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Fire Officer

From Fire Officer Principles and Practices
STUDY
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Supervisory duties of a fire officer I would include
Initiating and completing station maintenance requests, preparing budgets, conducting preliminary accident investigations and supervising on fire unit
Would a fire officer I determine the area of origin or preliminary cause of fire
No
There are approximately how many fire departments in the US?
30000
In 24 BC Augustus Caesar created what was probably the first fire department composed of 600 slaves who were stationed at various locations around the Roman Empire. This group of firefighters were known as -
Familia Publica
Which fire fighter developed the first fire hydrants in New York City in 1817
George Smith
Public call boxes were first introduced in which American city during the 1850s?
Washington DC
Firefighters usually report to -
A supervising officer who is in charge of a single company
According to the principle of Span of Control, how many firefighters can a fire officer effectively control?
3-7
Guiding or directing a course of action is -
Leading
__ are developed to provide definite guidelines for present and future actions.
Policies
Activated fire protection alarms represent the second most common response, and represent __ of the responses.
20%
With activated fire protection system alarms what is the ratio of real fires in relation to false alarms?
1:100
Fire codes that are created or amended in reaction to a specific fire disaster are known as the -
Catastrophic theory of reform
Which one of the following would be the authority having jurisdiction for a local fire code?
The local fire chief, local code enforcement officer or local fire marshall
What is meant when states adopt mini/max codes.
The local jurisdiction do not have the option of adopting more restrictive regulations.
The National Building Code was first published by the National Board of Fire Underwriters in -
1905
A complete set of model codes would include which of the following?
(1) Building code. (2) Electrical code. (3) Plumbing code. (4) Mechanical code. (5) Fire prevention code.
All of the Above
The model code process normally updates every -
2 to 5 years.
Normally code regulations that applied to a particular building at the time it was built remain in effect, as long as -
The building is occupied for the same purpose.
Which of the following classes of standpipes provides both 1.5 and 2.5 inch connections with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene?
Class III.
Which of the following classes of standpipes provides a 1.5 inch connection with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene?
Class II.
What is the fire extinguishing system that extinguishes fire by displacing oxygen?
Carbon Dioxide.
Which fire extinguishing system is the preferred system for protecting cooking equipment?
Wet chemical.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Types of Building Construction?
NFPA 220.
What would you expect the fire-resistive rating would be for a Type IIIA building?
1 to 2 hours.
Mill construction would be considered -
Type IV construction or Heavy Timber construction.
The code requirements that are applied to a particular occupancy are determined by its -
Use group.
All of the following would be classified as "Residential" buildings by NFPA
Your home or Super 8 Inn or The local Bed-And-Breakfast.
All of the following would be classified as "Business" buildings by NFPA
Colleges and University buildings or Dentist offices orRadio and television stations.
NFPA 101 is the -
Life Safety code.
NFPA 704 is the -
Standard system for the Identification of the Hazardous Materials for Emergency Response.
What color diamond would you expect to represent a reactivity hazard in the NFPA 704 marking system?
Yellow
Once the exterior of a building is evaluated, where on the inside of the building should the fire safety inspection continue?
The basement
Less critical issues found during fire safety inspections should be corrected -
Within 30 to 90 days.
What NFPA standard is the Standard for Portable Fire Extinguishers?
NFPA 10.
Which organizations should conduct risk assessments?
Public or Not-for-profit or Private.
What is the Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System?
NFPA 1561.
Some fire departments require a set time to pass between a formal disciplinary action and consideration for an officer promotion. Which of the following best represents that time limit?
1 month, 6 months or one full year
A narrative that summarizes the scope of a job and provides examples of the typical tasks that a firefighter holding the job would be expected to perform is called the -
Job description
A technical worksheet to quantify the KSA of every classified municipal job is called the -
Class specification
Which type of examinations are widely used in the promotional process of the fire service?
Multiple-choice exams.
Up to __ of the promotional test will focus on the technical aspects of a supervising fire officer.
70%.
A managing fire officer exam usually includes __ technical questions and __ management and administration questions.
Fewer, more.
Which of the following is a common assessment center event, where the fire officer candidate must deal with a stack of correspondences, and related items that have accumulated on a fire officer's desk?
In-basket exercise.
The first key point of an interpersonal interaction assessment is -
Maintain control of the interview.
A valuable tool in studying for a promotional examination is to create a -
Personal study journal.
The most successful candidate in a role-playing exercise is the one who -
Acts naturally
A series of simulated exercises used to evaluate a candidate's competence in performing the actual tasks associated in performing a job best describes which of the following?
Assessment center.
Which of the following would be considered the first step in handling an "In-basket" exercise?
Review.
Emergency incident simulations fall into one of four formats. The first format, the fire officer candidate is provided information concerning an emergency incident. The candidate then must explain the actions that would be taken, and also describe what factors would be considered in making those decisions. This is called the -
Data dump question.
An exercise designed to test a candidate's ability to perform effectively as a supervisor is called a -
Interpersonal interaction exercise.
A metropolitan (metro-sized) fire department is a department with more than __ fully paid firefighters.
400
A group of battalion chiefs in Fairfax, Virginia were asked to derive a list of four basic tasks that they considered vital in order to be a good fire officer. Which of the following were included in their list?

(1) Beginning of shift report. (2) Notifications. (3) Fire fighting knowledge. (4) Decision making. (5) Problem solving.
1, 2, 4, 5.
When should the beginning of shift report be faxed to the battalion chief?
Within 15 minutes of the reporting time.
The first part of a beginning of shift report -
Provides the on-duty staffing information and sick leave list.
Battalion Chief Kevin says that hard decisions regarding issues that arise within a fire company should be made by battalion chiefs.
Battalion Chief Brett says that hard decisions regarding issues that arise within a fire company should be made by the company's fire officer.
Battalion Chief Jim says that company officers often complain about problems without ever offering any solutions.
Who is correct?
Both Battalion Chiefs Brett and Jim
Who is directly responsible for the supervision, performance, and safety of a crew of firefighters?
The Company-level Officer.
The formal fire department organization considers a fire officer to be the -
Fire chief's representative at the work location.
What should the company officer do if he/she is told to issue and enforce an unpopular order or directive?
Carry out the order.
A fire officer can improve his or her effectiveness in handling an unpopular order by -
Determining the story or history behind the order.
At an emergency scene the fire officer -
Must function as a commander and exercise strong direct supervision.
A fire officer establishing command upon arriving at an emergency scene should have -
A detailed knowledge of the responding companies.A mastery of local procedures.The ability to issue clear, direct orders.
Who has the responsibility to ensure that fire fighters working at a fire scene are confident and competent in their skills?
The fire officer.
Fire Officer Brett says that every fire officer has an obligation to keep their supervisor informed and to make appropriate decisions at his level of responsibility.
Fire Officer Liz says that every fire officer should consult with her supervisor before making major disciplinary actions or policy changes.
Who is correct?
Both are correct.
If a fire officer has the authority to solve a problem he/she should -
Solve the problem
Decision making and personal behavior that are consistent with the department's core values, mission statement, and value statements is known as -
Ethical behavior.
The complex system of inherent attributes that determine a person's moral and ethical actions and reactions, including the quality of being honest is known as -
Integrity
Which NFPA Standard is the Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications?
NFPA 1021
Which piece of legislation provides additional compensatory and punitive damages in cases of intentional discrimination under Title VII?
The Civil Rights Act of 1991.
when applied to fire departments means that the work force should reflect the community it serves
Diversity
An employee behavior(s) that requires an immediate corrective action by a supervisor is known as an -
Actionable item.
A firefighter's use of derogatory or racist terms about people from other ethnicities or genders -
Requires immediate corrective action by the supervisor.
The unwanted, uninvited, and unwelcome attention and intimacy in a nonreciprocal relationship is known as -
Sexual harrassment
Firefighters who want to initiate a harassment complaint can do so with which 3 levels of government?
Fire department or Federal Government or Local Government
is the most common reason that local governments are found liable during sexual harrassment cases?
Failure to investigate the complaint.
