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PHARMACOLOGY (GREEN PACOP)

Terms in this set (300)

The driving force for passive absorption of a drug is the:
a. specific carrier proteins and shows saturation kinetics
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
c. both
d. none
b. concentration gradient across a membrane separating body compartment
Physical factors influencing absorption:
a. total surface area available for absorption
b. contact time at the absorption surface
c. blood flow to the absorption site
d. all
e. none
d. all
Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. minimum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum concentration
c. time after concentration required to reach onset of concentration
d. all
e. none
a. minimum serum drug concentration
Process by which drugs find their way into the urine, EXCEPT:
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
b. active tubular secretion e. none
c. passive tubular secretion
d. passive glomerular filtration
e. none
a. active glomerular filtration d. passive glomerular filtration
A drug which has no effect enhances the effect of a second drug:
a. antagonism
b. potentiation
c. synergism
d. summative
e. additive
b. potentiation
Parameters used to evaluate time-response relationship, EXCEPT:
a. duration of action
b. latency
c. peak time
d. onset of action
e. none
e. none
Clinical effectiveness often depends on:
a. maximum serum drug concentration
b. minimum serum drug concentration
c. time after the administration to reach the onset of concentration
d. all
e. none
b. minimum serum drug concentration
When the dose of the drug is gradually increased and the first noticeable effect is observed, the dose that
produces this effect is called:
a. quantal dose
b. threshold dose
c. lethal dose
d. a and b
e. b and c
b. threshold dose
Regulates and directs sensory impulses traveling to the cortex:
a. thalamus
b. pons
c. medulla
d. hypothalamus
a. thalamus
10.Inhaled anesthetics are relatively insoluble in blood and brain are eliminated at faster rate than the more
soluble anesthetics:
a. True
b. False
a. True
Coordinate body movement and posture to help maintain body equilibrium:
a. cerebrum of the peptide bond
b. main stem of H-bond
c. cerebellum
d. none
c. cerebellum
Treatment of neuroses:
a. psychotherapy
b. anxiolytic
c. antianxiety agent
d. all
e. none
d. all
Used prophylactically in treating manic depressive patients and in the treatment of manic episodes:
a. anti-psychotics
b. lithium salts
c. anxiolytic drugs
d. all
b. lithium salts
Used in treating complex partial seizure:
a. Phenytoin
b. Carbamazepine
c. both
d. none
c. both
Generalized tonic-clonic drug:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Phenytoin
c. Diazepam
d. Valproic acid
b. Phenytoin
The most important criterion in determining whether surgical anesthesia has been achieved is:
a. papillary dilation
b. respiratory lagging
c. absence of eye motion
d. vomiting
c. absence of eye motion
The branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of the action of drug on functions of the body:
a. Toxicology
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmaokinetics
d. none
b. Pharmacodynamics
Drug of choice in the treatment of status epiliptecus:
a. Phenobarbital
b. Diphenylhydantoin
c. Diazepam
d. all
c. Diazepam
An anti-platelet drug:
a. Dipyridamole
b. Urokinase
c. Heparin
d. all
a. Dipyridamole
The branch of pharmacology that deals with disposition and fate of drug is:
a. Pharmacodynamics
b. Pharmacokinetics
c. both
d. none
b. Pharmacokinetics
Causes mydriasis by blocking the parasympathetic impulses to the sphincter muscle of the iris:
a. Atropine
b. Cocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. all
a. Atropine
Drug of choice for Tularemia:
a. Streptomycin
b. Griseofulvin
c. Amphotericin
d. all
a. Streptomycin
The ff. conditions are prone to thrombus formation, EXCEPT:
a. Arrhythmia
b. varicose vein
c. thrombocytopenia
d. none
a. Arrhythmia
Can improve the CO of CHF patient:
a. Dobutamine
b. Reserpine
c. all
d. none
a. Dobutamine
Effective for the management of acute gouty arthritis:
a. Probenecid
b. Aspirin
c. Allopurinol
d. all
c. Allopurinol
Derease the probability of second MI:
a. Heparin
b. Aspirin
c. Streptokinase
d. none
b. Aspirin
Inhibits warfarin metabolism and causes potentiation of anticoagulant:
a. Rifampin
b. Cimetidine
c. Disulfiram
d. all
b. Cimetidine
Histamine H1 receptor blockers are useful in the treatment of:
a. rhinitis
b. urticaria
c. all
d. none
c. all
It is the treatment of choice for influenza infection:
a. Vidarabine
b. Zidovudine
c. Amantadine
d. all
c. Amantadine
It can lead to discoloration of teeth if given to children:
a. Aminoglycoside
b. Tetracylcine
c. Penicillin
d. Lincomycin
b. Tetracylcine
Which of the ff. agents shows cytotoxicity that is cell cycle specific?
a. Bleomycin
b. Dactiomycin
c. Lumustine
d. none
a. Bleomycin
During times of stress, the adrenal gland releases ___ into the blood.
a. epinephrine
b. adrenaline
c. acetylcholine
d. a and b
e. b and c
d. a and
Acetylcholine transmits all parasympathetic signals to end organs by binding to:
a. receptor site
b. cholinergic nervous system
c. muscarinic receptors
d. ganglionic receptor
e. none
c. muscarinic receptors
Increase calcium influx into myocardial cells during heart failure:
a. Atenolol
b. Digoxin
c. Streptokinase
d. all
e. none
b. Digoxin
Draw water into the urine, without interfering with ion secretion or absorption in the kidney:
a. Loop diuretics
b. Thiazide diuretics
d. potassium-sparing diuretics
e. all
c. Osmotic diuretics
c. Osmotic diuretics
Arrhythmia occurs because one or more regions of the heart is/are:
a. beating too fast
b. beating too slowly
c. beating automatically without regard for impulses originating from SA node
d. all
e. none
d. all
Clinically useful agents which enhance neurotransmission include the ff, EXCEPT:
a. receptor agonist
b. drugs which prevent transmitter degradation
c. ganglionic blockers
d. agents which induce neurotransmitter release
e. none
c. ganglionic blockers
Responsible for reducing the release of NE from sympathetic nerves:
a. Beta 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
b. Beta 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
c. Alpha 1 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
e. all
d. Alpha 2 postsynaptic adrenergic receptor
Produces competitive antagonism of catecholamine by blockade of alpha 1 receptors:
a. Phenoxybenzamine
b. Phentolamine
c. Ephedrine
d. all
e. none
b. Phentolamine
This may occur when the electrical conduction pathways malfunction:
a. chest pain
b. hypertension
c. arrhythmias
d. MI
e. all
c. arrhythmias
Placebo may be given:
a. as a control of specific evaluation of drugs
b. to benefit/please a patient not by any pharmacological actions but by psychological means
c. to patients with mild psychological disorders who attribute their symptoms to physical disease
d. all of these
e. none of these
d. all of these
A branch of pharmacology that deals with the study of doses:
a. Pharmacy
b. Posology
c. Toxicology
d. Pharmacognosy
b. Posology
It refers to the fate of the drug during its sojourn through the body:
a. Pharmacokinetics
b. Pharmacodynamics
c. Pharmacogenetics
d. Pharmacotherapeutics
a. Pharmacokinetics
Drugs administered by inhalation are absorbed in the:
a. small intestine
b. nasal mucosa
c. lungs
d. stomach
c. lungs
Weak acids are reabsorbed into the bloodstream when:
a. the urinary pH is high
b. the urine is made alkaline
c. the urinary pH is low
d. all situations apply
c. the urinary pH is low
All of the ff. are catecholamines, EXCEPT:
a. Acetylcholine
b. Norepinephrine
c. 5HT
d. Dopamine
a. Acetylcholine
Which of the following is an inhibitory amino acid?
