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50 terms

ch 24 patho

STUDY
PLAY
All virally induced sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are incurable
true
STIs are seen in all socioeconomic classes.
true
Up to 50% of women with urogenital gonorrhea also have anal or rectal gonococcal infections
true
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by maternal gonorrhea infection.
true
The asymptomatic stage of syphilis is the latent stage
true
It is quite common for Treponema pallidum to develop resistance to penicillin
false no evidence as of yet
Chancroid is a lesion found in individuals with syphilis
False chancre
T. pallidum cannot be cultured
true
Granuloma inguinale is caused by a virus
false, bacterium
Gonorrhea is currently the most commonly reported bacterial sexually transmitted disease in the United States.
False chlamydia
The most common clinical manifestations of chlamydial infections in newborns are conjunctivitis and pneumonia.
true
Chlamydia infection is the leading cause of tubal infertility in women
true
There have been no recent sexually transmitted disease epidemics
false
Trichomoniasis is caused by a parasite.
true
Local cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections may persist even with high titers of serum anti-CMV antibodies
true
1. Why do adolescent girls have the greatest risk for sexually transmitted exposure and infection?
a.
Because they are in an experimental phase with sexual intercourse and believe they are resistant to developing sexually transmitted infections
b.
Because of the immaturity of their cervix and lack of immunity
c.
Because the length of the vaginal canal is shorter, which allows a greater concentration of microorganisms within the internal genitalia
d.
Because of the proximity of the anus to the vaginal introitus
Because of the immaturity of their cervix and lack of immunity
c.
2. Gonorrhea is transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus.
unbound in the blood via the placenta.
b.
attached to IgG via the placenta.
c.
across amniotic membranes by direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring.
d.
across amniotic membranes by indirect inoculation when the membranes are ruptured just before delivery.
across amniotic membranes by direct inoculation with the fetal scalp electrodes during labor monitoring.
3. Which statement is false about the factors that facilitate the ascent of gonococci into the uterus and fallopian tubes?
a.
Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the cervical plug disintegrates during menstruation.
b.
Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3.
c.
Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the uterine contractions may cause retrograde menstruation into the fallopian tubes.
d.
Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the bacteria may adhere to sperm and be transported to the fallopian tubes.
b.
Ascent of gonococci is facilitated because the vaginal pH decreases to 2 or 3.
4. In females the _____ is the usual site of original gonococcal infection.
a.
endocervical canal
b.
vagina
c.
fallopian tube
d.
labia majora
endocervical canal
5. Uncomplicated local infections by gonococci in men are infections of the:
a.
epididymis.
b.
lymph nodes.
c.
urethra.
d.
prostate.
urethra.
6. The most common local complication of a gonococcal infection in females is:
a.
acute salpingitis.
b.
cystitis.
c.
vaginitis.
d.
cervicitis
acute salpingitis.
7. Which laboratory test is considered adequate for an accurate and reliable diagnosis of gonococcal urethritis in a symptomatic male?
a.
Ligase chain reaction (LCR)
b.
Gram-stain technique
c.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d.
DNA testing
Gram-stain technique
8. Gonococcal infection of a newborn is usually manifested as:
a.
a generalized skin rash 4 to 6 days after birth.
b.
systemic infection with fever.
c.
bilateral corneal ulceration.
d.
a yellow vaginal or penile discharge about 10 days after birth.
bilateral corneal ulceration.
9. A major concern in the treatment of gonococci infections is:
a.
development of antibiotic resistance.
b.
changes in virulence.
c.
changes in pathogenicity.
d.
mutations into different strains
development of antibiotic resistance
10. Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
a.
Syphilis
b.
Herpes simples virus
c.
Chlamydia
d.
Chancroid
Chlamydia
11. During the _____ stage of syphilis, blood-borne bacteria spread to all the major organ systems.
a.
primary
b.
secondary
c.
latent
d.
tertiary
secondary
12. In which stage of syphilis would the following clinical manifestations be found: destructive skin, bone and soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, and neurosyphilis?
a.
Primary
b.
Secondary
c.
Latent
d.
Tertiary
d.
