Upgrade to remove ads

Only $35.99/year

Final Pharm FINAL

Terms in this set (311)

A drug affect that is neither predictable nor dose related is called:

A drug is defined as a biologically active substance that can modify:

Cellular functions

A drug's generic name is selected by the:

U.S. Adopted Name Council

A genetics related, abnormal drug response is called?

Idiosyncratic reaction

A noncompetitive antagonist will

Reduce the maximal response of the angonist

Advantages of oral administration of a drug:

-Wide selection of dose form
-Large surface area for absorption
-Convenience

Disadvantages of oral administration of a drug:

It is less predictable with response

A prodrug is an inactive parent drug that becomes transformed into an active drug compound

Related to the amount of a drug needed to produce an effect

Related to the maximal effect of a drug regardless of dose

The first pass effect

The drug passes through the liver before it circulates in the systemic circulation

Cholinergics increase:

-Salivary flow
-Esophageal and gastric motility
-Pilocarpine (used to treat xerostomia)

In the autonomic nervous system the target organ is innervated by what neuron?

Post-ganglionic efferent

-Is an adrenergic receptor agonist and is the drug of choice for acute asthmatic attacks and anaphylaxis
-It is added to local anesthetic solutions to delay absorption and reduce systemic toxicity

Prostaglandins can sensitize the pain receptors to substance such as

Why should aspirin not be given until age 18?

Reye's syndrome

Can pain be treated with a placebo pill?

The opioid analgesics depress

The respiratory center in dose-related manner

Codeine causes nausea and vomiting by inhibiting the receptor trigger zone where?

When opioids and nonopioids are combined they cause fewer adverse reactions?

In the beginning, the organisms responsible for a dental infection are

Primarily gram-positive, such as Streptococci viridans

Treating gram-positive is easier and the drug of choice is

Penicillin/Amoxicillin

Clindamycin affects

Both gram-positive cocci
Gram-positive
Gram-negative anaerobes

Do we use antiinfective agents very commonly in dentistry?

Would you prescribe an antiinfective agent if adequate drainage can be obtained?

No, unless the patient is immunocompromised

Most common adverse effect with antibiotics?

What drug has the highest incidence of GI complaints?

Amoxicillin is available mixed with clavulanic acid =

Normally only used IV and has narrow spectrum against many gram-positive-acts by inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

Adverse reaction of Vancomycin:

Red Man Syndrome

Chemical substances produced by microorganisms that have the capacity, in dilute solutions, to destroy or suppress the growth or multiplication of organisms or prevent their action

Requires at least 3 drugs concurrently in all active cases-Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide are combined for treatment of pulmonary TB

Antifungal agents normally end in

Which antifungal agent is the only drug that doesn't end in -ozol and inhibits C. albicans?

Which antifungal agent increase caries risk?

Which antifungal agent should not be take with H2 blockers?

Which antifungal agents are the most useful in dentistry?

-Nystatin
-Imidazoles
-Clotrimazole
-Ketoconazole
-Miconazole

-Is oral triazole antifungal agent, used to treat certain fungal infections
-Used prophetically against candidiasis in immunocompromised patients or for the treatment of candid infections that do not respond to other agents

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

Drugs for the treatment of Herpes Simplex:

-Acyclovir
-Docosanol
-Penciclovir
-Famciclovir

Which drugs are protease inhibitors?

-Saquinavir
-Ritonavir
-Atazanavir
-Tripranavir

-Prevents the maturation of HIV-infected cells
-The difference between the protease inhibitors and the other groups is that the former can interfere with the action of the HIV-infected cells

Protease inhibitors

3 "cocktail" medications usually taken by HIV patients

-Nucleoside
-Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
-Protease inhibitor

What are the actions of HIV medications?

-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor: Zidovudine, Tenofovir, Abacavir
-Nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor: Nevirapine
-Protease inhibitor: Saquinavir

Prilocaine can induce:

Methemoglobinemia

What is the major disadvantage of opioids?