a. Glutamate
b. Aspartate
c. GABA
d. none of these
c. GABA
The following situations give rise to excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP), EXCEPT:
a. Na+ conductance
b. opening of Ca++ion channel
c. depolarization of the membrane
d. opening of Cl- ion channel
d. opening of Cl- ion channel
The response characterized by increasing magnitude with greater concentration of unbound drug at the
receptor site:
a. "graded"
b. quantal
c. all-or-none
d. margin of safety
a. "graded"
It refers to the relative concentration required to produce a given magnitude of effect:
a. affinity
b. efficacy
c. potency
d. none of these
c. potency
Interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other's effect:
a. noncompetitive
b. chemical
c. physiological
d. pharmacokinetic
c. physiological
The period from the drug administration to the first visible effect is:
a. onset of action
b. duration of action
c. ceiling effect
d. peak time
a. onset of action
Parkinson's disease is due to:
a. excessive cholinergic activity
b. damage to the basal ganglia
c. deficiency of dopamine level in the brain
d. all of these
d. all of these
When MAOi is taken with tyramine containing food it can result to serious consequences such as:
a. hypertensive crisis
b. cerebral stroke
c. insomnia
d. a and b only
e. all
d. a and b only
Meclizine is used to prevent nausea and vomiting due to:
a. vertigo
b. motion sickness
c. either a or b
d. neither a nor b
c. either
Antipsychotic agents reduce hallucinations and agitation by:
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE
b. blocking the dopamine receptors
c. ether a or b
d. neither a nor b
a. blocking the reuptake of NE and SE
Antihistamines can be used clinically as:
a. antiemetic
b. sedative
c. anti-allergy
d. all
d. all
A drug used to treat chronic alcoholism:
a. Diazepam
b. Zolpidem
c. Flumazenil
d. Disulfiram
d. Disulfiram
The following are pharmacological actions of benzodiazepines, EXCEPT:
a. reduction of anxiety
b. sedation
c. anti-emetics
d. anticonvulsants
d. anticonvulsants
Alcohol can produce the following peripheral effects, EXCEPT:
a. diuresis
b. dilation of the blood vessels in the skin
c. loss of memory
d. stimulates secretions of gastric juices
c. loss of memory
All of the ff. statements about the extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics are correct, EXEPT:
a. these are caused by the blockade of the dopamine receptors on the basal ganglia
b. can be counteracted by the administration of anticholinergic
c. if therapy is stopped, tardive dyskinesia occurs
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects
d. haloperidol does not cause extrapyramidal effects
Pharmacological effects brought about by dopamine receptor blockade, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the vomiting center
b. development of parkinsonian signs
c. reduce schizophrenic symptoms
d. decrease stimulation of the CTZ
a. stimulation of the vomiting center
Which of the ff. statements is CORRECT about Loperamide?
a. it is used to control diarrhea
b. it has analgesic property
c. it enters the brain
d. it is an NSAID
e. all
a. it is used to control diarrhea
Which of the ff. statements is NOT TRUE about paracetamol?
a. it lacks anti-inflammatory property
b. preferred drug to lower elevated body temperature
c. overdose can lead to hepatic injury
d. associated with Reye's syndrome in children
d. associated with Reye's syndrome in children
A dissociative anesthetic agent:
a. Thiopental
b. Innovar
c. Ketamine
d. Halothane
e. Propofol
c. Ketamine
A drug useful in febrile seizure:
a. Diazepam
b. Trimethadione
c. Phenobarbital
d. Valproic acid
c. Phenobarbital
A drug that reverses the effects of morphine and heroin by competitively blocking the opioid receptors:
a. methadone
b. nalbuphine
c. butorphanol
d. naloxone
d. naloxone
It refers to a change of one or more of the pharmacokinetic processes with increasing dose size:
a. disposition
b. clinical pharmacokinetics
c. dose dependency
d. depot phase
c. dose dependency
Cleaning out of stomach by repeated infusion of water using rubber tube:
a. gastric lavage
b. emesis
c. anaphylaxis
d. hydration
a. gastric lavage
The process with the slowest rate constant in a system of simultaneous kinetic processes:
a. lag time
b. rate limiting step
c. bioequivalence
d. accumulation
b. rate limiting step
The measured preparation devised to make possible the administration of medications in prescribed or
measured amounts:
a. dose size
b. dosage form
c. dosage regimen
d. drug
b. dosage form
The sum of all body regions in which the drug concentration is an instantaneous equilibrium with that in
blood or plasma:
a. clearance
b. accumulation
c. depot phase
d. central compartment
d. central compartment
Loss of drug from the central compartment due to transfer to another compartment:
a. apparent partition coefficient
b. biliary recycling
c. disposition
d. creatinine clearance
c. disposition
The extent of protein binding is determined in vitro by the ff. mechanisms, EXCEPT:
a. ultracentrifugation
b. dialysis
c. endocytosis
d. eletrphoresis
c. endocytosis
A phase I biotransformation reaction, EXCEPT:
a. methylation
b. sulfoxidation
c. deamination
d. hydrolysis
a. methylation
A phase II biotransformation, EXCEPT:
a. methylation
b. reduction
c. acetylation
d. conjugation
b. reduction
Non-irritating to the larynx and produces bronchiolar dilation:
a. halothane
b. nitrous oxide
c. desflurane
d. isoflurane
a. halothane
Commonly used spinal anesthetic that is 10 times more potent than procaine:
a. cocaine
b. lidocaine
c. tetracaine
d. procaine
c. tetracaine
Which of the ff. effects is associated with benzodiazepines?
