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HESI Gerontology - Exam Edge

Terms in this set (100)

Good communication is a necessity for healthcare providers for interviewing and teaching patients. The GNP understands that which of the following is true regarding communication?
a. Not all communication is privileged and confidential.
b. Triage is a form of communication that involves a system of controlled oversight and authorization of services.
c. Case management is a form of communication that involves the privatization and sorting of patients according to a preexisting standard.
d. Communication involves the written and oral transfer of information regarding the structure, process, and outcome of healthcare encounters.
d. Communication involves the written and oral transfer of information regarding the structure, process, and outcome of healthcare encounters.

All communication is privileged and confidential. Case management is a form of communication that involves a system of controlled oversight and authorization of services. Triage is a form of communication that involves the prioritization and sorting of patients according to a preexisting standard.
You are seeing a 72-year old man with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Besides hypertension, what risk factor contributes the most to the development of an AAA?
a. cigarette smoking
b. alcohol consumption
c. eating red meat
d. obesity
a. cigarette smoking

Choice A is the right answer. Smoking clearly increases the risk for AAA. The prevalence in women is far lower than in men and the benefits associated with screening women do not justify the costs. It is recommended a one-time screening be done for males aged 65 to 75 who have ever smoked.
There has been a recent shift of the health care delivery toward the provision of nonacute care from the hospital setting to the ambulatory care setting and the home. Nursing research that was previously conducted in hospitals:
a. is now applicable to all in-hospital providers of care.
b. is now relevant in the new settings, as patient care is unchanged.
c. is no longer applicable to the delivery of patient care.
d. is needed to be applied directly to patient care that is provided in the new settings.
c. is no longer applicable to the delivery of patient care.

The restructuring of the health care delivery system and the changes that have occurred make previous studies no longer applicable to nursing care. The other choices are incorrect because the nonacute care is not provided in-hospital; because of the phrase "as patient care is unchanged" in that the delivery of nursing care has changed settings; and previous studies were about care delivered in-hospital and it cannot be applied to care provided in the new settings.
A 67-year-old male comes to the clinic telling you that he was bitten on the hand by a raccoon. The GNP cleanses the wound. What would the next action be?
a. contact local animal control authorities
b. administer rabies immune globulin (RIG) and human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV)
c. administer tetanus antitoxin
d. teach the patient how to do hourly soaks to the hand using normal saline and peroxide
b. administer rabies immune globulin (RIG) and human diploid cell vaccine (HDCV)

Any bite associated with an animal that may harbor rabies (skunks, bats, raccoons, foxes, coyotes, rats) should be treated with both active and passive rabies immunization. The tetanus antitoxin would also be indicated if patient was not currently up to date.
You are treating a patient with a recent TIA. The GNP must consider that:
a. There is no need to educate the person on signs and symptoms of stroke or stroke prevention.
b. Women present with this disorder more often than men.
c. Long-term antiplatelet therapy is likely indicated.
d. It will be necessary to schedule rehabilitation therapy.
c. Long-term antiplatelet therapy is likely indicated.

Intervention includes minimizing risk factors through lifestyle modification, aggressive treatment of dyslipidemia, hypertension, and diabetes mellitus, and long-term platelet therapy. The person should be educated on stroke and stroke prevention, men present more often than women with TIAs, and rehabilitation therapy is not warranted after a TIA.
When seeing a 68-year-old man in the clinic with acute cocaine intoxication, you inquire about:
a. chest pain
b. feelings of anxiety
c. abdominal pain
d. difficulty maintaining sleep
a. chest pain

Cocaine is a potent sympathomimetic and can increase heart rate and myocardial contractility. This causes coronary vessel constiction that could lead to myocardial ischemia. Inquiring about chest pain is prudent in caring for a patient with cocaine abuse.
A 65-year-old Caucasian presents with a long history of chronic airflow obstructive disease and has noticed a change in sputum color over the past few days, with increased amounts of thick yellow-green mucus. The GNP understands that the appropriate therapy would be:
a. Augmentin 500 mg PO tid for 10 days
b. Tylenol with codeine
c. Vancenase MDI 2 puffs prn
d. Hismanal 10 mg PO qd
a. Augmentin 500 mg PO tid for 10 days