Prolonged respiratory depression

Nitrous oxide provides:

Anxiety relief coupled with analgesia

Prevents the spread of seizures in tissues surrounding the anatomic seizure focus

Benzodiasepines

Benzodiazepines are preferable to the barbiturates as hypnotics because the risk of physical addiction or serious poisoning is much less

Benzodiazepines have a wider therapeutic effect

Which is considered the strongest centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant?

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

Use of anti anxiety agents should be discourage in the dentist's office because it encourages addiction

To reverse some of the effects of a benzodiazepines what can be used?

What diminishes the effectiveness of benzodiazepines?

Tobacco or smoking

The efficacy of the benzodiazepines in treatment of chronic insomnia has not been demonstrated

What is the original sedative-hypnotic agent?
-They have no significant analgesic effect

Potassium sparing diuretics are known as

Only about _____ % of those with known HTN are properly treated

What drug is most often used for the management of acute anginal episodes?

Ask the patient about Viagra (PDE5 inhibitor) within the last 24 hours.
This is contraindicated because it can cause drastic BP drop

ACE inhibitors end in the suffix

________ are now considered first-line therapy and are the cornerstone of HF therapy

CCBs end in the suffix

Angiotensin receptor blockers end with the suffix

A person who has had an MI should wait _____ months before receiving dental care

What blocker lowers blood pressure primarily by decreasing cardiac output?

B-adrenergic blocking agents end in the suffic

The _______ node has the fastest rate of depolarization and therefore directs all the other cells to the heart

By far the most often used nitrate for management of acute anginal episodes

Nitrglycerin (NTG)

Is a vasodilator that produces a systemic relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

Nitroglycerin (NTG)

What is the most common cardiovascular disease?

Generalized seizures divided into two groups include:

-Absence
-Tonic-clonic

Involve action of only part of the brain

Partial seizures

Which medications were associated with gingival hypertrophy or gingival overgrowth

-Phentyoin
-diplines
-Verapamil

Has been associated with hepatotoxicity

Which of the following agents is classified as an antipsychotic?

Adrenal crisis is rare in dentistry

What is a disease or condition produced by an excess of adrenocorticosteroids?

Cushing syndrome

Signs of Cushing disease:

-Fat deposit on back of neck
-Moon face
-Muscle wasting

What is a disease or condition produced by a deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids?

Addision's disease

A 5mg oral dose of hydrocortisone would be equivalent to what dose of triamcinolone?

A _____ is placed between the MDI and the mouth to increase the amount of drug delivered to the lungs

Corticosteroids increase resistance to infection

Scheduled III controlled substance abused by bodybuilders?

Oral lesion with increased estrogen and progestin

What can occur with hyper secretion of the pituitary hormones:

-Sexual precocity
-Goiter
-Hypothyroidism
-Cushing disease
-Acromagaly
-Giantism

Rapidly growing cells, such as neoplastic cells, are more susceptible to inhibition or destruction by

Antineoplatic agents

Herbal products in the United States are regulated by which governmental agency?

Dietary supplement and education act

Has been used in dentistry for topical analgesia for relief of dental pain, but no published clinical trials have confirmed its efficacy

Oil of cloves (eugenol)

Can increase the risk for bleeding when taken in conjunctions with antiplatelet drugs or anticoagulants

-Garlic
-Ginkgo biloba
-Feverfew

A neuromuscular blocking agent, and positive-pressure oxygen are the agents of choice when drug-induced laryngospasm is present

Succinylcholine

An AED can save up to ____ % of persons experiencing cardiac arrest if it is administered within the first 5 minutes of cardiac arrest

Barbiturates reduce the effects of the following drugs except which one?

NSAIDs can antagonize the effects of which of the following antihypertensive medications?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)

Which of the following agents used for dental anxiety has a fast onset and short half-life?

Which is the primary adverse reaction associated with the use of benzodiazepines for conscious sedation?

Respiratory depression

Which of the following agents may decrease the effectiveness of benzodiazepines?