a. paradoxical excitement
b. ataxia
c. morphine
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Is a potent ultra short-acting non barbiturate hypnotic agent without analgesic properties:
a. diazepam
b. etomidate
c. morphine
d. cocaine
b. etomidate
It is an important autonomic nervous system center wherein it plays a role in the regulation of body
temperature water balance, and metabolism:
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. diencephalons
d. broca's area
a. hypothalamus
It triggers the ovulation of an egg from the female ovary and causes the ruptured follicle to be converted to a
corpus luteum:
a. thyrotropic hormone
b. prolactin
c. luteinizing hormone
d. follicle-stimulating hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
The standard of comparison for potency of general anesthetic agent is:
a. minimum alveolar concentration
b. solubility
c. partition coefficient
d. maximum vapor concentration
a. minimum alveolar concentration
Benzodiazepines are used therapeutically for all of the ff. indications, EXCEPT:
a. panic disorder
b. schizophrenia
c. status epilepticus
d. insomnia
c. status epilepticus
Which of the following effects is produced by morphine, EXCEPT:
a. Relief of dyspnea accompanying pulmonary edema
b. Decreased sensitivity of the respiratory center to CO 2
c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine
d. Vasodilation of cerebral blood vessels
c. Mydriasis that can be blocked by atropine
Benzodiazepines differ from barbiturates in that benzodiazepines:
a. facilitate the action of GABA on neuronal chloride channels
b. have anticonvulsant activity
c. may induce physical dependence
d. have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates
d. have a higher margin of safety than barbiturates
Classified as an amide-type local anesthetic, EXCEPT:
a. prilocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. lidocaine
d. procaine
d. procaine
This drug has both local anesthetic and antiarrhythmic properties:
a. halothane
b. isoflurane
c. desflurane
d. lidocaine
d. lidocaine
This drug produces rapid analgesia and amnesia while maintaining laryngeal reflexes:
a. dissociative anesthesia
b. balanced anesthesia
c. neuroleptanesia
d. local anesthesia
a. dissociative anesthesia
Contraindicated to patients with seizure disorders:
a. isoflurane
b. cocaine
c. enflurane
d. desflurane
b. cocaine
Leukopenia has been reported with chronic abuse of ____.
a. diethyl ether
b. bupivacaine
c. droperidol
d. nitrous oxide
d. nitrous oxide
This drug produces tolerance, abuse, hyperyrexia and anorexia:
a. cocaine
b. procaine
c. tetracaine
d. lidocaine
a. cocaine
Postulates that the local anesthetic displaces Ca++ from a site near the Na+ channel and blocks the adjacent
Na+ channel:
a. specific receptor theory
b. membrane expansion theory
c. lock and key theory
d. lidocaine
a. specific receptor theory
The most serious adverse effect of local anesthetics:
a. respiratory failure
b. seizures
c. hypotension
d. allergic reaction
b. seizures
The agent which has a parasympathetic effect that can cause bradycardia and hypotension:
a. droperidol
b. fentanyl
c. alfentanil
d. morphine
b. fentanyl
Which of the ff. agents may be considered the drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures?
a. phenytoin
b. phenobarbital
c. carbamazepine
d. ethosuximide
d. ethosuximide
Softening of the bones caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D either from a poor diet or lack of sunshine or
both:
a. osteoporosis
b. osteoarthritis
c. osteomalacia
d. osteomyelitits
c. osteomalacia
A stage of anesthesia where there is loss of consciousness and is characterized by irregular respiration and
involuntary activity:
a. delirium
b. analgesia
c. surgical
d. medullary paralysis
a. delirium
If a drug stimulates its own metabolism, the phenomenon is called:
a. auto-induction
b. cross-induction
c. foreign induction
d. enzyme induction
a. auto-induction
The protein binding of a drug is defined by:
a. the absorption constant
b. the affinity constant
c. the distribution equilibrium
d. all of the choices
b. the affinity constant
Which of the ff. agents is the primary drug for treatment of major motor seizures and partial seizures?
a. clonazepam
b. ethosuximde
c. carbamazepine
d. trimethadione
c. carbamazepine
A tricyclic antidepressant which is effective in multiple sclerosis patients with pseudobulbar palsy:
a. doxepin
b. amitriptyline
c. despiramine
d. nortriptyline
b. amitriptyline
It potentiates the action of biogenic amines, presumably by blocking the inactivating reuptake of the amines
after release from the presynaptic neuron:
a. MAO inhibitors
b. phenothiazines
c. tricyclic antidepressants
d. local anesthetics
c. tricyclic antidepressants
Granulocytopenia, GI irritation, gingival hyperplasia and facial hirsutism are all possible side effects of
which of the following anticonvulsant drugs?
a. Phenobarbital
b. phenytoin
c. valproate
d. dantrolene
b. phenytoin
Symptoms of migraine, EXCEPT:
a. diplopia
b. phonohobia
c. protophobia
d. nausea and vomiting
a. diplopia
Barbiturates are being replaced by benzodiazepines for use as sedative-hypnotic agents because of the
shortcomings of the barbiturates therapy, which include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. a narrow therapeutic index
b. suppression of rapid eye movement (REM) sleep
c. induction of seizures
d. high potential for physical dependence
c. induction of seizures
Chemically it is a trimethylated monocyclic phenylaminoketone used for the treatment of major depression:
a. venlafaxine
b. amphetamine
c. fluoxetine
d. bupropion
d. bupropion
The brain stem centers affected most strongly by barbiturates are:
a. the respiratory centers
b. the vasomotor centers
c. the cardioinhibitory centers
d. none of the choices
a. the respiratory centers
Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as:
a. sedative
b. hypnotics
c. anti-parkinsonian agents
d. preanesthetic agents
d. preanesthetic agents
Amitriptyline is used to treat symptoms of:
a. depression
b. gout
c. petit mal epilepsy
d. parkinsonism
a. depression
Endocrine and metabolic effects of antipsychotic drugs are the following, EXCEPT:
a. hyperprolactinemia
b. galactorrhea
c. weight gain
d. hypotension
d. hypotension
Drugs active by the oral route in the treatment of bronchial asthma, EXCEPT:
a. epinephrine
b. terbutaline
c. theophylline
d. corticosteroids
e. aminophylline
c. theophylline/
a. epinephrine
This diuretic competitively antagonizes aldosterone:
a. ethacrynic acid
b. spronolactone
c. chlorothiazide
d. acetazolamide
e. triamterene
b. spronolactone
This antacid is likely to produce mental depression in patient with poor renal function:
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. magnesium trisilicate
c. calcium carbonate
d. aluminum hydroxide
b. magnesium trisilicate
This antacid produces cathartic action:
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. magnesium trisilicate
c. aluminum hydroxide
d. none of the above
b. magnesium trisilicate
A laxative considered as a surface active agent and has an action of easing defecation by softening stool:
a. dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
b. phenolphthalein
c. magnesium hydroxide
d. senna
a. dioctyl sodium sulfosuccinate
The most common adverse effect associated with the use of antihistamines is:
a. sedation
b. urticaria
c. hypotension
d. tinnitus
a. sedation
Which of the following is NOT a stimulant laxative?