All sexual harassment complains should be -
Kept confidential.
What is meant by "On duty speech?"
To establish a workplace environment where certain behaviors and certain words are not used.
What is the second most important issue noted by administrative fire officers?
The need to make prompt notifications.
How would you characterize a type of sexual harassment in which a supervisor specifically promises a work-related benefit in return for a sexual favor?
Quid pro quo.
The civil rights of Americans are established by the federal government, and are enforced by the -
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
Trauma deaths resulting from motor vehicle collisions make up __ of annual line-of-duty deaths in the U.S. Fire Administration retrospective study.
22%
The most common fatal motor vehicle collision scenario involves -
A fire fighter responding to an emergency incident in a personal vehicle.
Which type of apparatus accounts for more fatal fire department vehicle collisions than the other three put together?
Tankers
What is the third most frequent category of fire fighter fatalities?
Asphyxiation and burns caused by caught or trapped fire fighters.
Every August, a working group of fire fighters and officers are assembled to analyze fire fighter near-miss reports using a tool modified for the U.S. Navy's Human Factors Analysis and Classification System (HFACS). The results of this analysis are provided in an annual report. These are divided into four different levels. What would be considered HFACS Level 1?
Unsafe Acts.
Which NFPA standard establishes Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications?
NFPA 1002.
Requiring fire fighters riding in apparatus to be seated, and wearing seat belts could prevent __ fatalities every year.
10 - 15.
The U.S. Fire Administration retrospect study shows that 82% of the fatal fire suppression incidents involve the death of a -
Single fire fighter.
What was the common scenario involving the death of a single fire fighter as discovered by the NIOSH?
There was a lack of an effective incident management system that included a fire fighter accountability component.
Which federal agency establishes federal workplace safety regulations in the United States?
OSHA
NFPA 1561 states that there must be a minimum of two fully equipped personnel standing by on-site, in a ready state for immediate rescue of injured or trapped fire fighting personnel. These fire fighters are commonly known as a -
Rapid Intervention Crew (RIC).
A system intended to track the identity, assignment, and location of all fire fighters operating at an incident scene is known as a -
Personnel Accountability System.
Command officers are accountable for the location and function of which of the following?
Full companies working at an emergency scene.
Who should know which fire companies are assigned to each sector or division?
The incident commander.
The rated time of an SCBA bottle is based on a standard consumption rate for an individual -
At rest.
Low-pressure warning devices are only effective if the fire fighter -
Is able to exit to a safe atmosphere in the time provided.
The minimum size of an interior work team is -
2 fire fighters.
One of the primary responsibilities of a fire officer working at an emergency scene is to -
Maintain a continual connection between the functions being performed by the company and the overall situation.
A hazard and situation assessment that weighs the risks involved in a particular course of action against the benefits to be gained for taking those risks is called -
Risk/benefit analysis.
Which of the following situations truly justifies exposing fire fighters to a high level of risk?
When there is a realistic chance of saving a life.
A written document that provides information that can be used by responding personnel to determine the appropriate actions in the event of an emergency at a specific facility is known as a -
Preincident plan.
A plan that incorporates the overall incident strategy, tactics, risk management evaluation, and organization structure for a particular situation is known as a -
Incident action plan.
Who is responsible for formulating the Incident Action Plan?
The incident commander.
The incident safety officer is a designated individual at an emergency scene who performs a set of duties and responsibilities that are specified in -
NFPA 1521.
The incident safety officer reports to the -
Incident commander.
The standard organizational structure that is used to manage assigned resources in order to accomplish stated objectives for an incident is known as the -
Incident command system.
The incident command system begins with the first arriving -
Officer
The potential for harm to people, property, or the environment is called a -
Hazard
Who should be trained to perform the basic duties of an incident safety officer?
Every fire officer.
Emergency incidents that require specific and advanced training and specialized tools and equipment would be considered -
Special operations
What NFPA standard describes the Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials incidents?
NFPA 472.
Some incidents based on their size, complexity, or duration require more than one safety officer. This group of assistant incident safety officers is called a -
Safety unit.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Station/Work Uniforms for Fire and Emergency Services?
NFPA 1975.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program?
NFPA 1581.
What is the first component of NFPA 1581?
A written policy with the goal of identifying and limiting exposures.
How soon after an exposure should the fire department infection control officer be notified?
Within 2 hours.
Who is charged with ensuring that all injuries, illnesses, exposures, and fatalities, or other potentially hazardous conditions and all accidents involving fire department vehicles, fire apparatus, equipment, or fire department facilities are thoroughly investigated?
The health and safety officer.
An unexpected event that interrupts or interferes with the orderly progress of fire department operations is known as a(an) -
Accident.
Who is charged with the responsibility of conducting an initial investigation and for fully investigating minor accidents?
The fire officer.
The identification and analysis of exposure to hazards, selection of appropriate risk management techniques to handle exposures, implementation of chosen techniques, and monitoring of results, with respect to the health and safety of members is known as -
Risk management
Which of the following statements best describes how a fire officer handles risk management?
Fire officers should focus attention on high-risk activities that are performed relatively infrequently.
Skill-based errors include the factors, attention failure, memory failure, and technical failure. Which type of failure would be due to lack of training?
Technical failure.
Which types of errors are based on visual illusions?
Perception-based errors.
What would be considered HFACS Level 3?
Unsafe Supervision.
What would be considered HFACS Level 4
Organizational Influences.
Which HFACS level analyzes substandard conditions and practices of the individual involved?
HFACS Level 2: Preconditions to Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 1
Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 2
Preconditions to Unsafe Acts.
HFACS Level 3
Unsafe Supervision.
HFACS Level 4
Organizational Influences.
Data collected by NFPA from 1977 to 2007 shows that __ of the 406 fatalities from collisions were volunteer fire fighters.
75%.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Health -Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members?
NFPA 1583.
The OSHA regulation that establishes specific requirements for fire fighters operating in an IDLH environment is known as the -
The Two-In, Two-Out Rule.
A personnel accountability system is required by which NFPA standard?
NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
description of a yellow-dog contract.
An employer requirement for a job applicant to pledge in writing not to join a union.
yellow-dog contracts?
Contracts upheld and enforced by the courts prior to 1932.
Which of the following laws made yellow-dog contracts unenforceable by any U S court?
Norris-LaGuardia Act
Prior to the Norris-La Guardia Act employers could obtain __ against strikes and picketing.
An injunction
The National Industrial Recovery Act (NIRA) guaranteed unions the right to collective bargaining. Which one of the following actions was taken in 1935 on the Act by the U S Supreme Court?
Found the act unconstitutional and struck it down.
Which one of the following acts established the National Labor Relations Board?
Wagner-Connery.
In 1936 the Wagner-Connery Act was upheld by the U S Supreme Court after a strike by which one of the following unions?
United Auto Workers (UAW).
A method whereby representatives of employees and employers determine the conditions of employment through direct negotiations normally resulting in a written contract setting forth the wages, hours, and other conditions to be observed for a stipulated period of time, is called -
Collective bargaining.
Between 1933 and 1934 labor organized against management and conducted citywide strikes and factory takeovers in numerous industrial sectors. This was called the -
Great Strike Wave.
Interfering with employees in a union, not hiring union members, stopping a union from forming and collecting money, firing union members, and refusing to bargain with a union would all be examples of -
Unfair labor practices.
Which one of the following acts prohibited management from interfering with, or coercing employees who tried to organize?
Wagner-Connery.
Which one of the following acts established the procedures that are commonly referred to as collective bargaining?
Wagner-Connery.
After World War II unions grew substantially stronger due to government protection and favorable court decisions. In an attempt to restore some balance, Congress passed one of the following acts over a presidential veto -
Taft-Hartley
The Taft-Hartley Act gave workers the right to -
Refrain from joining a union.
Which one of the following acts protects employees from being pressured by unions to join and to pay exorbitant union dues or initiation fees?
Taft-Hartley.
The Taft-Hartley Act provides for a __ day cooling-off period when negotiations for the renewal of a labor contract fail.
