. working as fast as possible and postponing important tasks until the landing approach, when your concentration will be at its peak
c. listening only for your own call sign on the radio, delegating as many tasks as possible to others, and omitting low-priority tasks
One of the things that can cause hyperventilation is

a. stress
b. lack of oxygen
c. lack of proper nourishment
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

a. look to the side of the object and scan slowly
b. scan the visual field very rapidly
c. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly
Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to
Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

a. 31 minutes.
b. 27 minutes.
c. 29 minutes
What effect does a 35-gallon fuel burn (main tanks) have on the weight and balance if the
airplane weighed 2,890 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2,452 at takeoff?

a. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is aft of limits
b. Weight is reduced by 210 pounds and the CG is unaffected
c. Weight is reduced to 2,680 pounds and the CG moves forward
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

a. Unusable fuel and undrainable oil
b. Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment
c. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity
What information should be entered in block 9 for a VFR day flight?

a. The name of destination airport if no stopover for more than 1 hour is anticipated
b. The name of the airport of first intended landing
c. The name of the airport where the aircraft is based
(Area 3) The VOR is tuned to Elizabeth City VOR, and the aircraft is positioned over Shawboro. Which VOR indication is correct?

a. 2
b. 5
c. 9
When flying a VFR approach at night there is a natural tendency to use a

a. lower-than-normal approach
b. higher-than-normal approach
c. lower-than-normal groundspeed
For a night cross-country flight, you are required by the FARs to carry enough fuel, considering wind and forecast weather, to complete the flight to

a. your primary destination at economy cruise speed
b. your destination, plus an additional 30 minutes at normal cruise speed
c. the first point of intended landing and fly after that for at least 45 minutes at normal cruise speed
While you are tracking a VOR radial, what factor causes the most difference between the
selected course and the magnetic heading?

a. Wind
b. Deviation
c. Variation
To convert true heading to magnetic heading, you need to

a. add or subtract the appropriate deviation listed on the compass correction card.
b. compute the wind correction angle and add it to or subtract it from the true heading.
c. subtract easterly or add westerly variation, determined from the isogonic lines on the chart
Calculate the moment of the airplane and determine which category is applicable.:
Empty weight: 1,350 lb.
Empty moment/1000: 51.5
Pilot and front passenger: 310 lb.
Rear passenger: 96 lb.
Fuel: 38 gal.
Oil: 8 qt.

a. 80.8, utility category
b. 79.2, utility category
c. 81.2, normal category
The "I'm Safe" Checklist provides a

a. thorough preflight of your aircraft
b. means for the FAA to evaluate you
c. self-assessment of your safety as a pilot
What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50°F on the density altitude if the
pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?

a. 1,650-foot increase
b. 1,200-foot increase
c. 1,400-foot increase
How will the flight plan be affected if it is not opened, or activated, until 2030Z?

a. There will be no effect
b. The FSS will begin a phone search of the departure airport to determine why the pilot has not opened the flight plan
c. The FSS will cancel the flight plan automatically if it is not opened within one hour of the proposed departure time
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

a. 18.4 gallons
b. 15.7 gallons
c. 16.2 gallons
Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude: 7,500 ft.
Headwind: 8 kt.
Temperature: 32°F
Runway: Hard surface

a. 1,004 feet
b. 1,205 feet
c. 1,506 feet
(Refer to image before question #28 Stage 3 Exam, James) What magnetic bearing should the pilot use to fly TO the station?

a. 210°
b. 010°
c. 145°
To maximize your communication effectiveness, you should

a. stay ahead of the conversation by anticipating what is being said
b. mentally "fill in the blanks" when you receive incomplete communications
c. repeat complex communications back to the sender to verify that you have understood them correctly
The compass heading for the trip will be

a. 030°
b. 038°
c. 056°
(Refer to info before question 31 Stage 3 Exam James) If you have several cruising altitudes selected for a flight, how are they entered in block 7?

a. Enter all altitudes
b. List only the last altitude
c. List only the first altitude
On a cross-country flight, point A is crossed at 1500 hours and the plan is to reach point B at 1530 hours. Use the following information to determine the indicated airspeed required to reach point B on schedule.