a. cascara sagrada
b. senna
c. castor oil
d. bisacodyl
e. docusate
e. docusate
All of the following statements concerning antacids are true, EXEPT:
a. sodium bicarbonate is very effective in neutralizing stomach acid but its use is not recommended because of
the potential for systemic alkalosis and fluid retention
b. antacids only neutralize stomach acids and have no effect on the secretion of pepsin
c. a common side effect of magnesium-based antacids is diarrhea, while aluminum-based antacids tend to
cause constipation
d. milk alkali syndrome is associated with the administration of sodium bicarbonate and calcium bicarbonate-
containing antacids, along with milk or cream
e. magnesium-based antacids, rather than aluminum-based antacids, are preferred for the treatment of patients
with renal dysfunction
e. magnesium-based antacids, rather than aluminum-based antacids, are preferred for the treatment of patients with renal dysfunction
The mechanism of action of the anticoagulant effect of coumarin derivatives involves:
a. a reduction in levels of factors VII, IX and X
b. an action taking place in the bloodstream
c. no effect on vitamin K
d. an action that blocks the release of preformed prothrombin by the liver
e. fibrinolysis
d. an action that blocks the release of preformed prothrombin by the liver
Regarding the therapeutic uses of iron:
a. oral ferrous sulfate is the treatment of choice for iron deficiency
b. ferrous and ferric salts differ very little in their bioavailability
c. enteric-coated tablets are better absorbed than immediate release tablets
d. medicinal iron preparations are relatively nontoxic for children
e. side effects associated with oral iron therapy include increased sensitivity of the skin to ultraviolet light
a. oral ferrous sulfate is the treatment of choice for iron deficiency
Antihistamines (H1 antagonists) are useful in treating certain allergic disorders and the mechanism is most
likely the result of:
a. inhibition of histamine release
b. depletion of histamine stores
c. metabolic inactivation of histamines
d. chelation of histamine
a. inhibition of histamine release
Histamine shock is associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. a reduced venous return to the heart
b. a decreased effective blood volume
c. increased capillary permeability and edema
d. engorged large blood vessels
e. hemoconcentration
e. hemoconcentration
Which of the following agents can produce hearing loss and renal impairment?
a. cisplatin
b. melphalan
c. mercaptopurine
d. vinblastine
a. cisplatin
Which of the following is not a selective beta 1 blocker?
a. betaxolol
b. timolol
c. atenolol
d. metoprolol
b. timolol
Beta blocker given thru IV used for emergency hypertension:
a. practolol
b. betaxolol
c. propranolol
d. betaxolol
d. betaxolol
Which of the following drugs is used to prevent postpartum hemorrhage in patient with blood pressure of
180/100 mmHg?
a. oxytocin
b. methylergonovine
c. ritodine
d. methysergine
a. oxytocin
Drug of choice for myasthenia gravis:
a. tropicamide
b. cycloentholate
c. atropine
d. neostigmine
d. neostigmine
It is a CNS neurotransmitter with greater inotropic effect, less chronotropic effect and is used primarily for congestive heart failure:
a. amphetamine
b. atropine
c. dopamine
d. norepinephrine
c. dopamine
Neurotransmitter at adrenergic receptors:
a. propranolol
b. acetylcholine
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
d. norepinephrine
Neurotransmitter at cholinergic receptors:
a. propranolol
b. acetylcholine
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
Antagonist at alpha adrenergic receptors:
a. propranolol
b. acetylcholine
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
c. phentolamine
Antagonist at muscarinic receptors:
a. atropine
b. acetylcholine
c. phentolamine
d. norepinephrine
a. atropine
Antagonist at nicotinic receptor:
a.propranolol
b.acetylcholine
c.curare
d.norepinephrine
c.curare
Preanesthetic agent to prevent delayed hypersensitivity reaction:
a. promethazine
b. atropine
c. diazepam
d. morphine
a. promethazine
Enzyme/s which break/s down the neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nerve:
a. catechol-o-methyl transferase
b. acetylcholine esterase
c. monoamine oxidase
d. a and c
d. a and c
Enzyme/s which break/s down the neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nerve:
a. catechol-o-methyl transferase
b. monoamine oxidase
c. acetylcholine esterase
d. a and c
b. monoamine oxidase
Drug of choice for Parkinson's disease:
a. diazepam
b. levodopa
c. ethosuximide
d. naltrexone
b. levodopa
Long-acting barbiturate:
a.Phenobarbital
b.pentobarbital
c.amobarbital
d.thiopental
a.Phenobarbital
Opioid used for intractable, dry itchy cough:
a. codeine
b. morphine
c. dextrometorphan
d. cocaine
a. codeine
Antidote for physostigmine poisoning:
a.epinephrine
b.NH4Cl
c.atropine
d.codeine
b.NH4Cl
Dopamine:
a. cholinergic agonist
b. adrenergic agonist
c. antiacetylcholinesterase agent
d. anticholinergic agent
b. adrenergic agonist
Edrophonium:
a. cholinergic agonist
b. adrenergic agonist
c. antiacetylcholinesterase agent
d. anticholinergic agent
c. antiacetylcholinesterase agent
Antidote for warfarin toxicity:
a. protamine sulfate
b. vitamin K
c. heparin
d. aminocaproic acid
b. vitamin K
Antihypertensive agent used as hair grower in alopecia:
a. Hydralazine
b. verapamil
c. minoxidil
d. captopril
c. minoxidil
Nifedipine:
a. ACE inhibitor
b. calcium channel blocker
c. cardiac glycosides
d. alpha blocker
b. calcium channel blocker
Nitroglycerine:
a. Anti-arrhythmic agent
b. Anti-anginal agent
c. antihypertensive agent
d.all of the above
b. Anti-anginal agent
Used to induce ovulation:
a.ketoconazole
b.metyrapone
c.metronidazole
d.clomiphene
d. clomiphene
Aldosterone:
a. glucocorticoid
b. mineralocorticoid
c. anti-estrogen
d. anti-androgen
b. mineralocorticoid
Two drugs have the same pharmacological effects but when given together produced a greater effect than if each drug was given individually:
a. additive b. potentiation c. synergism d. antagonism
c. synergism
Measures the safety and usefulness of the drugs:
a. half life
b. volume of distribution
c. therapeutic index
d. total body clearance
c. therapeutic index
Most common side effect of chloramphenicol:
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
d. aplastic anemia
Most common side effect of aminoglycosides:
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
Most common side effect of clindamycin:
a. ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
b. yellowish teeth discoloration
c. pseudomembranous colitis
d. aplastic anemia
c. pseudomembranous colitis
Most common side effect of rifampicin:
a. hypersensitivity reaction
b. orange discoloration of urine
c. hepatotoxicity
d. blood dyscrasia
b. orange discoloration
Where can you find kernicterus as its side effect?