60
The Landrum-Griffin Act was a reaction to the wide-spread corruption revealed in older union locals. All of the following were included in the act
A requirement that labor unions disclose union assets and the names
and assets of every union officer and employee. A union members' bill of rights.Amended portions of the Taft-Hartley Labor Act.
Which of the following presidents issued an order that gave federal employees the right to bargain collectively for the first time?
Kennedy
Which one of the following was the name of the body created by President Nixon which was similar to the National Labor Relations Board for the private sector unions?
Federal Labor Relations Council.
Which one of the following Acts can the President invoke if a strike affects a key industry or puts the health and safety of the nation in jeopardy?
Taft-Hartley.
Strikes by state employees are -
Illegal in all but 10 states.
In 2009 laws were in effect in 22 states that state that a worker cannot be compelled as a condition of employment, to join or not to join, or pay dues to a labor union. These laws are known as -
Right-To-Work laws.
Which of the following cities had the first documented paid fire department in the United States established in 1853?
Cincinnati.
A union member appointed or elected to be the first line of labor representation at the workplace is called the -
Shop steward
The act of withholding labor for the purpose of effecting a change in wages, hours, or working conditions is known as -
Strike
When referring to the fire service, who is the ultimate victim when a fire department goes on strike?
The safety and welfare of the general public.
In what year did the International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) rescind its rule prohibiting strikes by its affiliated locals.
1968
Most municipal fire fighters have a __ workweek.
42 - 56 hours.
What is the term given to describe when two parties have reached a deadlock in negotiations?
An impasse.
The resolution of a dispute by a third and neutral party is known as -
Binding arbitration.
Collective bargaining is regulated by a complex system of -
Federal and state legislation.
Who generally would represent the first point of contact between the workers and the fire department organization?
The fire officer.
What is the root cause of almost every labor disturbance?
The failure to properly manage the relationship between labor and management.
A special interest group that can solicit funding and lobby local and national elected officials for their cause is known as -
A political action committee (PAC).
A dispute, claim or complaint that any employee or group of employees may have about the interpretation, application, and/or alleged violation of some provision of the labor agreement or personnel regulations is known as a -
Grievance.
The formal structured process that is employed within an organization to resolve a grievance is called a -
Grievance procedure.
Which of the following Acts guaranteed workers in the private sector overtime pay at one and one-half times the normal rate of pay beyond 40 hours in one week?
Fair Labor Standards.
A grievant presents his/her complaint verbally to a supervisor, shortly after the occurrence of the action. This action is known as -
Step zero or an informal grievance
If a grievance remains unresolved, the grievant can present it to the fire chief or his or her designee. This is known as the __ in the grievance procedure.
Fourth step.
The process of achieving proficiency through instruction and hands-on practice in the operation of equipment and systems that are expected to be used in the performance of assigned duties is referred to as -
Training
In 1869 Alexander Shaler first organized the Officer's School, the first organized instruction for fire officers in which of the following cities.
New York.
The first fire college in the United States was created in Los Angeles in 1925 by -
Ralph J. Scott.
Which NFPA standard, adopted in 1971, is the Standard for Fire Fighter Professional Qualifications?
NFPA 1001.
A system whereby a certification organization determines that a school or program meets with the requirements of the fire service is known as -
Accreditation
Which organization issues accreditation certification programs that are operated by 49 states, provinces, and other agencies?
NBFSPQ (National Board on Fire Service Professional Qualifications)
Which organization accredits fire-related degree programs at the college and university levels?
IFSAC (International Fire Service Accreditation Congress)
What is a core part of most Fire Instructor I certification programs?
The Four-Step method.
What step of the Four Step Method does a fire fighter demonstrate a task or skill under the fire officer's supervision?
Step 3 - Application.
The Four Step Method for Fire Instructor I consists of:
Step 1 - Preparation.Step 2 - Presentation.Step 3 - Application.Step 4 - Evaluation.
What step of the Four Step Method introduces students to the subject matter, explains the importance of the topic, and creates an interest in the subject?
Step 2 - Presentation.
Step 1 - Preparation of the Four Step Method of training except -
Break the topic down into simple units.Show what to teach, in which order to teach it, and exactly what procedures to follow.Use a guide to help accomplish the teaching objective.
Video presentations or lectures should be no longer than -
15 - 20 minutes.
To provide training to an individual or team is to -
Coach
Initial, Plateau, Latency, and Mastery would all be examples of -
Psychomotor skills.
A driver/operator having the ability to drive to 85% of the streets in the fire company's response area would be an example of which of the following psychomotor skills?
Plateau
A driver/operator who can remember the route to an area of the district where the engine company has not responded to in several months would be an example of which of the following psychomotor skills?
Latency.
A driver/operator having a basic understanding of how the street grid and numbering system works would be an example of which of the following psychomotor skills?
Initial
A driver/operator who can easily drive to any address in the district and knows at least two or three alternative routes to the area would be an example of which of the following psychomotor skills?
Mastery
Training involving bloodborne pathogens usually takes about -
4 hours.
Most states and commonwealths require fire fighters to pass which of the following certification programs before engaging in interior structural fire fighting operations?
Fire Fighter 1
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions?
NFPA 1403.
Which of the following is not listed as a performance qualification from NFPA 1001?
Vehicle extrication.
Which NFPA standard is the Standard on Water Supplies for Suburban and Rural Fire Fighting?
NFPA 1142.
According to NFPA 1142 each attack and back-up hoseline should be capable of flowing a minimum of -
95 gallons/min.
Water supply resources should be capable of delivering __ of the minimum needed water supply at a training site from two separate sources.
150%.
Approximately what percentage of line-of-duty deaths occur in training exercises?
7.4%.
If acquired structures are to be used for live fire training activities, how many fire revolutions are permissible to be run at the same time?
1
Before starting a training program, fire officers must first confirm that there is a need for such a training program. This is called a -
Needs assessment.
A good lesson plan contains
(1) Organizes the lesson(2) Identifies key points.(3) Can be reused.(5) Allows others to teach the program
Which of the following are two essential components of a fire fighter's work and performance development?
Evaluation and discipline.
The type of discipline intended to help the fire fighter recognize problems and make corrections to improve performance or behavior is called -
Positive discipline.
The third step of an annual fire fighter evaluation includes which of the following?
A face-to-face interview between the supervisor and the subordinate is set up.
The last step of an annual fire fighter evaluation includes which of the following?
The supervisor and subordinate establish goals that should be accomplished by the next evaluation period.
The first step of an annual fire fighter evaluation includes which of the following?
The supervisor fills out a standardized evaluation form.
A list of fire fighter's activities by date, along with a brief description of performance observations is known as a -
Performance log.
A sophisticated documentation system, similar to an accounting balance sheet listing credits and debits in tracking fire fighter performance is known as a -
T-account
When should a fire fighter be notified that he/she is not meeting a fire officer's expectations?
Long before the annual evaluation.
A common practice is to require notification of a fire fighter who is likely to be evaluated below the level necessary to obtain a pay increase or a satisfactory rating __ before the annual evaluation is due.
10 weeks.
A written plan designed to improve a fire fighter's performance or behavior within a specific period of time is known as a -
Work improvement plan.
A fire fighter should be prompted to conduct another self-evaluation __ before the official annual evaluation period?
6 weeks.
An evaluation error that occurs when the evaluator's feelings skews an evaluation in such a way that the classified job knowledge, skills, and abilities are not appropriately evaluated is called -
Personal bias.
An evaluation error that occurs when a fire fighter is evaluated on the basis of the fire officer's personal ideals instead of the classified job standards is known as -
Frame of reference.
An evaluation error that occurs when a fire fighter is evaluated only on recent incidents rather than on all the other events that occurred throughout the evaluation period is known as -
Recency
A fire fighter who is rated in the middle of the range for all dimensions of work performance is called -
Central tendancy.
What is it called when a fire officer concentrates on only one aspect of a fire fighter's performance, which is either exceptionally good, or exceptionally bad?
Halo and horn effect.
An evaluation error that occurs when a fire officer compares the performance of one subordinate with the performance of another subordinate instead of against the classified job standards is called -
Contrast effect.