Antibiotic therapy is indicated if there has been a change in sputum color, consistency, and amount. Cough suppressants and antihistamines should be avoided.
In assessing a patient who has a lower extremity ulcer, the nurse assesses the temperature and skin. The nurse checks the shape of the patient's leg. Chronic venous stasis gives the leg:
a. An apple shape.
b. A round shape.
c. A sausage shape.
d. A bowling pin shape.
d. A bowling pin shape.

Lower extremity ulcers can be a symptom of other conditions. A leg with chronic venous stasis has a bowling pin or champagne bottle shape.
When treating the patient with heartburn symptoms, the GNP understand that the drug that is most likely to produce rapid relief for a patient is:
a. H2 blockers
b. proton pump inhibitors
c. sucralfate
d. antacids
d. antacids

These medications produce the most rapid change in gastric pH and the most rapid relief of symptoms. H2 blockers and proton pump inhibitors may take many hours before relief is realized and so these are not adequate for immediate relief. Sucralfate does not affect gastric pH.
You prescribe a short-acting anticholinergic medication that can be used alone or in combination with a short-acting beta agonist that the patient has already. What disease are you trying to manage?
a. benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. glaucoma
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d. tachyarrhythmias
c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who have intermittent symptoms need a first line treatment for shortness of breath which is an anticholinergic alone or in combination with a beta agonist. Both these medications will improve lung function.
Your 87-year-old patient presents with bright red blood from the rectum and abdominal pain. After testing, you determine he is positive for Colorectal Cancer. Which of the following would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for Colorectal Cancer?
a. Tendonitis.
b. Rectal polyps.
c. Inflammatory lesions.
d. Diverticulosis.
a. Tendonitis.

Colorectal Cancer is a gastrointestinal disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are rectal fissures, hemorrhoids, and masses outside the bowel wall.
The GNP will immunize against and treat the influenza virus in practice. It is important that she understand that the length of incubation for the influenza virus is on the average:
a. 12 hours
b. 1 to 4 days
c. 5 to 7 days
d. 7 to 10 days
b. 1 to 4 days

In an immunocompetent adult, the influenza virus has a short incubation period, with a range of 1 to 4 days with an average of 2 days. It is spread from person to person largely via respiratory droplet from an infected person through cough or sneeze.
You are seeing an older adult who has been taking Vitamin D supplementation. The Geriatric Nurse Practitioner understands that:
a. This helps to prevent fractures.
b. This decreases the severity of hip fractures.
c. There is no clear value of this unless the patient has a Vitamin D deficiency.
d. This may decrease the risks of falling.
d. This may decrease the risks of falling.

Studies show that Vitamin D may reduce the relative risk of falls by 22%. In older patients, daily intake of this supplement should be 300 IU with 1200 mg of calcium recommended along with it.
Pathological murmurs include all of the following except for:
a. Idiopathic hypertrophic subaortic stenosis.
b. Mitral regurgitation.
c. Pulmonic stenosis.
d. Innocent.
d. Innocent.

Heart murmurs can fall into two main categories benign or pathologic murmurs. Benign murmurs, also called innocent murmurs, are low intensity and mostly systolic. Benign murmurs are grade I or II.
A 65-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed with pneumonia. He is otherwise healthy and does not need hospitalization at this time. Which antibiotic can be used for empirical treatment according to the 2007 Infectious Disease Society of America?
a. azithromycin
b. levofloxacin
c. erythromycin
d. amoxicillin
a. azithromycin

These guidelines promote macrolide use or doxyclycline for initial treatment of uncomplicated pneumonia in patients who are otherwise healthy and have not had recent antibiotic therapy. Doxycycline and clarithromycin are also initial choices. These agents are chosen because they cover atypical pathogens.
Which of the following is true when using the Tinetti Assessment?
a. The lower the patient's score, the lower his/her risk of fall.
b. The higher the patient's score, the higher his/her risk of fall.
c. The lower the patient's score, the higher his/her risk for falls.
d. None of the above.
a. The lower the patient's score, the lower his/her risk of fall.