Antianxiety agents are most commonly administered orally because the effective dose of particulate antianxiety agent is very predictable

Benzodiazepines enhance or facilitate the action of the neurotransmitter

y-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

A sedative hypnotic agent can produce varying degrees of central nervous system (CNS) depression. the same drug may be either a sedative or a hypnotic

Which of the following muscle relaxants has peripheral rather than central action?

Which of the following drugs is often used first for treating patients with generalized tonic-clonic seizures even though it is not Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved for this use?

Lamotrigine is an effective treatment for myoclonic seizures

Nitroglycerin (NTG) is used for what cardiovascular disease?

Angina pectoris

Which of the following is the most important dental drug interaction with the thiazide diuretics?

Nonsteroidal antiinflammtory drugs (NSAIDs)

Each of the following agents is associated with development of gingival hypertrophy except one. Which is the exception?

Which is the treatment of choice for the treatment of heart failure (HF)?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

Which antihypertensive agent is associated with a nonproductive cough?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor

Which of the following is the longest acting barbiturate?

Phenobarbital (luminal)

The nonbenzodiazepine, benzodiazepine receptor agonists (NBRAs) are used to treat

Benzodiazepines are indicated for epilepsy because they

Limit the spread of abnormal activity to other parts of the brain

Although a lethal dose of barbiturates can only be approximated, severe poisoning will follow the ingestion of ____ times the hypnotic dose

Which of the following benzodiazepines is the drug of choice for treatment of repetitive intractable seizures that require IV therapy?

Diazepam (Valium)

Which of the following agents are the most commonly prescribed type of anti anxiety drugs?

Benzodiazepines

___ may be used to reverse some of the effects of a benzodiazepine

Flumazenil (luminal)

Barbiturates act on nerves by enhancing the binding of which neurotransmitter to its receptor?

The use of barbiturates is absolutely contraindicated in patients with a positive family history of

The clinical effects of benzodiazepines in humans are ___ at lower doses

Anxiety reduction and panic reduction

The therapeutic index of benzodiazepines is ____ that of the barbiturates

Which agent has selective anxiolytic action without hypnotic, anticonvulsant, or muscle-relaxant properties?

Barbiturates has no significant analgesic effects

Which is best for all types of anxiety and muscle strain?

Benzodiazepines

When benzodiazepines are used in dentistry to produce conscious sedation, the appearance of ____ is used as an initial endpoint for the dose administered

Which of the following parenteral benzodiazepines seems to have the greatest likelihood to produce amnesia?

Triazolam (halcion)

______ is an intravenously (IV) administered benzodiazepine that is used for conscious sedation in oral health care

Midazolam (versed)

The benzodiazepines are preferable to the barbiturates as hypnotics because the risk of physical addiction or serious poisoning is much less. The efficacy of the benzodiazepines in the treatment of chronic insomnia has been demonstrated for longer than 2 years

The following are actions of metoclopramide except one. Which is the exception?

Decreases peristalsis by acting directly on smooth muscle of the gastrointestinal tract

Newer types of combination therapy for treating ulcers often combine an antibiotic with a(n)

Proton-pump inhibitor

Which of the following adverse reactions is common to all of the currently marketed H2-blocking agent?

Abnormal liver function tests

Which of the following statements is true concerning epilepsy?

The majority of epileptic patients have idiopathic epilepsy

Which of the following seizures are categorized as generalized seizures?

Both A and CAbsence seizures Simple (Jacksonian) seizures

Each of the following statements is true of absence seizures except one. Which is the exception?

To avoid trauma, tongue blades should not be used in the oral cavity

Which of the following statements is true of absence seizures and tonic-clonic seizures?

Both types of seizures involve the loss of consciousness

Seizures characterized by a duration for longer than 30 minutes are called _____ seizures

Status epilepticus

Which of the following statements is true regarding adverse reactions to antiepileptic agents?

CNS depression is a common side effect of antiepileptic agents

Valproate is associated with toxicity of which of the following organs?

Lamotrigine (Lamictal) belongs to which of the following classes of antiepileptic drugs?