Performance evaluation should be -
A continual supervisory process.
Performance feedback is most effective when delivered -
As soon as possible after an action or incident.
A moral, mental and physical state in which all ranks respond to the will of the leader is known as -
Discipline
What is one of the most effective strategies of positive discipline?
Empowerment.
The form of discipline that moves from mild to more severe punishments if a problem is not corrected is known as -
Progressive negative discipline.
The first step in progressive negative discipline is -
Counsel the fire fighter about poor performance and ensure that he/she understands the requirements.
The last step in progressive negative discipline is -
Terminate the employment of a fire fighter who refuses to improve.
A suspension notice is usually issued by the -
Battalion chief or higher command officer after consultation with the fire chief or designate.
When do informal or written reprimands expire?
No longer than 1 year.
When does a formal reprimand expire?
Usually 1 year.
Which of the following is considered the first level of negative discipline, and does not become part of a fire fighter's permanent record?
Oral reprimand.WarningAdmonishment.
represents an official negative supervisory action at the lowest level of the progressive discipline process?
Formal written reprimand.
Which of the following is a negative disciplinary action that removes the fire fighter from the work location and prohibits the fire fighter from performing any fire department duties?
Suspension.
Which of the following is a work assignment that isolates the fire fighter from the public, often an administrative assignment away from the fire station environment?
Restrictive duty.
A written or oral notice in which a fire fighter has an opportunity to present his or her side of the case, and an explanation of adverse evidence which is essential to protecting the worker's due process rights is called -
Pretermination hearing.
A disciplinary conference that occurs before a suspension, demotion, or involuntary termination is issued is called a -
Loudermill hearing.
A complex process by which a person influences others to accomplish a mission, task or objective and directs the organization in a way that makes it more cohesive and coherent is commonly called -
Leadership.
__ is when others are willing to accept the leadership of a leader.
Followership
One of the key components of leading is the ability to -
Motivate
The best-known motivational theory that suggests that behavior is a function of its consequences is -
Reinforcement Theory.
Which of the following types of reinforcers would be characterized by ignoring bad behavior?
Extinction
Which of the following types of reinforcers would be characterized by removing an undesirable consequence of good behavior?
Negative reinforcement.
Which of the following types of reinforcers are quickly learned by fire officers?
Positive reinforcement.
Which of the following theories relies on the natural competitiveness of people?
Goal-Setting Theory.
Which of the following theories is based on the premise that people act in a manner that they believe will lead to and outcome they value?
Expectancy Theory.
The motivational process that suggests that employees evaluate the outcomes that they receive for their inputs and compare them with the outcomes others receive from their inputs is the -
Equity Theory.
Which of the following motivational theories was described by Frederick Herzberg and breaks the motivational process into two parts?
Motivation-Hygiene Theory.
Most fire officer leadership activity is directed toward -
Accomplishing routine organizational goals and objectives in non emergency situations.
What is the first obligation of a fire company operating in the hot zone or burning structure during a Mayday situation?
To maintain radio discipline so that command can determine the Mayday location and situation.
What is the second obligation of a fire company operating in the hot zone or burning structure during a Mayday situation?
To maintain the company.To maintain sector integrity.
During a Mayday situation, who can change company assignments?
The sector incident commander.
What should a fire officer relay back to the dispatch center upon arriving first at the scene of an emergency?
Identification of the company arriving at the scene.
Which American President issued the first National Fire Prevention Day proclamation in 1920?
Woodrow Wilson.
What is the significance of National Fire Prevention week being observed on the Sunday-through-Saturday period in which October 8th falls?
It is the date of the great Chicago Fire.
What was the first comprehensive injury prevention program that gave children and their families the skills and knowledge they needed to create safer homes and communities?
Risk Watch.
What program was developed by the Los Angeles Fire Department in 1985 that helps citizens understand their responsibilities in preparing for disaster and increases their ability to help themselves, their families, and their neighbors in many types of situations?
Community Emergency Response Team (CERT)
The concept of the CERT program was to provide basic training to residents and employees in local communities, as well as government workers, that would allow them to function effectively during the first __ after a catastrophic event.
72 hours.
What does session 1 cover in any CERT course?
Disaster Preparedness
What is the first step in any locally developed fire and life-safety program?
Identify the problem.
What is the last step in any locally developed fire and life-safety program?
Evaluate the program.
When designing a public educational program, the fire officer should review the "ABCD" of course preparation. What does the "C" stand for?
Conditions
Public education programs need to be evaluated in order to determine their effectiveness. Which of the following types of evaluation focuses on the effectiveness of a program in relation to the desired effect?
Long-term evaluation.
Public education programs need to be evaluated in order to determine their effectiveness. Which of the following types of evaluation obtains feedback from students at the conclusion of the training and is usually in the form of a short survey form?
Immediate feedback.
The NFPA publication recommends three steps when working with the media
Build a strong foundation.Use a proactive approach.Use measured responsiveness.
The most important media asset a fire department has is a -
Good relationship with the media.
Not allowing yourself to be placed in a situation in which you make inaccurate, misleading, or damaging statements about the fire department would be an example of which of the following?
Measured responsiveness
When preparing for an interview for which you want to deliver a specific message, determine no more than __ key message point(s) in advance and practice saying them in a variety of ways.
3
What should you do after you have answered a reporter's question during an interview?
Stop talking.
What is the fundamental goal of a public education program?
To prevent injury, death, or loss to fire and other types of incidents.
Public safety has four basic objectives.
EDUCATE target audiences in specific subjects in order to change their behavior.INSTRUCT target audiences on how to perform specific tasks, such as Stop, Drop and Roll. INFORM large groups of people about safety issues. DISTRIBUTE information on timely subjects to target audiences.
When applied to the fire service what is a state of opposition between two parties.
Conflict
An expression of grief, regret, pain, censure, or resentment; lamentation; accusation; or fault finding best describes which of the following?
Complaint
An error or fault resulting from defective judgement, deficient knowledge, or carelessness is known as -
mistake
Which of the following would be considered the first step in ensuring high-quality decision making?
Define the problem.
What did Tom Peters mean in his 1982 bestseller "In Search Of Excellence," in the phrase - "Management by walking around?"
An effective manager should know what is going on with the organization and address most issues before they become major problems.
Who was it who encouraged managers to question the value of each organizational activity, usually once a year?
Peter Drucker.
Effective fire officers create a work environment that -
Encourages subordinates to report bad news immediately.
A method of shared problem solving in which all members of a group spontaneously contribute ideas is commonly called -
Brainstorming
How much time should be allotted a group of 4 to 16 fire fighters to generate ideas?
15 to 25 minutes.
A legitimate problem-solving process -
Has to be reasonable and based on logic and organizational values.
What can be considered the most challenging aspect of problem solving?
Implementing the solutions.
One of the most difficult situations for a fire officer is a(an) -
Interpersonal conflict or grievance within the company or directly involving a company member.
A basic approach that can be used in situations where interpersonal conflict is the primary problem or a complicating factor is known as a -
Conflict Resolution Model.
The first phase of a conflict management template is to -
Obtain as much information as possible about the problem.
Sometimes called "Engaged" listening," what is the conscious process of securing all kinds of information through a combination of listening and observing?
Active listening.
What should a fire officer do first after listening to a fire fighter's complaint?
After listening to the problem, paraphrase the complaint and recite it back to the complainant.
A detailed inquiry or systematic examination is known as -
Investigation.
An investigation report should have
The report must first identify and clearly explain the issues.The report should provide a complete, impartial, and factual presentation of the back ground information and relevant facts.The conclusion should be a recommended action plan, which is based on and supported by the information.
Writer, teacher and consultant on emergency medical quality services, Michael Taigman, provides a conflict resolution model that is especially effective when fire fighter emotions are high. Which of the following is the first step of his model?
Drain the emotional bubble.
Writer, teacher and consultant on emergency medical quality services, Michael Taigman, provides a conflict resolution model that is especially effective when fire fighter emotions are running high. Which of the following is the last step of his model?
Identify the complainant's expectation for resolution.
