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119 terms

micro exam 3

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome (e.g. the Bubble Boy) is due to what?
complete absence of lymphocyte stem cell in marrow, and/or dysfunction of B cells and T cells
Secondary immunodeficiency is which of the following; genetically based, congenital, acquired, gender specific.
acquired (infection, organic disease, chemotherapy or radiation)
With hemolytic disease of the newborn, the Rh factor is a problem when the mother is _______ and the fetus is ________.
Mom is Rh negative; fetus ir Rh positive
Primary mediators in Type IV hypersensitivities include what?
cell mediated or delayed type hypersensitivity (poison ivy) T cells
Identify the systemic autoimmune disease from the list A) Graves disease, B) Pernicious anemia, C) Type I diabetes, D) Rheumatoid arthritis.
Rheumatoid arthritis
______ explains that during embryonic growth, some tissues are immunologically privileged.
sequestered antigen theory
Which disease affects skeletal muscle, progressing from weakness to complete loss of muscle function and death, due to autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors in nerve transmission.
myasthenia gravis
A(n) _______ is grafting between identical twins.
Primary mediators in Type III hypersensitivities include what?
soluble IgA, IgG, IgM and inflamitory response antigens
Type III hypersensitivities involve what?
large amounts of antigens reacting with host antibodies forming immune complexes causing chronic, latent inflammation
Primary mediators in Type II hypersensitivities include what?
compliment, IgG, IgM antibodies
The universal blood donor is which blood type?
O is univrsal donor (AB is universal recipient)
How are blood typing tests are performed? Describe?
drops of blood mixed with antisera (has antibodies aginst A antigen and B antigen) then watch for aggllutination
Histamine is the most profuse and fast-acting allergic mediator, it does what?
STIMULATES smooth muscle, glands and eosinophils
Primary mediators in Type I hypersensitivities include what?
IgE, Basophils, Mast Cells, agents of inflammatory response
Systemic anaphylaxis is characterized by what?
sudden RESPIRATORY and CIRCULATORY DISRUPTION, can be fatal in a few minutes
Type I hypersensitivity reactions include what?
atopy (local & chronic) anaphylaxis (systemic)
Allergic rhinitis is a seasonal reaction to what?
Plant pollen or mold (aka hay fever)
Allergens that enter by mouth are called what?
______ is any chronic local allergy such as hay fever or asthma.
An example of antibody-mediated hypersensitivity includes what?
1.blood group incapatilility 2. mysathenia gravi, 3. pericious anemia
Immediate hypersensitivity is what?
any form of hypersensitivity mediated by antibodies and developing rapidly, generally in minutes to hours (type I--anaphylaxis, asthma, hay fever)
Antigens that trigger hypersensitivity reactions are called what?
What are the four categories of hypersensitivity reactions?
Type I (allergy an anaphylaxis) Type II (IgG, IgM tissue destruction) Type III (immune complex reaction) Type IV (delayed hypersensitivity reaction)
"Undesirable immune reactions" include what?
Allergies, autoimmunity, graft/transfusion, Immunodeficiency (NOT SURE OF ANSWER)
Signs and symptoms of inflammation include what?
"PRISH" Pain (dolor), Redness (rubor), Immobility (loss of function--Functio laesa), Swelling (tumor) and Heat (calor)
Attenuation is any process that does what?
substantial lessens/negates virulence of viruses or bacteria
The memory response means that the second exposure to an antigen calls forth a much faster and more vigorous response than the first.
The Clonal Selection Theory says that early undifferentiated _________ in the embryo and fetus undergo a continuous series of divisions and genetic changes that generate hundreds of millions of different cell types, each carrying a particular receptor specificity.
What are the functions of antibodies?
1.stop pathogens from entering/damaging cells by binding to them 2.macrophages/other cells coat pathogen to stimulate removal 3. trigger destruction of pathogens by stimulating other immune responses
Vaccines typically can use what types of microbial antigens?
* Live, attenuated vaccines
* Inactivated vaccines
* Subunit vaccines
* Toxoid vaccines
* Conjugate vaccines
* DNA vaccines
* Recombinant vector vaccines
An advantage of attenuated live preparations in vaccines is what?
closest to natural infection, produce a strong response with fewer doses, life long immunity
Active immunization is synonymous with what term?