a.tetracycline
b.clindamycin
c.sulfonamide
d.chloramphenicol
c.sulfonamide
Drug of choice for typhoid fever:
a. clindamycin
b. cephalosporin
c. erythromycin
d. chloramphenicol
d. chloramphenicol
Drug of choice for pseudomembranous colitis:
a. tetracycline
b. sulfonamide
c. vancomycin
d. penicillin
c. vancomycin
drug of choice for herpes zoster (shingles) infection:
a. amantidine
b. methisazole
c. methisoprinol
d. acyclovir
d. acyclovir
Drug of choice for trichomoniasis:
a. metronidazole
b. quinine
c. chloroquine
d. nystatin
a. metronidazole
This anti-infective agent has disulfiram-like effect when taken with alcoholic beverages:
a. metronidazole
b. griseofulvin
c. nystatin
d. amphotericin B
a. metronidazole
This drug can be used for both PTB and leprosy:
a.pyrazinamide
b.ethambutol
c.isoniazid (INH)
d.rifampicin
d.rifampicin
Vitamin given to prevent pernicious anemia:
a. cobalamine
b. ferrous sulfate
c. folic acid
d. thiamine
a. cobalamine
Antiviral agent also used for leukemia:
a. amantidine
b. vidarabine
c. acyclovir
d. ribavirin
b. vidarabine
Vitamin which has an antisterility effect:
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin E
c. vitamin K
d. vitamin C
b. vitamin E
Mechanism of action of aminoglycosides:
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
c. inhibit protein synthesis
Mechanism of action of sulfonamides:
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
Mechanism of action of penicillin:
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
Mechanism of action of erythromycin:
a. inhibit the synthesis of bacterial cell wall
b. prevent PABA to form folic acid
c. inhibit protein synthesis
d. alter cell membrane permeability
c. inhibit protein synthesis
Mechanism of action of nystatin:
a. paralyze adult worms
b. inhibit mycolic acid
c. inhibit ergosterol
d. inhibit viral polymerase
c. inhibit ergosterol
Mechanism of action of isoniazid:
a. paralyze adult worms
b. inhibit mycolic acid
c. inhibit ergosterol
d. inhibit viral polymerase
b. inhibit mycolic acid
Niclosamide:
a. antibiotic
b. anthelimintic agent
c. antimycotic agent
d. antiviral agent
b. anthelimintic agent
Quinine:
a. antituberculotic agent
b. antimalarial agent
c. antileprotic agent
d. antiprotozoal agent
b. antimalarial agent
A patient is being treated for nighttime sedation. Which alteration in warfarin dosage is indicated?
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
b. a decrease because its excretion has been reduced
c. an increase because its GIT absorption has been impaired
d. an increase because its metabolism has been stimulated
a. a decrease because its metabolism has been inhibited
Displacement of a drug from plasma binding sites would usually be expected to:
a. decrease tissue levels of the drug
b. increase tissue levels of the drug
c. decrease the volume of distribution of the drug
d. decrease the metabolism of the drug
b. increase tissue levels of the drug
Widely used in cancer management that are classified as steroid hormone:
a. prednisolone
b. prednisone
c. both
d. none of the above
c. both
the ff. are the effects of morphine:
a. respiratory depression
b. analgesia
c. pin-point pupils
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Long-acting anti-diabetic agents:
a. protamine zinc insulin suspension
b. extended zinc insulin suspension
c. both
d. none
c. both
The ff. are antidotes for morphine poisoning:
a. naloxone
b. naltrexone
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
c. both a and b
The ff. are non-narcotic analgesics:
a. acetylsalicylic acid
b. paracetamol
c. dipyrone
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Type of epilepsy which involves the spread of electrical firing in a single hemisphere of the brain:
a. partial
b. general
c. none of the above
d. both a and b
a. partial
Richest source of vitamin A:
a. grapes
b. fish liver oil
c. meats
d. none of the above
b. fish liver oil
Which of the following effect/s of histamines are mediated through H2 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. uterine relaxation
b.cardiac stimulation (in guinea pigs)
c. increased gastric secretion
d.release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
d.release of catecholamines from adrenal medulla
Drug used to treat amoebiasis can be categorized as the following, EXCEPT:
a. luminal
b. peripheral
c. systemic
d. mixed
b. peripheral
. An antiviral drug used for parkinsonism which releases dopamine from storage vesicles:
a. chlorpromazine
b. phenelzine
c. amantidine
d. none of the above
c. amantidine
Drug of choice for mania:
a. lithium carbonate
b. amitriptyline
c. deprenyl
d. none of the above
a. lithium carbonate
Vitamin K deficiency state:
a. alopecia
b. hemorrhage
c. scurvy
d. none of the above
b. hemorrhage
Type of general seizure which involves the abnormal movement of muscles:
a. grand mal
b. petit mal
c. myoclonic seizures
d. status epilepticus d. none of the above
c. myoclonic seizures
________ is effective in the management of gastric acid hypersecretion and symptoms relief with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome:
a. misoprostol
b. niclosamide
c. omeprazole
d. thiabendazole
c. omeprazole
Oral hypoglycemic drugs, EXCEPT:
a. tolbutamide
b. ultralente insulin
c. tolazamide
d. glipizide
b. ultralente insulin
Isoniazid may produce peripheral neuropathy and can be prevented by co-administration of:
a. vitamin B6
b. pyridoxine
c. both
d. none
c. both
Most potent member of the general anesthetics:
a. methoxyflurane
b. halothane
c. isoflurane
d. enflurane
a. methoxyflurane
A Phenobarbital derivative which is used in combination therapy for types of epilepsy:
a. valproic acid
b. primidone
c. benzodiazepine
d. ethosuximide
b. primidone
Precursor of Vitamin D3:
a. cholesterol
b. ergosterol
c. ergotamine
d. none of the above
a. cholesterol
Responsible for calcification of bone and renal phosphate clearance:
a. alpha-tocopherol
b. cholecalciferol
c. folic acid
d. niacin
b. cholecalciferol
Not to be administered to neonates:
a. amoxicillin
b. sulfonamide
c. cephalosporin
d. erythromycin
b. sulfonamide
The H2 histamine receptor lockers are of great value in treating patients with:
a. ulcer
b. CHF
c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
d. duodenal ulcer
c. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Thyroid function is controlled by the tropic hormone _______:
a. T3
b. thyrotropin-stimulating hormone
c. T3
d. both a and c
b. thyrotropin-stimulating hormone
A painful sensation associated with complex biochemical mechanisms:
a. inflammation
b. cancer
c. infection
d. none of the above
a. inflammation
Which of the following penicillin/s is/are penicillinase-resistant?
