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A&P Exam 1 Study Guide; Chap 1-9

STUDY
PLAY
Organism
Organ System
Organ
Tissue
Cell
Chemical
. Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most COMPLEX to the SIMPLEST
Homeostasis
The maintenance of a constant internal environment in an organism is termed
Anatomical Position
A person facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is in the
Anterior
An anatomical term that means the same as ventral
Medial
The heart is ________ to the lungs
Distal
The wrist is ________ to the elbow
Caudal
The chin is ________ to the nose
Pedi-
Which of the following terms refers to the foot
Sagittal
Which plane divides the body into right and left parts
Heart; Lungs;
The thoracic cavity contains the
Heart
A midsagittal section would pass through the
Negative
If a response decreases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system
Positive
If a response increases a disturbance, the system is classified as a ________ feedback system
Structure; Function;
Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________
Effector
A cell or organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is termed a(n)
RUQ; LUQ; RLQ; LLQ;
The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following
Supine
A person is lying on the bed gazing at the ceiling. She is in the ________ position
Right Lung
The right pleural cavity contains the
a location in response to another location
Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe
Thoracic & Abdominopelvic
The two major divisions of the ventral body cavity are the
Epigastric Region of the RUQ
The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant
Towards the foot
While standing erect, the direction of caudal is
Cytology
The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called
Skeletal
Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood formation
Cardiovascular
Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells
Respiratory
Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream
Hypothalamus
An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be
Protons
The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has
Protons & Neutrons
The mass number represents the number of
2
The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons
Isotopes
The "atomic weight" of an atom reflects the average number of
Cations
Ions with a + charge are called
Hydrogen
The weakest bond between two atoms is the ________ bond
There is a transfer of electrons
Ionic bonds are formed when
Polarcovalent Bond
If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ occurs
Exothermic
Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be
They are catalysts
Lower activation energy
All of the following are true concerning enzymes
Activation
Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites
High heat index
Lubricate
Reactivity
Solubility
Which of the following statements about water is not correct
Neutral
A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
Lower than 7
Which of the following substances would be most acidic
Base; Alkaline; or Caustic
If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is
Carbonic Acid or Bicarbonate
An important buffer in body fluids is
Glucose
The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
Unsaturated
A fatty acid that contains two or more double covalent bonds is said to be
Triglycerides
Most of the fat found in the human body is in the form of
Amino Acid
You would expect a peptide bond to link
R Group
Each amino acid differs from another in the
Secondary
The alpha-helix and pleated sheet are examples of ________ protein structure
Nucleic Acids
Molecules that store and process genetic information are the
Guanine
According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair with the base
ATP
The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is
Water molecules
Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with
18
If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is
Hydrogen
Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus
Loose water
In dehydration reactions, compounds
Protons & Neutrons
The mass of an atom is largely determined by the number of ________ it has
7.35-7.45 (Blood is 7.4)
Which pH is closest to normal body pH
Specifity
The term ________ means each enzyme catalyzes only one type of reaction
Calcium
By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body
Cytosol
The watery component of the cytoplasm is called
Phospholipids
Steroids
Protein
Carbohydrates
The plasma membrane is composed of
Anchor
Identify
Enzymes
Receptor
Carrier
Channels
Which of the following is a function of membrane proteins
Micro filaments
Intermediate filaments
Microtubules
Components of the cytoskeleton may include all of the following, except
Mitochondria
Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached ribosomes
Nuclus
The control center for cellular operations is the
RNA
The triplet codes needed to specify a specific polypeptide chain are found in the
Translation
The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called
Transcription
The process of forming mRNA is called
Diffusion
The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is an example of
Pores
Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
Active Transport
A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration gradient is called
Endocytosis
The intake of small membrane vesicles from the extracellular fluid is called
Charges
The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the separation of
Interphase
The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares for division is called
S Phase
A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase
Anaphase
During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes during
Telophase
. During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms, and cytokinesis occurs
Apoptosis
The genetically programmed death of cells is called
Enzymes
Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions
Endocytosis
Involves relatively large volumes of extracellular material to be packaged in vesicles at the cell surface and be imported into the cell
The energy requirements are higher
Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that
Genes
The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins are
Hypertonic (Crenation);
Hypotonic (Hemolysis);
Red blood cell shrinkage is to ________ as cell bursting is to ________
Endocytosis
Exocytosis
Two types of vesicular transport include
Phagocytosis
A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates
Apical
The tissue that always has a "top" and a "bottom" is
Squamous
type of epithelium found where absorption or secretion takes place is ________ epithelium
Endocrine
Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are
Apocrine
Which of the following is a type of secretion in which some cytoplasm is lost with the product
Adipocytes
Cells that store fat are called
collagen
The dominant fiber type in dense connective tissue is
Bone
Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
Smooth
The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle
Neural (Nervous)
Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue
Simple Tubular
A gland formed by cells arranged in a blind pocket with a single unbranched duct would be called
Macrophasions
Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are
has a very small ground substance
Unlike cartilage, bone
Gap
The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the
Secretory Vessicles;
Ductless Glands;
Ducts;
Endocrine glands empty their products into ________ and are referred to as ________ glands, while exocrine gland secretions empty into ________ or onto surfaces
Connective Tissue Proper
Loose Connective Tissue
Fluid Connective Tissue
The three types of connective tissue include
Adults; Babys;
White fat is found in____, while brown fat is found in____.