How does Michael Taigman recommend draining the "emotional bubble" in his conflict resolution model?
Listen deeply, actively and empathetically.
How should a fire officer respond to a citizen complaint?
Respond in a professional manner that effectively obtains the needed information.Respond in a way that does not make the situation worse.
How can a fire officer demonstrate that a citizen complaint is officially considered to be important?
Listen attentively and take detailed notes.
How should you the fire officer first handle a citizen complaint regarding an issue that you have no control over, such as a siren sounding at night?
Allow the citizen to express frustration without interruption since venting such frustration is an important part of resolving the issue.
How should a fire officer handle a citizen complaint that is strictly an operational issue?
The complaint should be sent the the chief of operations.
How should a fire officer handle a citizen complaint or issue about fire codes?
The complaint should be sent to the fire marshal.
How should a fire officer handle a citizen complaint or issue that affects all areas of the department?
The complaint should be sent to the chief of the department.
Who is in the best position to recommend new department policies?
The fire officer.
What term has the fire service adopted that focuses on fixing problems, straightening out procedural glitches, correcting errors of omission, and providing information?
Customer service.
NFPA 1620 provides a six-step method of developing a preincident plan. Which of the following is the first step of the method?
Identify physical elements and site considerations.
NFPA 1620 provides a six-step method of developing a preincident plan. Which of the following is the last step of the method?
Identify special or unusual characteristics of common occupancy.
NFPA 1620
Pre Incident Planning
Which of the following is responsible for changing the nature of the relationship between fire departments and their communities in hundreds of cities across the USA?
Decay and crime.
In the 1980s why did residents in cities such as New York, Baltimore, and Toronto rally to keep their local fire stations open in the face of budget cuts?
They measured their own perception of safety by the proximity of the closest fire station.
The development of a program to eliminate or reduce risk, such as a bicycle helmet safety program would be considered which of the following levels of "needs?"
Systemic needs.
The goal of a preincident plan is to develop a written plan that would be valuable to the -
Fire department and owner.
Which of the following are used to show how the building is situated in respect to other buildings and streets in the immediate area?
Plot plans
Basically, plot plans are drawings of a location -
From above.
Which of the following are used to show the layout of individual floors like an architect's blueprint?
Floor plans.
What do fire prevention codes do?
Establish legally enforceable regulations that relate specifically to fire safety.Define regulation of hazardous materials.
What was the deadliest nightclub fire in American history?
The Cocoanut Grove Nightclub fire of 1942.
Regulations that apply to the construction of new buildings or to the extension or major renovation to existing buildings would be considered -
Building codes.
__ is when a jurisdiction passes an ordinance that adopts a specific edition of the model code.
Adoption by reference.
__ is when a jurisdiction adopts the entire text of the model code and publishes it as part of the adopting ordinance.
Adoption by transcription.
Standpipe systems are subdivided into three classes based on -
Their expected use.
Which of the following classes of standpipes is intended to be used by fire department personnel trained in the use of large hose streams?
Class I.
Which of the following classes of standpipes provides both 1.5 and 2.5 inch connections with a preconnected 1.5 inch hoseline intended to be used by the occupants until the fire department arrives at the scene?
Class III.
What was the fire extinguishing system of choice for fire protection in computer rooms and to protect electronic equipment, from the 1960s to the 1990s?
Halon.
What is the purpose of a fire code compliance inspection?
To ascertain whether an existing property is in compliance with all the applicable fire code requirements.
The design and the materials used in the creation of buildings as related to the fire service is known as -
Construction type.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on Types of Building Construction?
NFPA 220.
The purpose for which a building or portion of a building is used or intended to be used for is known as -
Occupancy type.
Day-care facilities would be classified in which of the following NFPA building classifications?
Educational
NFPA 101 is the -
Life Safety code.
NFPA 704 Marking System consists of a color-coded array of numbers or letters arranged in a diamond shape. Each color represents a specific hazard. What does the blue diamond represent?
Health hazards.
What color diamond would you expect to represent a flammability hazard in the NFPA 704 marking system?
Red.
The first step in performing a fire safety inspection is to -
Circle the area and get an overview of the property.
The last step in performing a fire safety inspection is to -
Write a formal report on the inspection.
Less critical issues found during fire safety inspections should be corrected -
Within 30 to 90 days.
To identify hazards, monitor those hazards, determine the likelihood of their occurrence, and assess the vulnerabilities of people, property, the environment, and the entity itself of those hazards is called -
Risk assessment.
What is the Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System?
NFPA 1561.
What is the Standard on Clean Agent Fire Extinguishing Systems?
NFPA 2001.
A level of funding that would be required to maintain all services at the currently authorized levels, including adjustments for inflation, salary increases, and other predictable cost changes would be known as a -
Base budget.
A proposed increase in spending to provide additional services would be known as a(an) -
Supplemental budget.
A __ can be created to provide fire protection within a designated area.
Fire tax district.
The U.S. Fire Administration created a four-step method to develop a competitive grant proposal. Which one of the following would be considered the first step in writing a grant?
Conduct a community and fire department needs assessment.
A budget in which expenditures are identified in a categorized line-by-line format is called a -
Line-item budget.
In a career fire department how much of the annual budget is usually allocated to salaries and benefits?
More than 90%.
Putting off the purchase of replacement fire apparatus or other expensive equipment is known as -
Deferring scheduled expenditures.
A payment method of ensuring that there is sufficient funds available in a budget account to cover a purchase is called a -
Purchase order.
Normally, large purchases that exceed a predetermined amount, such as $2000.00 are obtained with a -
Requisition.
What is it called when a fire department gives the general information about what is desired and allows the vender to determine how they will meet the need?
Request for proposal (RFP).
For municipality fire departments, the format for the budget should comply with recommendations of -
Government Accounting Standards Board (GASB).
The first step in securing funding for a new unit would be -
Describing what the new unit will be doing and the impact if the unit is not funded.
Effective change occurs when -
Planning meets implementation.
Which of the following completes the communications cycle?
Feedback.
When relaying critical information during a stressful event, the -
Sender should have the receiver repeat back key points of the sender's message in his or her words.
It is important in the communication process that the fire officer stays focus on the topic of the conversation. What should you do if the speaker starts to ramble and move off-topic?
Ask a specific question that moves the conversation back to the appropriate subject.
A physical or sociological condition that interferes with the message is known as -
Environmental noise.
Which of the following would be considered sociological environmental noise?
Prejudice and bias.
Fire officers should hold the radio microphone approximately __ from their mouth.
2 inches.
An official fire department document, usually printed on business stationary with the department letterhead is called a -
Formal communication.
Formal documents that address a specific subject, policy, condition or situation are known as -
General orders.
A series of written questions asked by someone from an opposing party is called a(an) -
Interrogatory
What has been the extemporaneous record of all the emergency routine, and special activities that occur at the fire station, since the 19th century?
Company journal.
How soon must a supervisor's report be submitted after an incident occurs?
Within 24 to 72 hours.
A detailed account of activities, such as a narrative report of the actions taken at an incident or accident is known as a(an) -
Chronological statement of events.
A document that suggests a particular action or decision is known as a(an) -
Recommendation report.
What type of report requires that all company members submit a narrative description of their observations and activities during an incident?
An Expanded Incident Report Narrative.
What is the first step when making an oral presentation to a community group on a fire department issue?
Get their attention.
The second step in preparing a news release is to -
Develop the concept and write the release.
What should be printed in all caps at the top of a news release?
NEWS RELEASE.
In a news release what should separate the heading from the text of the release?
5 to 7 - #######.
An object-relational database that uses geometry data types to represent the location of an object in the physical world is called a -
Geodatabase.
A system that captures, stores, analyzes, manages, and presents data that is linked to a location is called a -
Geographical information system.
The modern Incident Management System was developed from which two of the following?
FIRESCOPE and FGC (developed by the Phoenix Fire Department.)
The comprehensive, national, all-hazards approach to domestic incident response by describing specific authorities and best practices for managing incidents that was established in March 2008 is called -
National Response Framework.
The __ is the core set of doctrine, concepts, principles, terminology, and organizational processes.