a. methicillin
b. cloxacillin
c. oxacillin
d. b and c only
d. b and c only
Agent that facilitates the expulsion of gases from the GIT:
a. laxatives
b. adsorbents
c. anti-flatulents
d. stomachics
c. anti-flatulents
First line drug against all common intestinal nematodes:
a. mebendazole
b. niclosamide
c. piperazine
d. pyrantel palmoate
a. mebendazole
The ff. are effects of morphine:
a. coma
b. urinary retention
c. emesis
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
It inhibits the DNA-dependent RNA polymerase of Mycobacteria:
a. isoniazid
b. rifampicin
c. ethambutol
d. pyrazinamide
b. rifampicin
Therapy choice for diarrhea:
a. oral rehydration salts
b. adsorbents
c. astringents
d. tannins
a. oral rehydration salts
Xanthine alkaloid used as bronchodilator:
a. ephedrine
b. atropine
c. theophylline
d. epinephrine
c. theophylline
Slow-acting antimalarial agents:
a. quinine
b. mefloquine
c. fluoroquine
d. pyrimethamine
d. pyrimethamine
The ff. are general anesthetics:
a. cnitrous oxide
b. isoflurane
c. halothane
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
. For the treatment of postoperative retention of urine that the patient is likely to e benefited with drug/s possessing which of the ff. property(ies):
a. diuretic property
b. antidiuretic property
c. smooth muscle stimulant property
d. smooth muscle relaxant property
c. smooth muscle stimulant property
The ff. are antipsychotic drugs:
a. chlorpromazine
b. promethazine
c. thiothixine
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase enzyme may be therapeutically useful for which of the ff. purposes, EXCEPT:
a. to produce diuresis
b. to reduce intraocular pressure
c. to prevent acute mountain sickness
d. to counter the effects of vasopressin on the kidney
d. to counter the effects of vasopressin on the kidney
Androgens can cause fluid retention, leading to:
a. edema
b. hirsutism
c. migraine
d. unconsciousness
a. edema
Drug of choice for status epilepticus in children:
a. Phenobarbital
b. diazepam
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
a. Phenobarbital
The ff. drugs are systemic anti-fungals, EXCEPT:
a. clotrimazole
b. amphotericin
c. ketoconazole
d. fluconazole
a. clotrimazole
Which of the following are the main advantages of ranitidine over cimetidine?
a. higher potency
b.lack of an antiandrogenic activity
c. fewer side effects
d.all of the above
d.all of the above
Among the following, which is the primary action of heparin responsible for its anticoagulant effect?
a. decreased prothrombin formation in the liver
b. decreased formation of fibrinogen
c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
d. decreased aggregation of platelets
c. activation of plasma antithrombin III
The following are uricosuric agents:
a. probenecid
b. sulfinpyrazole
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
c. both a and b
The ff. effect/s of histamine is/are mediated through H1 receptors, EXCEPT:
a. bronchoconstriction
b. stimulation of intestinal smooth muscles
c. uterine contraction
d. increased gastric secretion
d. increased gastric secretion
. The following are non-narcotic analgesics:
a. naproxen
b. ibuprofen
c. piroxicam
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Which of the following drug/s primarily act on the proximal tubule (site 1) to produce its/ their diuretic effect, EXCEPT:
a. mannitol
b. acetazolamide
c. furosemide
d. glycerol
c. furosemide
Also known as absence seizures:
a. grand mal
b. petit mal
c. myoclonic seizures
d. status epilepticus
e. none of the above
b. petit mal
Agents that facilitate the easy removal of compacted fecal matter:
a. astringent
b. styptics
c. adsorbents
d. cathartics
d. cathartics
Vitamin B12 deficiency state:
a. sterility
b. pernicious anemia
c. hepatitis
d. none of the above
b. pernicious anemia
The non-systemic antacids are preferred because of the safety as well as:
a. shorter duration of action
b. longer duration of action
c. no action
d. none of the above
b. longer duration of action
Bactericidal drugs that are applied to non-living material:
a. antiseptics
b. disinfectants
c. germicide
d. all
b. disinfectants
An anti-inflammatory drug also used for malaria:
a. gold salts
b. methotrexate
c. chloroquine
d. penicillamine
c. chloroquine
drugs affecting thyroid:
a. thyroxine
b. iodine
c. methimazole
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
This heart condition develops when the blood volume is great compared to the space available inside blood vessels; this can be caused by edema:
a. heart failure
b. hypertension
c. angina
d. arrhythmias
e. myocardial infarction
b. hypertension
An anti-psychotic drug possessing antihistaminic and anti-emetic properties:
a. promethazine
b. amitriptylline
c. scopolamine
d. morphine
e. none of the above
a. promethazine
Which of the ff. tends to cause black, tarry stools?