Artificial passive immunity usually involves administration of what?
administration of antiserum, and occasionally B and T cells (person needs protection ASAP) ex: ISG (immune serum globulin) and SIG (specific immune globulin).
Protection from infection obtained through medical procedures is called what?
artificial immunity
"Cell mediated immunity" refers to what?
CMI=responses of T cells. (need direct involvement of T lymphocyctes throughout reaction)
The anamnestic response to an antigen results from what?
result from recall from MEMORY B cells formed during primary response. (from artificial active immunity)
______ is the capacity of certain T cells to kill a specific target cell.
_________are the result of B cell activation and secrete specific antibody. They are large, specialized, and the most numerous of B cell progeny.
plasma cells
The only immunoglobin that is secreted outside of tissues (found in tears, saliva, mucus, and colostrums), secretory is a dimer held together by a J chain is what.
IgA dimer
This immunoglobulin gives long-term immunity and is associated with memory response
During clonal selection and antigen binding what occurs?
1.B cells recognize microbes/foreign antigens 2.bind them with Ig receptors (initial selection of antigen-specific B-cell clone occurs)The clonal selection theory explains that during development, both B and T cells develop millions of genetically different clones through independent segregation, random reassortment, and mutation. Together these clones possess enough genetic variability to respond to many millions of different antigens. Each clone, however, can respond to only one specific antigen. Problematic outcome of random genentic assortment is the development of clones of lymphotcytes able to react to self. This outcome could lead to severe damage when the 8immune system actually perceives self molecules as foreign and mounts a harmful response against the host's tissues. According to a corollary of the colonal theory, any such clones are destroyed during development through clonal deletion. The removal of such potentially harmful clones is the basis of immune tolerance or tolerance to self
Antigen presenting cells (APC's) include which cell types?
macrophages, B cells, dendritic cells
Haptens are what?
a small molecule (only a determinant group) that can elicit an immune response only when attached to a large carrier such as a protein
The portion of a molecule which elicits an immune response is called what?
Materials that work well as immunogens include what molecules?
1.large(10,000 molec. wt) 2.complex molecules (non linear) 3. structure:lipids, glycoproteins, polysacharides, nucleic acids
T cells A) mature in the bone marrow, B) circulate in low numbers in the blood, C) produce antibodies, D) function in helping other immune cells.
D, function in helping other immune cells
_______ are large glycoprotein molecules that serve as the specific receptors of B cells and as antibodies.
immunoglobulin (Ig)
"Self" markers in human cells are what?
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Surface receptors on immune system cells function in what?
Attachment to non-self or foreign antigens
Binding to cell surface receptors that indicate self
Receiving and transmitting chemical messages to coordinate the response
Aiding in cellular development
Place the stages of immune function in the proper order according to Clonal Selection Theory.
An immunoglobulin is made up of four polypeptide chains, two heavy and two light. The hypervariable region which binds the antigen lies where?
1) A hematopoietic stem cell undergoes differentiation and genetic rearrangement to produce 2) immature lymphocytes with many different antigen receptors. Those that bind to 3) antigens from the body's own tissues are destroyed, while the rest mature into 4) inactive lymphocytes. Most of these will never encounter a matching 5) foreign antigen, but those that do are activated and produce 6) many clones of themselves.***disulfide bonds (join light and heavy regins)
______ are molecules that stimulate a response by T and B cells
Complement is a complex defense system that results, by way of a cascade mechanism, in the formation of a membrane attack complex that kills cells by creating holes in their membranes.
TRUE. Consists of 26 blood proteins that work in concert to destroy bacteria and certain viruses. The sources of complement factors are liver hepatocytes, lymphocytes, and monocytes. A complex defense system that results, by way of a cascade mechanism, in the formation of a membrane attack complex that kills cell by creating holes in their membranes. The plasma contains complement, a nonspecific group of chemicals that works on its own or with the third line of defense to destroy foreign cells by lysing their membranes.
Complement is found in the ______.
Interferon synthesis does what?