Tertiary
13. Which organism causes syphilis?
a.
Neisseria syphilis, an anaerobic bacterium
b.
Treponema pallidum, a spirochete
c.
Haemophilus ducreyi, a bacterium
d.
Chlamydia trachomatis, an intracellular parasite
Treponema pallidum, a spirochete
c.
14. Which is a lesion of secondary syphilis?
a.
Condylomata lata
b.
Gummas
c.
Chancroid
d.
Donovan bodies
Condylomata lata
15. The organism that causes syphilis is best identified via:
a.
acid-fast stain.
b.
Gram-stained slide.
c.
in vitro culture.
d.
darkfield microscopy
darkfield microscopy
16. Which sexually transmitted infection is indicated by a patient who has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days?
a.
Genital herpes
b.
Chancroid
c.
Syphilis
Genital herpes
17. Which statement is false regarding the risk of transmission of the herpes simplex virus (HSV) from mother to fetus?
a.
Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
b.
The risk is higher in women who have a primary HSV infection.
c.
The risk is higher in women who experience ruptured membranes more than 6 hours before delivery.
d.
The risk is higher when internal fetal monitoring devices are used
Neonatal infection of HSV rarely occurs in the intrapartum or postpartum period.
b.
18. During the latent period of a herpesvirus infection, the genome of the virus is:
a.
maintained in the host cell mitochondria.
b.
maintained in the host macrophage lysosomes.
c.
maintained in the host cell nucleus.
d.
totally degraded
c.
maintained in the host cell nucleus.
19. During reactivation (release from latency), herpesvirus genomes are transported through the _____ nerves to the dermal surface.
a.
somatic
b.
peripheral sensory
c.
autonomic
d.
peripheral motor
peripheral sensory
20. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information regarding the transmission of HSV?
a.
HSV is transmitted only when vesicles are present.
b.
HSV is transmitted only while lesions are present.
c.
Transmission of HSV is prevented by the use of condoms.
d.
There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods.
There is a risk of transmission even during latent periods.
21. _____ may be used topically for outbreak management of HSV infections.
a.
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
b.
5-Fluorouracil (5-FU)
c.
Retrovir (AZT)
d.
Bichloracetic acid (BCA)
Acyclovir (Zovirax)
22. Condylomata acuminata, or genital warts, are caused by:
a.
chlamydia.
b.
adenovirus.
c.
human papillomavirus.
human papillomavirus.
23. The treatment of genital warts includes:
a.
topical application of 5-FU.
b.
topical application of acyclovir.
c.
systemic penicillin.
d.
systemic tetracycline
topical application of 5-FU
24. A treatment for trichomoniasis is a single dose of metronidazole (Flagyl). A woman asks if her sexual partner should be treated also. The appropriate answer is:
a.
sexual partners should be treated only if symptoms are present.
b.
sexual partners should be treated even if asymptomatic.
c.
infections in men are self-limiting; therefore, a male sexual partner does not require treatment.
d.
sexual partners should be treated in order to prevent infection.
b.
sexual partners should be treated even if asymptomatic.
25. Which microorganism is sexually transmitted, primarily by homosexual men, in infected feces?
a.
Shigellosis
b.
CMV
c.
Giardia lamblia
d.
Entamoeba histolytica
Shigellosis
26. Hepatitis _____ virus is known to be sexually transmitted.
a.
A
b.
B
c.
C
d.
D
B
27. Which sexually transmitted disease, primarily among homosexual men, causes clinical manifestations of sudden explosive diarrhea, distention, and flatulence with epigastric pain, vomiting, and foul, sulfuric burping?
a.
Campylobacter enteritis
b.
Shigellosis
c.
Cytomegalovirus enteritis
d.
Giardiasis
Giardiasis
The most common serious viral infection among infants
b.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
2.
Causes condylomata acuminata
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
May contribute to the development of genital cancer
Epstein-Barr virus (EBV
Terponema pallidum
syphilis
haemophilus ducreyi
chancroid
gardnerella vaginalis
bacterial vaginosis
entamoeba histolytica
amebiasis
trichomonas vaginalis
trichomoniasis