Inactivates sodium channels

Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is commonly used as monotherapy for partial onset and generalized tonic-clonic seizures and may be effective for children with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

Levetiracetam (Keppra)

Which antiepileptic agent is commonly prescribed for trigeminal neuralgia?

Which of the following agents interferes with platelets?

Both A and B Carbamazepine
Valproic acid

Which agent has a narrow therapeutic index because its metabolism is a saturable process?

Gingival enlargement may occur in what percentage of chronic users of phenytoin?

Gingival enlargement as a consequence of phenytoin therapy most commonly affects the ____ facial gingiva

Maxillary anterior

The cause of phenytoin gingival enlargement is

Surgical intervention to reduce phenytoin-induced gingival enlargement should wait until at least 18 months after cessation of therapy because

Some patients experience additional reduction in the enlargement after the 1-year period

Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for the treatment of ____ seizures

Generalized absence

Clonazepam (Klonopin) is

Used as an adjunct to treat ethosuximide-resistant absence seizures

Which of the following antiepileptics may be used to manage trigeminal neuralgia?

A patient experiencing tonic-clonic seizures should be managed by

Tilting the patient's head to one side to prevent aspiration

The drug of choice for treatment of absence seizures is

Each of the following is an example of a type of generalized seizure except one. Which is the exception?

Each of the following is considered a drug of choice for treatment of generalized tonic-clonic seizures except one. Which is the exception?

Eslicarbazepine

Which is the most important drug interaction of antiepileptic drugs?

Stimulation of hepatic microsomal enzymes

How long should a person who has had a myocardial infarction wait before receiving dental care?

Which of the following is the primary type of drug recommended for patients who have edema or fluid retention with heart failure (HF)?

The ____ has the fastest rate of depolarization and therefore directs all the other cells of the heart

Sinoatrial (SA) node

Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmics is associated with gingival enlargement?

Calcium channel blockers

Which of the following categories of drug is the best choice to relieve the acute symptoms of angina?

Nitroglycerin (NTG, Nitrostat, Nitrolingual)

Nitroglycerin (NTG) is a(n) _____ that produces relaxation of vascular smooth muscle throughout the body

The use of nitroglycerine (NTG) is contraindicated if sildenafil (Viagra) has been administered within 24 hours. This is because the NTG-sildenafil combination can precipitate a hypertensive crisis

Nitroglycerin (NTG) should be

Available to the dental team for treatment of an acute anginal attack

Before administering nitroglycerine (NTG), the dental team should make sure that the patient has not used a _____ within the past 24 hours

Which of the following is the most common cardiovascular disease?

Which of the following statements is true regarding hypertension?

Both A and B are TRUE
High blood pressure eventually damages internal organs

Approximately _____% of people with hypertension are properly treated

Eating bananas when taking thiazide diuretics will

Replenish potassium

Which of the following groups of diuretics are called the "puny" diuretics?

Potassium-sparing

Which of the following agents can worsen asthma?

Propranolol (Inderal)

B-adrenergic blockers lower blood pressure primarily by

Decreasing cardiac output

Which of the following categories of antihypertensive agents end in the suffix-dipine?

Calcium channel blockers

Which class of agents is of special benefit to a diabetic with nephropathy?

Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEIs)

Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) end with the suffix

Which agent is most likely to cause xerostomia?

A patient takin warfarin (Coumadin) may experience interactions with which of the following?

All of the above
Phenobarbital
Erythromycin
Aspirin

The presence of ____ in the ora cavity can be a sign of an adverse effect associated with the oral anticoagulants

Petechial hemorrhages

Which of the following agents has the most serious drug interaction with warfarin?

Extrapyramidal reactions such as an acute spasm of the mandible caused by first-generation antipsychotics such as phenothiazines

All of the above are correct
Can be treated with anticholinergic agents
Are disorders of muscle control
Include Akathisia

The most extensive use of the corticosteroids in both medicine and dentistry is in

Inflammatory and allergic conditions

Second-generation antipsychotics have fewer side effects than first-generation antipsychotics

Which of the following o=groups of medications are considered first-line treatment for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Anticholingerics

Which of the following drugs is the most effective long-term treatment for control of symptoms in all patients with mild, moderate or severe persistent asthma?