Hyaline (Fibrocartilage)
Which type of connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum, or supporting the trachea
Hair
Errector Pilli Muscles
Seat Glands
Nails
Sebaceous Glands
Accessory structures of the skin include all of the following
Stratum Germinativum
The layer of dividing cells at the base of the epidermis is the
stratum corneum
The tough "horny" superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the
Stratified Squamous Epithelium
Large quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the
Melanin
An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
Subcutaneous
The layer of the skin that contains the blood vessels and nerves that are closest to the surface of the skin is the _______ layer
Sweat Glands
Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands
Enzymes
Merocrine sweat contains ________ to protect against bacteria
Vitamin D3 (Cholecalciferol)
An important vitamin that is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight is
You get goose bumps
When the arrector pili muscles contract
*sensible perspiration
*Cool surface of the ksin to reduce body temperature
*Excrete water and electrolytes
*Provide protection for enviornmental hazards
Merocrine sweat glands
4;
5;
Thin skin contains ________ layer(s) of keratinocytes, and thick skin contains ________ layers
Melanoma;
Basal Cell Carcinoma;
Types of skin cancers include
Heals easier;
Closes completely;
A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage
Merocrine;
Sebaceous;
Apocrine;
________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever
hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas
Lack of Oxygen (blue)
Cyanosis signifies that a patient
Producing a yellowish-tenge. (too much Biliruben)
Jaundice is indicated by
*Stratified Squamous Epithelium
*Avascular
*Dominated by Keratinocytes
*Provides protection & keeps microrganisms out
Characteristics of the epidermis include
Flat
A rib is an example of a ________ bone
Diaphysis
The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the ________
Osteoblasts
Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called
The bone matrix is contained. Calcium and phosphate concentrations in the body fluid are regulated.
Through the action of osteoclasts
Diaphysis
The shaft of a long bone is called the
Epiphyseal Plate
What structure allows a bone to grow in length
Mesenchymal Cells--Osteoblasts. Bone expands
Blood vessels form
bone assumes structure of spongy bone
Major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification in order is
1. Cartilage enlarges. chondrocyres increase. matrix isreduced.
2. blood vessels grow
3.Fibroblasts migrate with the blood vessels. produce spongy bone.
4.remodeling occurs. shaft of the bone becomes thicker.
5. capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the epiphysies.
6. epiphysies are filled with spongy bone.
Important steps in the process of endochondral ossification in order is
Calcium
The most abundant mineral in the human body is
Decrease the rate of calcium excretion
The hormone calcitonin functions to
absorption of calcium in the bones
Vitamin D is necessary for
Sesamoid
Bones that develop within tendons are called ________ bones
Foramen
A hole through a bone is termed a
Fossa
A deep hollow on a bone is termed a
Osteons
The structural units of mature compact bone are called
Osteocytes
The most abundant cell type in bone is
Spongy (Alvular)
________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles
Bones grow wider
During appositional growth
they become epiphyseal lines
When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone
parietal
The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones
7 Orbital Complex bones:
Frontal Bone
Sphenoid
Zygomatic Bone
Ethmoid
Lacrimal Bone
Palatine Bone
Maxilla
Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex, except the ________ bone
Temporal
Zygomatic
The zygomatic arch is formed by the union of processes from which two bones
supports the larynx and is the attachment site for the muscles of the larynx, pharynx, and tongue
The hyoid bone
Sphenoid
A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the
Frontal Bone
Ethmoid
Nasal Bone
Palatine Bone
Maxilla
Sphenoid
The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones
Moisten and warm the air
The nasal conchae
Lumbar & Cervical
The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following are the secondary curves, those that do not appear until several months later
1. cervical
2. thoracic
3. lumbar
4. sacral
The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception
12
The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae
5
The vertebral column contains ________ lumbar vertebrae
Costal Cartilage
The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae
12
. Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs
80
How many bones make up the axial skeleton
22
The skull contains ________ bones
Microcephal
The term for undersized head is
7
Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae
Manubrium
Sternum Body
Xiphoid process
The sternum contains
Fontanelles
The membraous areas between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are
Stylohyloid
The hyoid bone is suspended by ________ ligaments
Lacrimal
The smallest facial bones are the
lumbar
The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region
Sternum
Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium
Supports the lower teeth
The alveolar process of the mandible
Clavical
Which of these is most commonly fractured in a fall
Olecranon Fossa
The clavicle articulates with the scapula
Ulna & Humerus
The radius articulates with the
Phalanges
The bones that form the fingers are the
Femur
What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum
Ishium
When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
Femur
The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the
Talus
The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
calcaneous
Which of the following is the heel bone
Hallux
Another name for the first toe is
Greater than 100 degrees
Compared to the male skeleton, the female skeleton
Pelvis
The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of the
Smaller (Narrower)
A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet
Femur
The longest bone is the
Amphiarthrosis
A slightly movable joint is a(n)
Diarthrosis
A freely movable joint is a(n)
Synarthrosis
An epiphyseal line is an example of a
Hinge
The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint
Shoulder
The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________ joint
Flexion & Extension
The normal movement of the hip joint during walking involves
Bony Fusion
Fibrous Joint
Cartilaginous Joint
Synovial Joint
Joints can be classified structurally as
Gomphosis
The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a
Hyperextension
An extension past the anatomical position is known as
Synarthrosis
An immovable joint is a(n)
Synarthrosis
A suture is an example of a(n)
Diarthrosis
A synovial joint is an example of a(n)
Abduction
A movement away from the midline of the body is termed
There is a combination of angular movement and rotation
In a triaxial articulation
Plantar
Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes
Flexion & Extension
Nodding your head "yes" is an example of
Eversion
A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as