The Tinetti Balance and Gait Assessment is a 28 point assessment. Balance is rated up to 16 points and gait is worth up to 12 points for a combined score of 28. A patient with a score closer to 28 has a lower risk for falls. This is different than the Morse Scale, where a high score indicates high risk.
You are taking a history in an older patient with known allergies. What is the MOST significant information to determine?
a. drug allergies
b. environmental exposure
c. reaction associated with each allergen
d. food allergies
c. reaction associated with each allergen

It is important to know this because patients often consider GI upset as an "allergy." Medication side effects must be distinguished form true allergic reactions to drugs. Other important information to document is the onset, duration, and successful treatments used in the past with true allergy.
A patient who otherwise eats independently but requires help cutting meat or buttering bread would receive which of the following scores on the Barthel Index for feeding?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 0
d. 1
d. 1

The feeding domain on the Barthel Index is worth up to 2 points. A patient who can feed him/herself but who requires assistance cutting food or buttering bread would receive a score of 1. Patients who require a modified diet in order to feed independently also are scored a 1.
All but which of the following can increase an older adult's risk of depression?
a. Having a pet.
b. Death of a spouse.
c. Chronic illness.
d. Medications for high cholesterol.
a. Having a pet.

Many factors can increase risk for depression. Many prescription medications, including some use for high cholesterol, can cause or worsen depression. Grief over the loss of a spouse is perhaps the most common cause. Chronic illness or pain can also contribute to higher risk. Some studies indicate that having a pet may actually reduce one's risk for depression at any age.
Which of the following is true when using choline magnesium trisalicylate for pain management in an elderly patient?
a. The patient should receive no more than 750 mg of the drug every 8 hours.
b. The drug poses a very high risk for uncontrolled bleeding.
c. The patient should receive at least 750 mg of the drug every 4 hours.
d. The patient should be monitored closely for gastrointestinal toxicity.
a. The patient should receive no more than 750 mg of the drug every 8 hours.

Choline magnesium trisalicylate may be an excellent choice for managing a patient's persistent pain. Doses of 500-750 mg are given every 8 hours. The drug's long half-life may allow for one or twice daily dosage once steady state is achieved.
What type of visual problem that occurs with older adults results in painless vision changes including distortion of central vision and the etiology is thickening, sclerotic changes in the retinal membrane?
a. open-angle glaucoma
b. senile cataracts
c. angle-closure glaucoma
d. age-related maculopathy
d. age-related maculopathy

Choice D is the right answer. Risk factors for this condition include tobacco use, sun exposure, and family history. With open- angle glaucoma, it is painless as well, but results in loss of peripheral vision (choice A). With senile cataracts there is progressive vision dimming and lens clouding (choice B). Angle-closure glaucoma is painful and is of sudden onset (choice C).
Your elderly patient has developed a disorder as a result of poliomyelitis. Of the following, which did he MOST likely develop?
a. Acute respiratory failure.
b. Central nervous system disorder
c. Increased CO2 production.
d. Pleural disorder
a. Acute respiratory failure.

There are a variety of disorders that can result from poliomyelitis. These include acute respiratory failure, falls, malnutrition, and osteoporosis.
Prophylactic treatment for migraine headache includes the use of:
a. naproxen sodium
b. propranolol
c. acetaminophen
d. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
b. propranolol

Migraine headaches can be prevented with propranolol. Prophylactic therapy is aimed at limiting the number and severity of future headaches. Abortive therapy is used to stop a headache.
When prescribing terazosin to an elderly patient to help manage BPH, what should the patient know.
a. He should always begin with 1 mg PO QHS.
b. He should always begin with 2 mg PO QHS.
c. He should always begin with 5 mg PO QHS. d. He should always begin with 10 mg PO QHS.
a. He should always begin with 1 mg PO QHS.