Corticosteroids

Which one of the following drugs can result in oral candidiasis?

Leukitriene modifiers are used to manage patients with ____ that is not controlled by B2-agonists and corticosteroid inhibitors

Which type of drug is used in conjunction with low-dose corticosteroids to treat patients with persistent asthma that is not well controlled with low-dose inhaled corticosteroids?

Long-acting B2-agonists

A spacer is often placed between the metered-dose inhaler and the mouth to decrease the amount of drug delivered to the lungs

Orally inhaled corticosteroids produce an immediate benefit in an acute asthma attack

Intranasal corticosteroids are considered first-line therapy for treating moderate to severe allergic rhinitis

Adrenocorticosteroids are released from the

ACTH is secreted from the _____ in response to ______

Pituitary gland; CRH

Which of the following choices is a disease or condition produced by an excess of adrenocorticosteroids?

Cushing syndrome

A 5mg oral dose of hydrocortisone (Cortisol) would be equivalent to what dose of triamcinolone?

All of the following are signs of Cushing syndrome EXCEPT for which one?

For which type of oral lesion would glucocorticoids be contraindicated?

Herpectic gingivostomatitis

A deficiency of adrenocorticosteroids is ____, and an excess is ______

Addison disease; Cushing syndrome

Corticosteroids are mainly used in medicine and dentistry for treatment of which types of conditions?

Inflammatory conditions

Which of the following psychiatric disorders involves a loss of perception of reality?

The amount of any drug prescribed for a depressed patient should not exceed a _____-day supply

In general, lower potency first-generation antipsychotic agents such as chlorpromazine (Thorazine) will have more of which of the following effects in contrast to the higher potency first-generation antipsychotic agents such as haloperidol (Haldol); (1) sedation, (2) orthostatic hypotension, (3) autonomic effects, (4) extrapyramidal effects?

First-generation antipsychotics would have little effect on which of the following symptoms of psychosis?

First-generation antipsychotics are primarily ______ antagonists

Patients taking first-generation antipsychotics can experience severe intermittent temporomandibular joint (TMJ) pain. This pain is a consequence of

Extrapyramidal side effects

Which of the following second-generation antipsychotics is associated with agranulocytosis?

Epinephrine should not be used to treat vasomotor collapse in patients taking first-generation antipsychotics because the first-generation antipsychotic are

a-adrenergic blockers

First-generation antipsychotic therapy must often be combined with _____drugs such as benztropine to control excessive extrapyramidal stimulation

Anticholinergic

Which of the following choices is recommended to counteract the anticholinergic effects of first-generation antipsychotics?

Sugarless products or artificial saliva

Which of the following are adverse reactions associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?

Both B and C
Nausea and diarrhea in approximately 15% to 30% of patients
Xerostomia in 10% to 15% of the population

Abrupt withdrawal of serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) can lead to symptoms of

Which of the following side effects is the most serious peripheral side effect associated with the use of tricyclic antidepressants?

Cardiac toxicity

Bupropion is reserved for patients who are not responsive to other agents because of a potential for

Which of the following medications is used to treat bipolar depression?

Patients undergoing lithium therapy should be observed for signs of overdose toxicity, including

Muscle rigidity and fasciculations

Which of the following categories of medications has recently been approved for the treatment of bipolar disorder?

Second-generation antipsychotics

Which of the following antipsychotic agents have been approved for adjunctive treatment of major depressive disorder?

Second-generation antipsychotics

Which choice represents the current most commonly prescribed antidepressant agent?

Selective serotonin uptake inhibitor (SSRI)

Which was the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)?

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

Second-generation antipsychotics are primarily antagonist at all of the following receptor types EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

Which antidepressant is associated with priapism?