1. wall/surface????2.enhance the ability of macrophages to destroy tumor cells, viruses, and bacteria
Fever is what?
abnormally elevated body temperature (adjunct to inflammation)
Monocytes leave the marrow via the bloodstream. As they enter tissues, they mature and become what?
macrophages or dendritic cells
_______ are produced by leukocytes and fibroblasts. It inhibits virus replication and cell division and increases the action of certain lymphocytes that kill other cells.
The chief functions of the inflammatory response include what?
1.Mobilize and attract immune components to the site of the injury
2.Set in motion mechanisms to repair tissue damage and localize and clear away harmful substances
3.Destroy microbes and block their further invasion
Inflammation is characterized by what four things
1.Pain (dolor) 2.Redness (rubor), 3. Swelling (tumor) 4.Heat (calor) (stages:injury, blood vessel adjustments (via cellular chemicals), edema (pus, fluid and fibers collect in tissue), resolution (or scar))
Granulocytes are what?
WBC with granules in cytoplasm play a role in immune system (neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils)
Identify the specific defense from the list that follows. A) Granulocytes, B) T-lymphocytes, C) Macrophages, D) Dendritic cells
GRANULOCYTES:white blood cell filled with microscopic granule sacs containing enzymes(digest microorganisms) innate nonspecific T-LYMPHOCYTES: destroy invaders and signal to others for help MACROPHAGES: phagocytose (engulf and then digest) cellular debris stimulate lymphocytes DENDRITIC CELLS: antigen-presenting cells
How does the lymphatic system differs from the bloodstream?
LYMPH: gather/remove waist in tissues, open circut one way tissue to vessels not pumped/passive flowfiltered, clear milky white fluid invisable, damage hard to detect until swelling filtered by lymph nodes protein rich swelling BLOOD: gather/distribute oxygen, nutrients & hormones closed continuous loop heart pumps blood to arteries, veins carry back to heart blood had rbc, wbc, plasm, platelets visible bleeding/bruising filtered by kidneys low protein swelling
The lymphatic system does what?
1. Helps immune system (destroy pathogens and filtering waste) 2. remove excess fluid, waste, debris, dead blood cells, pathogens, cancer cells, and toxins 3. deliver nutrients, oxygen, and hormones from the blood to the cells
The B-lymphocyte is what and matures where?
1.mature in bone marrow 2.make antibodies against antigens, perform the role of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) *develop into memory B cells
Platelets act or function in what processes?
growth hormone, clotting/hemostasis (keeping blood within a damaged blood vessel)
Erythrocytes do what and what is their appearance?
red blood cell delivering oxygen (O2) to the body tissues via the blood flow flexible biconcave disks that lack a cell nucleus and most organelles
The majority of white blood cells in circulation include what?
Hematopoietic stem cells are what?
multipotent stem cells that give rise to all the blood cell types
Hemopoiesis begins early in embryonic development in the what?
AGM (Aorta-gonad-mesonephros), and then massively expanded in the Fetal Liver prior to colonize before birth the bone marrow
Plasma is what?
mostly water (93% by volume) Proteins such as albumin and globulins, immunochemicals, fibrinogen and other clotting factors, hormones, nutrients, dissolved gases, and waste products
The reticuloendothelial system (RES) is what?.
network of CT fibers, that originates in the cellular basal lamina. It provides a passageway within and between tissues and organs. It is also heavily populated with macrophages.
A healthy functioning immune system is responsible for all of the following except one. Identify the function that is NOT one of the roles of the immune system. A) surveillance of the body, B) recognition of foreign material, C) creation of barriers to deter the invasion of microbes, D) destruction of entities deemed to be foreign.
C) creation of barriers to deter the invasion of microbes
Which of the following is NOT correct regarding host defenses? A) First line of defense blocks portals of entry, B) Second line of defense include inflammation and phagocytosis, C) Third line of defense is lymphocyte-dependent and specific, D) Fourth line of defense provides long-term immunity
D 4th line of defense (non existent)
Nonspecific chemical defenses of the human host include what?
lysozyme, lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat, skin's acidic pH and fatty acids, and stomach hydrochloric acid
Surface protection is classified as what?