National Incident Management System (NIMS).
Firefighting Resources of California Organized for Potential Emergencies (FIRESCOPE) was organized in the wake of -
Massive wildfires in southern California during the 1960s and 1970s.
How does FGC (Fire Ground Command) differ from FIRESCOPE?
FGC was designed for implementation in routine situations, but FIRESCOPE can handle major large-scale events.
What NFPA standard is the Standard on a Fire Department Incident Management System?
NFPA 1561.
NFPA 1561 is now call the -
Standard on an Emergency Services Incident Management System.
Why was it important for local emergency response agencies to adopt ICS by October 2004?
To remain eligible for federal disaster assistance.
Students attending courses at the National Fire Academy are required to complete which of the following before arriving on campus?
ICS 100.ICS 200.
Federal, state, and some private sector and nongovernmental entities organize their resources and capabilities under 15 Emergency Support Function annexes. Which ESF annex deals with fire fighting?
ESF 4.
What is the primary agency that deals with fire fighting under ESF 4?
Department of Agriculture/Forest Service.
What is the primary agency under ESF 9 - Urban Search and Rescue?
FEMA.
What is the primary agency under ESF 6 - Mass Care?
Department of Homeland Security/FEMA.
What is the primary agency under ESF 10 - Hazardous Materials?
Environmental Protection Agency.
What United States Fire Department lost 6 fire fighters in a series of incidents between 1987 and 1995 that prompted a fire fighter accountability system that has been adapted by many fire departments?
Seattle.
The Incident Management System is designed to be -
Flexible and to be implemented incrementally.
One of the primary benefits of the Incident Management System is -
To maintain a manageable span of control.
For emergency operations, a recommended span of control is __ fire fighters reporting to one supervisor.
3 to 5.
There are three standard levels in the command organization
Strategic level.Tactical-level.Task-level.
Who is responsible for assuming command at an emergency incident?
The first arriving fire department member.
The Incident Management System should be implemented -
For every event.
What is the first step in transferring command from one fire officer to another?
The officer assuming command must communicate with the initial incident commander.
A supervisory position in charge of a functional operation at the tactical level is known as a -
Group supervisor.
Command is officially transferred from one incident commander to a new incident commander -
Only when the new incident commander has been briefed.
A supervisory position in charge of a geographical operation at the tactical level is known as a -
Division supervisor.
One who serves as a direct assistant to a command officer is known as a(an) -
Aide.
Which section of the Incident Management System is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information relevant to an incident?
Planning section.
Which section of the Incident Management System is responsible for any legal issues that may arise from an incident?
Finance/administration section.
Which section of the Incident Management System is responsible for providing supplies, services, facilities, and materials during an incident?
Logistics section.
Which of the following is a basic component of IMS, that outlines the strategic objectives and states how an emergency operation will be conducted?
Incident action plan.
Which of the following represents a functional operation such as attack lines, or ventilation crew?
Groups.
Which of the following is a generic term that can be applied to either a geographical or functional component of an incident?
Units
Which of the following represents geographical operations, such as one floor, or one side of a building?
Divisions.
Which of the following would be considered a supervisory level established in either the operations or logistics function to provide a span of control at an incident?
Branch
The basement of a building would be considered -
Basement Division.
In most cases an incident commander will call for a greater alarm to -
Have stand-by resources immediately available in case they are needed.
How many single resources are assembled to form a task force?
2 to 5.
Five units of the same type with an assigned leader is called a(an) -
Strike team.
In the summer how much drinking water should be allotted per fire fighter per day?
10 gallons.
The last step in conducting an incident review is to -
Write a summary of the incident for fire department records.
What level of the core NIMS curriculum is NIMS Multiagency Coordination System?
ICS 701.
What level of the core NIMS curriculum is Intermediate ICS?
ICS 300.
What level of the core NIMS curriculum is NIMS Public Information System?
ICS 702.
What level of the core NIMS curriculum is Advanced ICS?
ICS 400.
What level of command sets the overall direction and goals?
Strategic-level.
What level of command defines the actions that are necessary to achieve strategic goals?
Tactical-level.
What level of command dictates assignments that are required to achieve the tactical objectives?
Task-level.
The fast-attack mode ends when -
The situation is stabilized.The situation is not stabilized and the company officer must withdraw to the exterior and establish a command post.Command is transferred to another officer.
The chiefs in charge of the four major sections of incident command are called the -
ICS general staff.
The key to using an authoritative style of leadership is to -
Develop the trust and confidence of the subordinates before the incident.
What provides the framework to allow activities at an emergency scene to be completed in an effective manner and with all components of the organization working in concert with each other?
SOPs.
command staff positions
Safety officer.Liaison officer.Public information officer.
When does size-up end?
When the incident has been stabilized.
What is the end result of a good size-up?
The formation of an incident action plan.
One of the most significant factors in size-up is -
Visualization.
Experienced fire officers know that the more churning that is present in the smoke the -
Higher heat flux.Flashover conditions exist.
What color smoke would you expect if you are close to the seat of the fire?
Dark black or brown smoke.
Fires in the ignition stage should be extinguished with -
Portable fire extinguishers.
Who authored in 1940 Fundamentals of Fire Tactics?
Lloyd Layman.
What is the first step of Lloyd Layman's Five Step Process for analyzing emergency situations?
Facts.
Which step of Lloyd Layman's Five Step Process for analyzing emergency situations states that things that are likely to happen or can be anticipated based on known facts are -
Probabilities.
Which step of Lloyd Layman's Five Step Process for analyzing emergency situations states that the __ assessment involves three dimensions, and all three parts must be considered and factored into the incident action plan.
Situation.
The National Fire Academy developed a size-up system. Which of the following is Phase One of the system?
Preincident information.
According to NFA the second phase of size-up begins -
On receipt of the alarm.
The third phase of size-up is known as -
Ongoing size-up.
What is the key factor in selecting the appropriate strategic mode for an incident.
The risk/benefit analysis.
When defensive operations are being conducted, the risk to fire fighters are -
Significantly reduced.
A situation in which an operation is changing or preparing to change is known as a(an) -
Transitional attack.
What is the 5th and last tactical priority in fire attack?
Overhaul.
What tactical activity includes securing the building and protecting it from the weather?
Salvage.
Specific assignments that are typically performed by one company or a small number of companies are called -
Tasks.
Why didn't Lloyd Laymen include ventilation in his prioritized list?
He advocated an indirect attack, by applying high-pressure fog stream into a sealed structure.
An effective potassium bicarbonate powder for extinguishing liquid fire which was developed by the Navel Research Laboratory is called -
Purple-K.
What formula uses a four-part calculation and is based on square footage rather than cubic footage?
National Fire Academy fire flow formula.
RECEO VS
Rescue Exposures Confinement Extinguishment Overhaul
Ventilation Salvage
When is exposure protection most important?
When the incident commander does not immediately have the resources that will be needed to fully control and extinguish the fire.
What should a fire officer do if the fire is beyond the capabilities of an initial attack?
Protect adjacent properties rather than wasting resources on the fire building that you will not be able to control.
Who is normally contacted for large-scale or long-term evacuations.
The Red Cross.
Generally, how often should an incident commander request a PAR?
Every 10 minutes.
What branch of the ICS is responsible for communications and fire fighter rehabilitation?
Service branch.
What branch of the ICS is responsible for ensuring adequate supplies, personnel, and equipment?
Support branch.
An area where primary logistics functions are coordinated and administered is known as -
Base.
Who is responsible for moving equipment and water supply hoselines up and down stairwells?
Stairwell support.
The final step in Lloyd Laymen's decision process is to -
Develop the actual plan that will be used to mitigate the incident.
What was Chief David Dodson's observation after viewing hundreds of structure fire videos?
Dark smoke seems to lighten up moments before flashover.
Supported by the IAFC and funded by a grant from Homeland Security, what was confirmed in research reported in the online course, "Fire Behavior in a Single Family Occupancy?"
A TIC cannot detect fire below a floor, such as a basement.
Steve Kerber suggests that a coordinated fire attack with PPV requires a __ wait after starting the fans, so that the fire can react to the introduction of oxygen, before starting the attack.