The patient should be instructed to take the minimum, effective dosage. He should start with 1 mg PO QHS and if necessary, increase to 2mg, 5mg, up to 10 mg per day.
After your patient's abnormal PAP Smear, you decide an Endocervical curettage is appropriate. Which of the following describes the process of an Endocervical curettage?
a. A solution is applied to the outermost cells of the cervix. The healthcare professional uses a lighted magnifying instrument to examine it.
b. With forceps, the healthcare professional removes a portion of the detected abnormal cells of the cervix, and has them evaluated.
c. A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated.
d. The cervix is numbed. The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed.
d. The cervix is numbed. The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed.

The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed Colposcopy - A solution is applied to the outermost cells of the cervix. The healthcare professional uses a lighted magnifying instrument to examine it. Colposcopic biopsy - With forceps, the healthcare professional removes a portion of the detected abnormal cells of the cervix, and has them evaluated. Cone biopsy - A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated. Endocervical curettage - The cervix is numbed. The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed.
You are prescribing Losartan for your 75-year-old patient with heart failure. What is the maximum daily dosage the patient can take of this medication?
a. 200 mg/day.
b. 100 mg/day.
c. 320 mg/day.
d. 32 mg/day.
b. 100 mg/day.

There are a variety of drugs prescribed to patients to help manage heart failure. For example, the maximum daily dosage for Losartan is 100 mg/day. The daily max. for Valsartan is 320 mg/day. The daily maximum for Candasartan is 32 mg/day and Metoprolol, 200 mg/day.
Of the following, which is the most common sign of ventricular fibrillation?
a. chest pain
b. loss of consciousness or fainting
c. tachycardia
d. dizziness
b. loss of consciousness or fainting

Loss of consciousness or fainting is the most common sign of ventricular fibrillation. The other choices may be signs that start about an hour before the heart goes into ventricular fibrillation and the person faints.
All of the following factors have been identified as being protective against elder mistreatment EXCEPT:
a. strong personal relationships
b. community support for the caregiver role
c. coordinated resources to help serve elderly adults and caregivers
d. Internet support sites
d. Internet support sites

Choice D is the right answer. Internet support sites are not listed by he Elder Maltreatment Alliance as a protective factor against elder mistreatment. The answers of choices A, B, and C are listed as protective factors.
A 67-year-old patient has presented with what is determined to be hyperthyroidism. Of the following, which sign/symptom is LEAST likely noted with the patient?
a. Restlessness.
b. Palpitations.
c. Cold, dry skin.
d. Frequent bowel movement.
c. Cold, dry skin.

Correct answer: Cold, dry skin There are a variety of signs/symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism. Cold, dry skin is typically not noted, but warm, moist skin is. Other common signs/symptoms are nervousness, increased sweating, and muscle cramps.
Aging patients sometimes suddenly experience delirium caused by illness or medications. As a GNP you would do all of the following for this type of patient except:
a. establish a meaningful environment
b. put patient on a liquid diet
c. help maintain body awareness
d. help patient cope with confusion and/or delusions
b. put patient on a liquid diet

The correct answer is put patient on a liquid diet. This would have no effect on delirium. All of the other choices are valid nursing implications.
According to Erikson, what is a necessary accomplishment in older adulthood?
a. Retire.
b. Wisdom.
c. Dignity.
d. Ego integrity.
a. Retire.