1st line of defense
Inborn, nonspecific defenses can be divided into physical, chemical, and genetic barriers that impede the entry of not only microbes but any foreign agent, whether living or not. Identify the physical barrier.
skin and mucous membranes
Nosocomial infections are what?
Hospital acquired infections
Epidemiology is the study of disease in _________.
human populations
As the infectious dose of the microorganism increases, the virulence of the microorganism __________.
Universal (Blood and Body Fluid) Precautions include what?
Gloves, masks, and other barrier protective gear are universal precautions. Also disposing of sharps properly, sanitizing tools and surfaces, germicidal soaps, and mouth to mouth resuscitation barriers. These are used under the assumption that all patient/ specimens could be harmful.
Koch's Postulates for identifying a pathogen require what four steps? SA
establish a causal relationship between a causative microbe and a disease 1.) Find EVIDANCE of a particular microbe in EVERY INSTANCE of the DISEASE.
2.) ISOLATE the microbe from an infected subject and CULTIVATE it in pure culture in the laboratory.
3.) INNOCULATE it in a susceptible healthy subject with the lab isolate and OBSERVE the same results of the disease.
4.) REISOLATE the agent again from this subject.
An infection which is indigenous to animals but can be transmitted to humans is a what?
______ are individuals who inconspicuously shelter a pathogen and spread it to others.
A fomite is what?
Carrier; non-biological inanimate item that can harbor and transmit disease. A fomite can be ANYTHING. Doorknobs, Utensils, Sheets, Money, etc
Horizontal transmission means the disease is spread through a population from one infected individual to another. What does vertical transmission mean?
Vertical transmission means passage from parent to offspring via ovum, sperm, placenta, or milk
When cases are concentrated in one area at a relatively stable rate, then the disease is what?
After initial infection, some infectious agents go into a dormancy, or ________, but may re-emerge to produce a recurrent disease state.
Be able to identify a symptom.
A symptom is a FEELING of the patient, is subjective, and is usually described as hurt, sore, hot, etc.
Objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer is called what?
a SIGN. (more precise and measurable by observer)
A focal infection is where the infectious agent does what?
break loose from their site of infection and are carried to other tissues.
Exotoxins differ from endotoxins how? SA
EXOTOXINS: a protein, larger chemical weight, boiling denatures (heat liable), can be toxoided, highly potent, extracellular secreted, high specificity, produced by gram positive bacteria (some g- bac) Highly antigenic, tissue specific, no fever produced.
ENDOTOXIN: Lipopolysacharide, smaller chemical weight, boiling does not denature (heat stable),can not be toxoided, low potency, outer cell membraine--not secreted, non specific, gram negative An endotoxin is a toxin shed from the outer membrane, and not actively secreted. poorly antigenic, non specific, produce fever.
*(Exos are proteins with a very strong specificity for a target cell and very strong, often deadly, effects. The exos affect cells by disrupting intracellular function and initiating lysis. There are many examples of exotoxins. However, by contrast, there is only one endotoxin. Endotoxins are actually chemicals called LPS (lipopolysaccharides) that are part of the outer cell membrane of Gram negative cell walls. G(-) bacteria release these lps molecules into tissues or into the circulation. Endotoxin causes fever, hemorrhage, and diarrhea. Blood infections by these bacteria cause endotoxic shock, which is fatal.)
Antiphagocytic factors produced by microorganisms include what?
1.destroying the phagocyte outright, (some bacterial cells contain leukocidins, a substance that is toxic to WBCs), 2. secrete a slime layer 3. capsule that makes them difficult to engulf 4. some are able to survive following phagocytosis.
What are adhesion mechanisms that bacteria use to attach to a host?
Fimbriae, Slime layers, Fusion to epithelium, Capsules, Surface proteins
A virulence factor can be what?
characteristic or structure of the microbe causes injury or can be toxic or can produce a host response and cause damage. an adaptation used by the microbe to invade and establish itself within the host.