60 seconds.
Thermal conditions within the fire flow path can be higher than -
752 degrees F.
NFPA 1710, Standard for the Organization and Deployment of Fire Suppression Operations, Emergency Medical Operations, and Special Operations to Public by Career Fire Departments, requires that the initial source of fire fighters to conduct a basic fire attack on a single-family dwelling must include -
14 fire fighters.
NFPA 1710 states that sufficient resources, as outlined by the standard should be assembled on the scene within __ after being dispatched.
8 minutes.
NFPA 1710 calls for an uninterrupted water supply capable of delivering __ and a minimum initial flow of 300 gpm through two handlines.
400 gpm.
Personal protective equipment must be worn by personnel while they are operating in the -
Hot zone and warm zone.
NFPA 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System, defines a RIC as a minimum of __ fully equipped personnel on site, in a ready state, for immediate rescue of injured or trapped firefighters.
2
Most civilian deaths occur in -
Single and two-family dwellings.
The United States Fire Administration compiled data for 2008 listing the common causes of fire. Which of the following was determined to be the most common cause of fires?
Cooking.
Which of the following cause the least amount of fires?
Natural
Which NFPA standard describes Professional Qualifications of Fire Investigators?
NFPA 1033.
Physical marks left by the fire are often called -
Fire patterns.
Fire patterns often are in which of the following shapes?
V-shape.U-shape.
Fire patterns are sometimes called -
Movement patterns, because fire officers can trace the fire and smoke patterns back to the origin.
The blacken remains of a carbon-based material after it has been burned is known as -
Char.
The fire officer uses __ to assist in determining the direction of fire spread.
Depth of char.
What is the first step in determining the cause of a fire?
Determine the source of ignition.
What is the last step in determining the cause of a fire?
Determine the circumstances or human actions that allowed the ignition source and fuel to come together.
After all investigative possibilities have been exhausted and if there are still two or more potential causes, the fire investigator should -
Consider the fire cause as undetermined.
__ refers to the nature of the ignition material itself.
Type of material.
__ tells how the ignition source material is used.
Form of material.
A logical, systematic examination of an item, component, assembly, or structure and its place and function within a system, conducted in order to identify and analyze the probability, causes, and consequences of potential and real failures is known as -
Failure analysis.
The scientific process of examining a fire occurrence to determine all the relevant facts, including the origin, cause, and subsequent development of the fire, as well as determining the responsibility for whatever occurred is known as -
Fire analysis.
Which NFPA standard, is the Guide for Fire and Explosion Investigations?
NFPA 921.
The U.S. Fire Administration reports that __ of vehicle fires are caused by mechanical failure and malfunction.
47%
The first objective when investigating vehicle fires is to -
Look for indicators of arson.
NFPA 921 established four fire cause classifications. Which of the following would be considered unintentional fires that were started by human activity?
Accidental fire cause.
NFPA 921 established four fire cause classifications. Which of the following would be considered fires caused by lightening, earthquakes, and wind?
Natural fire cause.
NFPA 921 established four fire cause classifications. Which of the following would be considered fires caused by human beings deliberately igniting fires when the person knows the fire should not be ignited?
Incendiary fire cause.
The chemical decomposition resulting in a gradual lowering of the ignition temperatures of wood until autoignition occurs is known as -
Pyrolysis.
National statistics indicate that 1 in every __ fires is of incendiary origin.
4
Which of the following would be consider the most deadly form of arson?
Spite/revenge.
Once the fire department leaves the scene of a fire, they can re-enter it -
Only with the occupant's permission.Only if armed with a search warrant.
What should a fire officer do first if he conducts a preliminary investigation and suspects that a crime has been committed?
Secure the scene.
Material objects as well as documentary or oral statements that are admissible as testimony in a court of law is known as -
Evidence.
Evidence of a tangible nature that can be identified by witnesses, such as incendiary devices and fire scene debris is known as -
Demonstrative evidence.
Evidence in written form, such as reports, records, photographs, sketches, and witness statements would all be considered -
Documentary evidence.
Witness speaking under oath would be considered -
Testimonial evidence.
The remains of the material first ignited, the ignition source, or other items or components that are in some way related to the fire ignition, development or spread is known as
Artifacts.
The process of recreating the physical scene before the fire occurred, either physically or theoretically is known as -
Fire scene reconstruction.
What are fulgurites?
Glassy, rootlike residue resulting from lightening strikes.
What is crew resource management?
A behavioral modification training system developed by NASA to reduce aviation accident rates.
Unsafe acts committed by people who are in direct contact with the situation or system are called -
Active failures.
What is known as the inevitable "resident pathogens" within the system?
Latent conditions.
What is a basic tenet of CRM training?
No one is infallible.
__ is the appropriate actions of those who are led.
Fellowship.
What is the basic objective of CRM?
To cause an appropriate reaction when an error occurs, in order to prevent a catastrophic outcome.
Who established the "dirty dozen" of human factors that contribute to a tragedy?
Gordon Dupont.
Who said, "Risk a lot to save a savable life, take a calculated risk to save savable property, and risk nothing to save what is already lost?"
Alan Brunacini.
In what shape is Dr. Robert Helmreich's error management model?
Inverted pyramid.
What provides the greatest opportunity for trapping and preventing errors from moving to catastrophe?
Error avoidance.
What is the second level of Helmreich's error management model?
Trap.
Which level of Helmreich's error management model will require emergency responders to minimize the effect of an emergency on a community?
Mitigate.
What is the first step a fire department should take to create a safety culture?
Provide honest sharing of safety information without the fear of reprisal from supervisors.
CRM advocates maintaining a "sterile cockpit." What does that mean?
A cockpit environment where all communication and focus is on flight operations.
What is the first indication of an error?
A discrepancy between what is going on and what should be going on.
Todd Bishop teaches a five-step assertive statement process that encompasses the inquiry and advocacy communication steps. What is the first step of this process?
Attention getter.
Todd Bishop teaches a five-step assertive statement process that encompasses the inquiry and advocacy communication steps. What is the last step of this process?
Buy-in.
Which of the following refers to an individual's own internal strengths, capabilities, and character?
Personal competence.
Which of the following refers to an individual's ability to interact effectively with other people?
Social competence.
Which of the following refers to an individual's ability to perform tasks that require specific knowledge or skills?
Technical competence.
In the triangle of leadership, which of the following is positioned at the top of the triangle?
Effective leadership.
What is the first component of a self-assessment?
Physical condition.
Dividing responsibilities among individuals and teams in a manner that allows for their effective accomplishment is best described by which of the following?
Task allocation.
__ occurs when we exceed our capacity to manage all of the functions and responsibilities that we are trying to manage simultaneously.
Task overload.
What is the first step in the CRM task allocation phase.
Knowing your own limits and the capacity of your team.
Which of the following decision-making models describes how commanders can recognize a plausible plan of action?
Recognition primed decision making.
Which of the following decision-making models describes how commanders make decisions in their natural environment?
Naturalistic decision making.
What is the first step in the six step process for maintaining an emergency scene?
Fight the fire.
What is the last step in the six step process for maintaining an emergency scene?
Beware of situational awareness loss factors.
Seasoned fire officers have learned that taking an extra __ to absorb and process as much information as possible often yields better results.
30 to 60 seconds.
An event, order, or message that has more than one possible meaning is an example of -
Ambiguity.
High reliably organizations have have utilized CRM have seen a __ reduction in incidents, accidents, and injuries.
79-80%.