a. magnesium sulfate
b. magnesium hydroxide
c. calcium bicarbonate
d. ferrous sulfate
e. castor oil
d. ferrous sulfate
Fecal softener:
a. anthraquinone glycosides
b. docusate
c. fleet enema
d. mineral oil
b. docusate
Both oxytocin and vasopressin increase:
a. constriction of uterine blood vessels
b. constriction of coronary blood vessels, thereby reducing cardiac output
c. water reabsorption with equal effectiveness in diabetes insipidus
d.uterine contractility
d.uterine contractility
. carbonic anhydrase inhibitor:
a. spironolactone
b. acetazolamide
c. aldosterone
d. all of the above
b. acetazolamide
Anti-TB drug which causes optic neuritis:
a. PZA
b. ethambutol
c. rifampicin
d. streptomycin
e. none of the above
b. ethambutol
An antidote for heparin overdosage:
a. dicumarol
b. calcium salt
c. protamine sulfate
d. atropine
c. protamine sulfate
Potassium ion- hydrogen ion ATPase dependent pump inhibitor:
a. Misoprostol
b. omeprazole
c. cimetidine
d. all of the above
e. none
b. omeprazole
A non-selective beta antagonist, it blocks both beta 1 and beta 2 receptors:
a. atenolol
b. propranolol
c. tinolol
d. atropine
b. propranolol
Each of the following drugs produces a reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side effects, EXCEPT:
a. clonidine
b. nitroglycerine
c. diazoxide
d. hydralazine
e. minoxidil
a. clonidine
Which of the following drugs could be used effectively to alleviate postpartum breast engorgement in patients who are breastfeeding their infants?
a. vasopressin
b. estrogen
c. progesterone
d. oxytocin
e. ergonovine
d. oxytocin
Angina is treated with:
a. Drugs that increase perfusion of the myocardia by relaxing coronary arteries
b. Beta blockers that decrease the oxygen demand of the heart
c. Both
d. neither
c. Both
Agents that facilitate the easy removal of compacted fecal matter from the large intestines:
a. anti-diarrheals
b. anti-motility agents
c. laxatives
d. anti-flatulents
e. none of the above
c. laxatives
Megaloblastic anemia can develop as consequence of prolonged therapy with each of the following, EXCEPT:
a. phenytoin
b. primidone
c. phenobarbital
d. ethosuximide
e. amethopterin
d. ethosuximide
Type of anemia which produces immature RBC decreasing their oxygen carrying capacity (this results due to the decreased biosynthesis of thymidylate which in turn is utilized in the synthesis of DNA):
a. pernicious
b. microcytic
c. aplastic
d. megaloblastic
e. none of the above
d. megaloblastic
The side effects of steroids diminish when the drug is given via:
a. IV
b. oral
c. inhalation
d. subcutaneous
e. rectal
c. inhalation
Vitamin used in cancer chemotherapy:
a. cyanocobalamine
b. folic acid
c. pyridoxine
d. thiamine
e. riboflavin
a. cyanocobalamine
In a person with ulcerative colitis and diarrhea, which agent would have the greatest potential for producing perforation of the intestine?
a. morphine
b. kaolin with pectin
c. atropine
d. methylcellulose
e. propantheline
a. morphine
Anti-diarrheal agents include all of the ff., EXCEPT:
a. kaolin
b. paregoric
c. activated charcoal
d. magnesium hydroxide
e. diphenoxylate
d. magnesium hydroxide
Administration of each of the following drugs during chronic dicumarol therapy may cause an increase in the anticoagulant effect of dicumarol:
a. clofibrate
b. broad spectrum antibiotics
c. phenylbutazone
d. salicylates
e. Phenobarbital
e. Phenobarbital
The richest source of vitamin K:
a. green leafy vegetables
b. organ meats
c. citrus fruits
d. rice polishings
a. green leafy vegetables
A stimulant laxative also used as an indicator in acid-base titrations:
a. methyl red
b. phenolphthalein
c. dulcolax
d. senna
e. none of these
b. phenolphthalein
The most specific drug therapy for neostigmine-induced diarrhea would be:
a. methysergide
b. cholestyramine
c. tincture of belladonna
d. calcium carbonate
e. kaolin with pectin
c. tincture of belladonna
Antidote for INH toxicity:
a. acetylcysteine
b. pyridoxine
c. niacinamide
d. none of the above
b. pyridoxine
Anti-ulcer drug which possesses both anti-secretory and cytoprotective properties:
a. sucralfate
b. carbenoxolone
c. milk of bismuth
d. misoprostol
e. none of the above
d. misoprostol
Antidote for carbon monoxide poisoning:
a. 100% oxygen
b. hyperbaric oxygen
c. helium + oxygen mixture
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
d. all of the above
The development of metabolic acidosis limits the diuretic efficacy of:
a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. mannitol
c. furosemide
d. acetazolamide
e. ethacrynic acid
d. acetazolamide
Side effects of organic nitrates include the ff., EXCEPT:
a. postural hypotension
b. migraine
c. dizziness
d. vomiting
d. vomiting
An antihypertensive agent that rarely produces postural hypotension as a troublesome side effect is:
a. guanethidine
b. methyldopa
c. hydrochlorothiazide
d. hydralazine
e. mecamylamine
c. hydrochlorothiazide
Metabolic alkalosis is likely to enhance digitalis toxicity because it is often associated with:
a. decreased ionized plasma calcium
b. decreased plasma volume
c. increased ionized plasma magnesium
d. increased plasma magnesium
e. decreased tissue potassium
e. decreased tissue potassium
For the emergency treatment of anaphylactic shock, one should administer:
a. aminophylline
b. diphenhydramine
c. epinephrine
d. disodium chromoglycate
e. isoproterenol
c. epinephrine
Diuretics that act on the ascending Loop of Henle:
a. furosemide
b. ethacrynic acid
c. acetazolamide
d. both a and b
d. both a and b
Agents that control excessive sweating:
a. deodorants
b. anti-perspirants
c. styptics
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
b. anti-perspirants
Hemolytic anemia is a recognized danger in the administration of all of the ff., EXCEPT:
a. sulfadiazine
b. primaquine
c. menadione
d. digitoxin
e. para-aminosalicylic acid
d. digitoxin
Chemical compounds that alleviate irritation of mucous membrane or abraded tissue by forming a protective coating:
a. emollients
b. demulcents
c. protectives
d. astringents
e. none of the above
b. demulcents
. The excretion of large volumes of urine isotonic with plasma is most likely to occur after the administration of:
a. hydrochlorothiazide
b. acetazolamide
c. amiloride
d. aminophylline
b. acetazolamide
The ff. drugs are used as bronchodilators:
a. calcium channel blockers
b. anti-cholinergic agents
c. adrenergic drugs
d. xanthine alkaloids
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
This drug is a mainstay for the acute treatment of migraine:
a. ergotamine
b. ketanserin
c. cyprophentadine
d. none of these
a. ergotamine
Common toxic effects of digitoxin include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. anorexia
b. diuresis
c. pulsus bigeminus
d. visual disturbance
e. heart rate below 60 beats/minute
d. visual disturbance
Types of anemia which causes neurological symptoms, achlorhydria, plus the symptoms of megaloblastic anemia:
a. microcytic
b. pernicious
c. aplastic
d. aggranulocytosis
e. none
b. pernicious
Which of the ff. agents is least likely to produce kidney damage when used to treat a systemic infection?