Bacteria colonizing the body are necessary for proper development. A germ-free animal displays what characteristics?
lesser vitamin absorption, enlargement of the cecum, underdevelopment of immunity, absence of dental caries and gingival diseases, heightened sensitivity to enteric pathogens, and lessened susceptibility to amoebic dysentery (theorized that the amoeba require intestinal flora to complete their life cycles)
Endogenous infections are caused by what?
a microbe entering an area where it doesnt belong (normal in one area, but travels into another. ex E. coli in the lungs
Host defenses are compromised by what?
opportunistic pathogen
Infants are typically first exposed to disease where?
during the birthing process, womb was steril--Breaking of fetal membrane exposes the infant
Resident biota (normal flora) of human beings include members of the what types of organisms.
Bacteria, Fungi, Protozoa, Arthropods
Microbial antagonism means that what?
microorganisms of the normal microbiota that suppress the growth of other microorganisms (Bacterial flora benefit host by preventing overgrowth of harmful microbes)
Effects of bacterial exposure may lead to disease in the host. Place the usual occurrences in the proper sequence or order.
1a. Portal of entry 1.Adhesion - microbes gain a stable foothold at the portal of entry 2. survive host defenses (phagocytosis--Antiphagocytic factors ,leukocidins-toxic to wbc, slime layer/capsule--phagocytosis difficult ) 3. cause disease 4. portal of exit
Identify sterile (microbe-free) anatomical sites.
AREAS NOT EXPOSED TO OUTSIDE. Heart & Circulatory System, Liver, Kidneys & Bladder, Lungs, Brain & Spinal cord, Muscles, Bones, Ovaries & Testes, Glands, Sinuses, Middle & Inner Ear, Internal Eye. Blood, Urine, CSF, Saliva (before oral cavity), Semen and Amniotic Fluid
There are certain conditions that must be met for infection to occur. What are they?
infectious agent, reservoir, entering a susceptible host, exit and transmission to new hosts.
stages of infection
incubation period - time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of first symptoms; agent is multiplying but damage is insufficient to cause symptoms; several hours to several years
prodromal stage - vague feelings of discomfort; nonspecific complaints
period of invasion - multiplies at high levels, becomes well established; more specific signs and symptoms
convalescent period - as person begins to respond to the infection, symptoms decline
A test using lysis of sheep red blood cells to determine if antibody is present in serum is ___ ?
compliment fixation
Describe the ELISA test.
ELISA test uses enzymes and dyes to detect antigen-antibody complexes. It is widely used to detect viruses, bacteria, and antibodies in HIV infection.
The Ouchterlony double-diffusion test can help identify unknown antigen or antibody using precipitation in what.
uses AGAR GELS in which preparations of viral antigens and specific antibodies are placed in adjacent wells in a plate containing agar gel
Direct fluorescent antibody tests can be used to do what?
determin iif antibody and antigen connect. used for identification
Samples collected early in an infection are called ___________, while samples collected later from the same subject are called ___________.
___________ reactions occur between antibody and antigens bound to cells.
Immunoassays are useful A) to diagnose viral infections, B) to detect very small quantities of antigen, C) to detect very small quantities of antibody, D) all of the above.
D. all of the above
A titer is the concentration of what in what?
concentration of the antibody in your blood. The titer of an antibody is related to the number of times you can dilute a sample of blood and still detect the antibody.
Hybridization in DNA analysis requires the use of what reagents?
Specificity is a property of a test which tells what?
the proportion of negatives which are correctly identified (e.g. the percentage of healthy people who are correctly identified as not having the condition).
Sampling methods vary by site. It is important to sample correctly because why?
contaminates could skew results
Identify the method of macroscopic testing listed below. A) Gram staining, B) direct antigen, C) biochemical testing, D) animal inoculation.
B direct antigen
Phenotypic methods of identification include what?
microscopic morph., macroscopic morphology, physiological/biochemical characteristics, chemical analysis
Genotypic methods of analysis include what?
DNA Analysis Using Genetic Probes (hybridization)
An example of a immunological method of diagnosis includes A) direct examination of specimens, B) observing the growth of specimen cultures on special media, C) serological testing of specimen cultures, D) nucleic acid sequencing.
C) serological testing of specimen cultures
Cell shape, size, and special characteristics can be determined by A) Gram staining, B) acid-fast staining, C) endospore staining, D) all of the above
D all of the above