NFPA 1500
Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
NFPA 1410
Standard on Training For Initial Scene Operations
NFPA 1521
Standard Fire Department Safety Officer
NFPA 1620
Standard for Pre-Incident Planning
NFPA 1583
Standard on Health -Related Fitness Programs for Fire Department Members
A personnel accountability system is required by which NFPA standard
NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
emphasis on human need and attitude, motivation comes from within the employee and not from authoritarioan control. Lead to Maslow's hierarchy of needs
Humanistic management
The breakdown of work tasks into constituent elements and the timing of each element bsed on repeated stopwach sudeies: the fixing of piece rate compensation based on those studies: standardization of work tasks on detailed instruction cards: and generallyh, the systematic consolidation of the shop floor's brain work
Scientific management
A 1938 act that provides the minimum standards for both wages and overtime entitlement and spells out administrative procedures by which covered work time must be compensated . Public safety workers were added to this coverage in 1986
FLSA
The tactical level management unit that provides for medical evaluation, treatment, monitoring, fluid and food replenishment, mental rest, and relief from climatic conditions of the incident.
incident scene rehabiltation
a term used with a written incident action plan identifying a period of time during a long term incident that a specific incident action plan covers. For federally funded incidents, it is 12 hours : local incidents may use periods of 8 hours
operational period
A systematic four step approach to training fire fighters in a basic job skill: 1- prepare the fire fighters to learn, 2- demonstrated how the job is done, 3- try them out by letting them do the job, and 4- gradually put them on their own.
job instruction training
The highest level of the Conscious Competence Learning Matrix developed by Dr. Thomas Gordon in the 1970s. At this level, the skill becomes so practiced that it enters the unconscious parts of the brain and becomes second nature.
unconsciously competent
An initial check to determine if there are reasonable grounds to believe that the charges against the employee are true and support the proposed termination
pretermination hearing
Which type of power is based on a person's special knowledge
Expert
Which of the following is not considered positional power
Expert
The power given to the company officer by the department to conduct his or her duties is
legitimate power
Who was the psychologist who published his motivation-hygiene theory in the Harvard Business Review in 1968?
Herzberg
The "capacity of one party to influence another party" is known as
power
In 2007, how many people died as a result of fire in the United States
3430
The theory of organizational leadership that each fire fighter answers to one supervisor is
unity of command
Fayol's functions of management
Organizing
Leading
Planning
Written organizational directives that establish specific operational methods to be followed are known as
SOPs.
National Fire Protection Association standards are considered
a consensus document
Organizing a fire department into engine and truck companies is known as
division of labor
The fire officer standard was one of the original "fire service professional" standards developed by the NFPA in what year
1976
How many milestones or changes are there in the relationship between a fire fighter and the department during his or her career
Four
Chief Page divided a company's officers' duties into three distinct roles. What are they
Supervisor
Trainer
Commander
Which amended civil rights act expanded the 1964 Civil Rights Act to include volunteer fire departments and other nonprofit emergency service organizations?
1972 amendment
When dealing with a fire fighter who is filing a complaint of harassment, the fire officer should
Not blame him/her for filing the complaint.
Follow department policy.
Document all discussions, emails, interviews
Maslow's research developed which management theory?
Hierarchy of needs
Which step in Maslow's theory addresses symbols such as badges or awards?
Level Four
Which management or leadership study is tied to "crew resource management" used to improve fire fighter safety
Blake and Mouton's managerial grid
In what year did Frederick Taylor publish his thesis of The Principles of Scientific Management?
1911
What year was McGregor's The Human Side of Enterprise published?
1960
McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y were concepts developed to define the terms of a manager's view of the:
worker
Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs addresses a fire fighter's need to belong and feel part of an organization?
Level Three
Which level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs would be impacted if a fire department announced that all fire fighters had to achieve paramedic training within 1 year or face termination?
Level Two
The first task in creating a fire prevention program for a community is to:
identify a fire or life-safety problem
After designing a fire prevention program, the next step is to:
deliver a pilot class to a target audience
Which NFPA standard addresses the requirements for media contracts?
NFPA 1035
The NFPA provides guidance in dealing with the media and suggests three steps
...
A press release should address the ___________ of journalistic writing style
five Ws. Who, What, Where, When and Why
The difference between a current situation and the desired situation is the definition
a problem
A general decision-making process has ________ steps.
five
Brainstorming is a method used to develop ideas and would be used during the step of the decision-making process
second
What are the backbone of order in the fire department?
Policies
The types of problems a fire officer could be expected to encounter can be divided into _________ broad categories
four
How many steps does effective brainstorming have?
eight
The first phase of conflict management for problems both internal and external of the department is to:
obtain as much information about the problem
An effective method to ensure that a fire fighter is accountable for a new policy is to:
have him or her read the policy and sign off that he or she has read it and understands it
Which code contains regulations that apply to the construction of new buildings?
Building code
__________ refers to the purpose for which a building is used
Occupancy type
The NFPA 704 marking system is used for:
buildings
To ensure a systematic approach in creating a pre-incident plan, the fire officer should use the ________ step method as identified in NFPA 1620.
six
The primary advantages of a model code is that:
the same regulations apply in many jurisdictions and are coordinated
In what year was Halon banded from being produced or imported into the United States because of its impact on the ozone layer?
2000
In general, policies and procedures that affect the purchasing of items by a fire department are based on what?
The cost of the item(s
Fire department budgets are generally divided into three general areas
Operating
Capital
Personnel
The U.S. Fire Administration provides a _______ step method to develop a competitive grant proposal
four
Which type of revenues are generated if a fire department were to provide standby during an outdoor concert using pyrotechnics?
cost recovery
A purchase order is a form of a:
charge card
The method often used to purchase large or complex items is by using a(n):
request for proposal (RFP).
The communication cycle contains ________ parts
five
The initial on-scene report given by the company officer will contain what he or she has, what his or her crew is doing, and __________.
what his or her crew needs incoming crews to do once on scene
Fire incident reports are completed by the company officer and sent to headquarter and eventually are sent to which government agency?
The U.S. Fire Administration
Standard operating procedures (SOPs) remain in effect permanently until they are:
rescinded
the following information would not be included in an injury report?
Who was injured, the nature of the injuries and what events accompanied the injuries
What is the correct format for a news release?
1-inch margins, double spaced, and limited to one page
When preparing a report, the fire officer must consider
the intended audience
What is the next step once a new incident commander has taken command of an incident?
Dispatch and all crews operating on scene are notified
Under the National Response Framework, how many Emergency Support Functions (ESFs) are there?
fifteen
What congressional act covers cost recovery from a declared major disaster or emergency?
Stafford Act
NFA Fire Flow Formula
(Length X Width)/3 X Percent Involvement
What is the last step in Chief Layman's five-step size-up process?
plan of operation
Under Layman's situation assessment, the third consideration for the incident commander is:
the capabilities and limitations of the personnel, based on training and experience
Incident commanders consider the most likely possibilities of what could happen during an incident based on:
known facts
According to the National Fire Academy, there are _______ phases of size-up.
three
Which phase of the National Fire Academy size-up process relates to Layman's situation assessment?
two
Which NFPA standard sets the requirements and competencies for a fire investigator?
NFPA 1033
Which Supreme Court ruling requires the fire department to remain on the scene of a fire under investigation without the need for an additional search warrant?
Michigan v. Tyler (1978)
In the Supreme Court ruling of Michigan v. Clifford, it was determined that once the area of origin is determined, the scope of the search is:
limited to that area
A lighter found in the room of origin would be considered __________ evidence.
demonstrative
For a source of ignition to be a competent source it must have three components
Sufficient heat energy
Heat Transfer
Heating
In addition to knowing the type of material first ignited, it is also important to know:
the form of the material
The NFPA guide that a fire officer should be aware of that contains information on conducting fire scene investigations is:
NFPA 921
One of the basic foundations of CRM is that crew members
can speak up if they see something that causes concern
Inquiry is the process of
questioning a situation that causes concern
An important part of the communication process in CRM is focusing on:
what is right versus who is right.
What is the best topic to start a debriefing of an incident that involved the death of a child?
Focusing on the facts of the incident starting with dispatch information
Most errors on an incident scene can be broken down into two categories: crew performance and __________.
mechanical breakdown
The crew resource management model used by the fire service has:
six areas
CRM advocates that in order for the team to become more effective
every member of the team must participate
the triangle of leadership?
Effective Leadership
Trust and Respect
Leadership
A fire officer's ability to speak to people in a respectful way reflects on his or her:
Social leadership skills
The first step in CRM task allocation is:
knowing the limits of yourself and your crew.