Distance between A and B: 70 NM
Forecast wind: 310° at 15 kt.
Pressure altitude: 8,000 ft.
Ambient temperature: -10°C
True course: 270°

The required indicated airspeed would be approximately

a. 137 knots
b. 126 knots
c. 152 knots
Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1). The wind is from 330° at 25 knots, the true airspeed is 100 knots, and the magnetic variation is 10° east.

a. 352°
b. 002°
c. 012°
If your aircraft's fuel consumption rate is 5.6 g.p.h., how much fuel will it use on a flight of 230 n.m. with an average groundspeed of 93 knots?

a. 11.3 gallons
b. 12.5 gallons
c. 13.8 gallons
***not c
On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

a. 183°
b. 200°
c. 003°
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

a. The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing
b. The tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway
c. The tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing
Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT: 90°F
Pressure altitude: 4,000 ft.
Weight: 2,800 lb.
Headwind component: 10 kt.

a. 1,775 feet
b. 1,525 feet
c. 1,950 feet
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to

a. rely upon the aircraft instrument indications
b. concentrate on yaw, pitch, and roll sensations
c. consciously slow the breathing rate until symptoms clear and then resume normal breathing rate
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during
nighttime hours is to use

a. peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
b. regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions
c. a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30- degree sector
(Area 5) The VOR is tuned to the Dallas/Fort Worth VORTAC. The omnibearing selector (OBS) is set on 253°, with a TO indication, and a right course deviation indicator (CDI) deflection.
What is the aircraft's position from the VORTAC?

a. East-northeast.
b. North-northeast.
c. West-southwest
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?

a. Follow the rules
b. Rules do not apply in this situation
c. I know what I am doing
Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

a. 075°
b. 082°
c. 091°
If airplane B has 280° set in the course selector, the VOR indications will correspond to those of instrument

a. 1
b. 3
c. 6
(Refer to Illustration 1 before question 44, Stage 3 exam James) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a. South
b. North
c. East
What is the maximum amount of baggage that may be loaded aboard the airplane for the CG to remain within the moment envelope?.:
Empty weight: 1,350 lb.
Empty moment/1000: 51.5
Pilot and front passenger: 250 lb.
Rear passengers: 400 lb.
Fuel: 30 gal.
Oil: 8 qt.

a. 105 pounds
b. 110 pounds
c. 120 pounds
(Refer to Illustration 3 before question 46, Stage 3 exam James) The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?

a. Southeast
b. East
c. West
Determine if the airplane weight and balance is within limits.
Front seat occupants: 415 lb.
Rear seat occupants: 110 lb.
Fuel, main tanks: 44 gal.
Fuel, aux. tanks: 19 gal.
Baggage: 32 lb.

a. Weight within limits, CG out of limits
b. 19 pounds overweight, CG within limits
c. 19 pounds overweight, CG out of limits forward
Which statement best defines hypoxia?

a. A state of oxygen deficiency in the body
b. An abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed
c. A condition of gas bubble formation around the joints or muscles
Based on the following conditions, what is the total moment/1000 pound-inches?

Empty weight: 1,467 lb.
Empty moment/1000: 57.3 pound-inches
Pilot and front passenger: 300 lb.
Rear seat passenger: 100 lb.

Baggage area 1: 100 lb.
Fuel: 40 gal.

a. 40.4
b. 47.6
c. 96.8
Determine the density altitude for these conditions:
Altimeter setting: 30.35
Runway temperature: +25°F
Airport elevation: 3,894 ft. MSL

a. 2,000 feet MSL
b. 2,900 feet MSL
c. 3,500 feet MSL
What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.

a. 48 minutes
b. 44 minutes
c. 52 minutes