SSRIs tend to produce CNS stimulation rather than CNS depression

Asthma is characterized by _____ airway obstruction and is associated with reduction in _____ airflow

Reversible; Expiratory

Patients with ______ asthma experience symptoms less than two times a month, and the symptoms do not interfere with normal activity

Asthma may be precipitated by (1) allergens, (2) exercise, (3) stress

Patients with asthma should bring their fast-acting ______ inhaler to be used prophetically or in the management of an acute asthmatic attack in the dental office

Which of the following respiratory diseases is associated with irreversible airway obstruction?

Both B and C
Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema

Which of the following statements represents the primary advantage of the use of metered-dose inhalers (MDIs)?

The inhaled dose can be accurately measured

The first line of treatment for intermittent asthma is a

Short-acting B2-adrenergic agonist

Albuterol is a bronchodilator that can be administered via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). It is recommended in prophylactically treating (preventing) chronic asthma

Which one of the following recommendations would you not make to your patients with asthma?

Avoid acetaminophen

Which of the following statements is true of leukitrienes (LTs)?

Both B and C are true
Its produced by cells of inflammation
It produces increased secretion of mucus and mucosal edema

_____ is the least toxic of all asthma nedications

Which the following medications is used to treat persistent asthma and the bronchospasm associated with chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

A significant drug interaction occurs between theophylline and _____ that can result in toxic serum levels of theophylline

The drug of first choice for emphysema is

The term _____ refers to agents that are H1-blockers

Which of the following common antihistamines produces the most sedation?

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Antihistamines such as loratadine (Claritin) are non sedating because they

Do not cross the blood-brain barrier

Which of the following types of medication are considered first-line therapy for the treatment of moderate to severe allergic rhinitis?

Intranasal corticosteroids

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) is an intranasal _____ drug

Anticholinergic

Which of the following types of drugs is known to increase intraocular pressure if inadvertently placed in the eye?

Intranasal anticholinergic

Which type of medication is recommended for the treatment of intermittent asthma?

Short-acting B2-agonist

A high-dose inhaled corticosteroid is recommended for which form of asthma?

Severe persistant

Asthma is characterized by _____ airway obstruction, and chronic bronchitis by ____ airway obstruction

Reversible; Irreversible

Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer?

Cromolyn sodium (Nasalcrom)

_______ is a concern when administering local anesthetics with sulfating agents as a preservative for the vasoconstrictor

Bronchoconstriction

In status asthmatics, patients have persistent life-threatening

Diabetic gastroparesis can be treated with

Which of the following statements is true of metformin?

It lowers blood glucose but, used alone, does not produce hypoglycemia

Which oral anti diabetic agent requires administration for 6 to 14 weeks to achieve maximal therapeutic effect?

The criterion for a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus includes a hemoglobin A1C value of _____% or higher?

The posterior pituitary secretes

Increases in estrogen and progestin levels are associated with which oral lesion?

Which of the following agents is categorized as a schedule III controlled substance?

Which of the following medications is indicated for the palliative treatment of advanced breast cancer in postmenopausal women?

Each of the following is a potential consequence of hyper secretion of pituitary hormones except one. Which is the exception?

Diabetes insipidus

The medical use of bromocriptine (Parlodel) is to

Inhibit pituitary function

Which pituitary hormone is used to treat diabetes insipidus?

Vasopressin (Pitressin)

Which drug is used to treat symptoms of menopause and postmenopausal osteoporosis?

The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland secrete growth hormone

Which of the following statements is true regarding systemic complications of diabetes?

Both B and C are true
-Neuropathy is a complication of diabetes
-Gangrene can occur in peripheral extremities

Contributing factors to gangrene in the extremities of diabetic patients include

All of the above
-Poor eyesight
-Poor circulation
-Reduced sensation in the extremities

The primary goal of treating diabetes is to maintain hemoglobin A1C levels

As close to normal as possible (<7%)

Insulin is usually administered

By subcutaneous injection

Human insulin is made from pork insulin by

Transpeptidation

Which oral anti diabetic agent produces lactic acidosis as a significant adverse effect?