a. sulfadiazine
b. streptomycin
c. bacitracin
d. erythromycin
e. viomycin
d. erythromycin
Agents that lower serum cholesterol by interfering with cholesterol synthesis include:
a. heparin
b. cholestyramine
c. d-thyroxine
d. clofibrate
d. clofibrate
An ergot alkaloid used to induce uterine smooth muscle contraction:
a. carboprost
b. oxytocin
c. ergonovine
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
c. ergonovine
Drugs used for microcytic anemia:
a. cyanocobalamine
b. ferrous sulfate
c. folic acid
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
b. ferrous sulfate
The condition wherein the heart can no longer pump enough blood to meet the metabolic demands of the body:
a. congestive heart failure
b. arrhythmias
c. angina
d. myocardial infarction
e. hypertension
a. congestive heart failure
Drug of choice for persistent hiccups:
a. oxygen
b. helium
c. carbon monoxide
d. ammonia
e. nitrogen
c. carbon monoxide
Agents that reduce the number of resident bacteria of the skin and thus inhibit bacterial decomposition of perspiration:
a. deodorants
b. anti-perspirants
c. styptics
d. all of the above
e. none of the choices
a. deodorants
Inherent pharmacologic property of iodine ion:
a. mucolytic
b. expectorant
c. anti-tussive
d. bronchodilator
e. none of the choices
b. expectorant
Pharmacologic actions of calcium channel blockers include:
a. vasodilation due to the blockade of calcium and reduction of intracellular calcium
b. decrease coronary vascular resistance
c. increase coronary blood flow
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
This dusting powder is not used as a lubricant for surgical gloves since it may produce granulomas:
a. talc
b. zinc oxide
c. starch
d. all of the above
e. none of the choices
a. talc
Deficiency state of folic acid:
a. megaloblastic anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. microcytic anemia
d. sterility
a. megaloblastic anemia
Anti-nauseant used by patients undergoing cancer chemotherapy:
a. haloperidol
b. phenothiazines
c. cannabinol
d. meclizine
c. cannabinol
Oxygen-starved areas of the heart begin to die:
a. arrhythmias
b. myocardial infarction
c. heart failure
d. hypertension
e. angina
b. myocardial infarction
These are toxic manifestations of atropine poisoning, EXCEPT:
a. increase heart rate
b. thirst
c. slowing of the heart
d. decreased secretions
c. slowing of the heart
The side effect of magnesium containing antacids:
a. constipation
b. laxative
c.acid-rebound
d. systemic alkalosis
e. all of the above
b. laxative
Each of the ff. drugs produces a reflex increase in sympathetic activity and tachycardia as side effects, EXCEPT:
a. clonidine
b. nitroglycerine
c. diazoxide
d. hydralazine
a. clonidine
The ff. are the uses of ethyl alcohol:
a. antiseptic
b. rubefacient
c. disinfectant
d. external antipyretic
e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Which of the ff. anti-emetic compounds is most likely to produce jaundice and parkinsonism when used for prolonged periods?
a. dimenhydrinate
b. chlorpromazine
c. meclizine
d. diphenidol
b. chlorpromazine
The organic nitrate given by inhalation is:
a. nitroglycerin
b. amyl nitrate
c. isosorbide dinitrate
d. all of the above
b. amyl nitrate
Hydrochlorothiazide is known to produce all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. hyperuricemia
b. hyperkalemia
c. hyponatremia
d. decreased blood pressure
e. hyperglycemia
b. hyperkalemia
Also known as hyperosmotic laxatives:
a. saline laxatives
b. emollient laxatives
c. bulk forming laxatives
d. stimulant laxatives
e. lubricant laxatives
a. saline laxatives
Constipating antacid:
a. magnesium sulfate
b. aluminum hydroxide
c. calcium sulfate
d. potassium bicarbonate
e. none of the above
b. aluminum hydroxide
Osmotic diuretic:
a. ethacrynic acid
b. mannitol
c. acetazolamide
d. spironolactone
e. none of the above
b. mannitol
These drugs increase the metabolism of quinidine:
a. phenytoin
b. rifampin
c. barbiturates
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
Parkinson-like symptoms are side effects of phenothizines; this is because phenothiazine causes:
a. blockade of the muscarinic receptors
b. blockade of the alpha adrenergic receptors
c. blockade of the dopamine recptors
d. stimulation of the nicotinic receptors
c. blockade of the dopamine recptors
Acts by centrally producing sedation and a state of indifference to environmental stimuli:
a. methyldopa
b. atenolol
c. guanethidine
d. reserpine
d. reserpine
Which of the ff. types of pulmonary dysfunction may follow heroin abuse?
a. pulmonary fibrosis
b. pulmonary edema
c. bronchospasm
d. pulmonary hypertension
d. pulmonary hypertension
Xanthine derivatives may produce the following effects, EXCEPT:
a. stimulation of the heart rate
b. diuresis
c. bronchodilation
d. depression of the respiratory center
d. depression of the respiratory center
The ratio of the LD50 to the ED50 is an indication of the:
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. therapeutic index
d. none of the given choices
c. therapeutic index
The applied form of pharmacology:
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacodynamics
c. pharmacotherapeutics
d. pharmacy
c. pharmacotherapeutics
Drug interaction may be due to the following, EXCEPT:
a. drug-drug interaction
b. drug-food interaction
c. drug-lab test
d. placebo drug
d. placebo drug
drug information is a responsibility of:
a. physician
b. nurse
c. drug salesman
d. pharmacist
d. pharmacist
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