Adverse reactions to metformin occur primarily in the

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) recommends checking serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels before starting therapy with _____ and periodically thereafter

Thiazolidinediones

Which is considered first-line therapy for a patient with type 2 diabetes?

Diet and exercise

For every percentage point drop in hemoglobin A1C, the risk of microvascular complications decreases by ____%

Exenatide (Byetta) will lower hemoglobin A1C levels by ____%

Opioid withdrawal includes all signs and symptoms except:

Codeine has all effects in usual therapeutic doses except:

Central nervous system excitation

Which route of administration will reduce the systemic distribution of opioids?

What is the major route of metabolism for the opioids?

What is the most commonly used opioid in dentistry?

What is the usual cause of death in opioid overdose?

Respiratory depression

Which opioid family is most commonly used preoperatively or during general anesthesia?

Fentanyl family

_______ is the antiinfective drug of choice for prophylactic premeditation for a patient with artificial heart valves if the patient is not allergic to penicillin

What antiinfective agent is most likely to produce an allergic reaction?

Mr. Garza indicated in his medical history that he is taking isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and rifampin. What is the most likely reason he is taking these medications?

Which group of antiinfectives is commonly used to treat oral infections of periodontal origin?

Clindamycin is associated with the serious adverse drug effect of

Pseudomembranous colitis

Which class of antibiotics is structurally related to the penicillins and has similar mechanisms of actions and indications as the penicillins?

What are some advantages of amoxicillin over penicillin V?

Less frequent dosing

What is the primary advantage of penicillin V or penicillin VK over penicillin G?

Better oral absorption

All are common adverse effects of antiinfectives except:

Central nervous system depression

With a primarily anaerobic gram-negative infection, which antibiotic would be most effective?

All are classifications of nonopijoid except:

All are adverse drug effects of aspirin except:

The primary site of actions for nonopijoid analgesics is

At there peripheral nerve endings

Acetaminophen has these pharmacologic actions except:

Antuinflammatory

Aspirin is absorbed rapidly from:

Stomach and small intestine

Which analgesic would be best for a patient with asthma for relief of a headache or other mild to moderate pain?

NSAIDs and aspirin reduce inflammation by inhaling the synthesis of

NSAIDs are indicated for which conditions?

What is the drug of choice for inflammatory dental pain?

Two drugs that are found to be chemically equivalent, but not biologically equivalent or therapeutically equivalent are said to differ in

Bioavailability

Two drug formulations that produce similar concentration in the blood and tissues after drug administration are termed ______ equivalent

The route of administration of a drug affects

Both the onset and duration of response

When different drugs compete for the same receptor sites, the drug with the stronger affinity for the receptor will bind to

More receptors than the drug with the weaker affinity

When a drug has affinity for a receptor and produces no effect, it is called a(n)

Competitive antagonist

Which is true of a drug with a stronger affinity for a receptor site versus a drug with a weaker affinity for the same site?

A drug with stronger affinity is more potent than a drug with weaker affinity

A noncompetitive antagonist

Reduces the maximal response of the agnoist

The need for an increasingly larger dose of a drug to obtain the same effects as the original dose is

A patients perception that a pill without active ingredients is having a pharmacologic effect is termed

What type of administration involves the injections of solutions into the spinal subarachnoid space?

Intrathecal route

What route is used to administer the tuberculosis skin test?

Which of the following routes of drug administration produces the most rapid response?

The movement of a drug from one site of the body to other sites is called

Which organ is involved in the first-pass effect after oral administration of a drug?

Advantages of oral administration of a drug include all of the following except:

More predictable response than intravenous administration

What of the following choices is considered the safest, least expensive, and most convenient route of administering drugs?

An enteral route of administration would be:

Which term refers to the time required for a drug to begin to have its effect?

Other sets by this creator

Oral Pathology

14 terms

Oral Microbiology and Immunology

125 terms

Dental Anatomy

165 terms

Embryology and Histology

164 terms

Other Quizlet sets

Physics Final

12 terms

GAIT TRAINING

25 terms

Food Temperatures

26 terms

331 Exam 2

51 terms