Necessary accomplishments in older adulthood include retirement, stability, balancing choices, evaluating choices, and accepting choices. The other answers are virtues and challenges.
A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with giant cell arteritis. Due to the severity of this diagnosis, the GNP understands that concomitant disease seen with this condition includes:
a. acute pancreatitis
b. psoriatic arthritis
c. Reiter syndrome
d. polymyalgia rheumatica
d. polymyalgia rheumatica

These two conditions, giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica, are autoimmune vasculitis and are often seen together. This is a systemic disease affecting medium-sized and large-sized vessels that causes inflammation of the temporal artery.
Which of the following is the best choice for managing sudden onset, severe, episodic pain in an older adult patient?
a. Around-the-clock analgesics.
b. Delayed release, long-acting analgesics.
c. Rapid-onset, short-acting analgesics.
d. A combination of long-acting and short-acting analgesics.
c. Rapid-onset, short-acting analgesics.

The best choice for dealing with severe episodic pain is rapid-onset, short-acting analgesics. These provide relatively quick relief.
Preoperative instructions should be explained to the patient and ______.
a. Reviewed.
b. Given in writing.
c. Repeated.
d. Left in a message.
b. Given in writing.

Preop instructions should be verbally explained to patients. This allows patients to ask questions. The instructions also need to be written down and given to the patient to take home.
A professional GNP can base nursing practice on nursing theory. How is this done?
a. limiting the choice of treatments for patients
b. providing a consistent perspective for providing care to patients
c. adapting the medical model to nursing care
d. determining what type of patients will be seen by the GNP
b. providing a consistent perspective for providing care to patients

Theory-based practice contributes the consistent perspective that permits the comparison of care across settings. This practice does not necessarily limit treatments or determine patient types. Theory-based practice eliminates reliance on the medical model.
Which of the following hemodynamic measurements is used to check a patient's overall fluid levels?
a. Cardiac output.
b. Central Venous Pressure.
c. Mean Arterial Pressure.
d. Pulmonary artery pressure.
b. Central Venous Pressure.

Central Venous Pressure Also known as CVP, this is a measurement of right ventricular end diastolic pressure. It gives an overall indication of a patient's fluid status.
You are conducting CN on your patient. Which of the following corresponds with CN 11?
a. Glossopharyngeal.
b. Vagus.
c. Spinal accessory.
d. Hypoglossal.
c. Spinal accessory.

CN 1: Olfactory CN 2: Optic CN 3: Oculomotor CN 4: Trochlear CN 5: Trigeminal CN 6: Abducens CN 7: Facial CN 8: Acoustic CN 9: Glossopharyngeal CN 10: Vagus CN 11: Spinal accessory CN 12: Hypoglossal
After testing your elderly patient's bone density, you determine she has a T-score of -2.3. What does this tell you?
a. She has osteopenia.
b. She has osteoporosis.
c. She has normal bone density.
d. None of the above.
a. She has osteopenia.

T-scores are categorized in the following ways: T-score better than -1 = normal bone density; T-score between -1 and -2.5 = Osteopenia; T-score less than -2.5 = Osteoporosis
After thorough testing of your elderly patient, you diagnose her as being positive for Bird fancier's lung. Of the following, which was she MOST likely exposed to that caused this illness?
a. Moldy hay.
b. Bird serum and excreta.
c. Moldy sugar cane fiber.
d. Moldy redwood sawdust.
b. Bird serum and excreta.

Correct answer: Bird serum and excreta Farmer's lung is typically caused by moldy hay, and Bird fancier's lung, bird serum and excreta. Bagassosis is caused by moldy sugar cane fiber and Sequoiosis, moldy redwood sawdust.
"Where are you going sweetheart?" is an example of _____.
a. Affirming.
b. Directive.
c. Overly nurturing.
d. Commanding.
c. Overly nurturing.

Correct answer: Overly nurturing Overly nurturing tone is inappropriate and intimate. While caring it is not an effective method of communication.
A patient with a score of 17 on the GDS Long Form would be categorized as which of the following?
a. Moderately depressed.
b. Severely depressed.
c. At high risk of fall.
d. Mildly cognitively impaired.
a. Moderately depressed.

The higher a patient's score on the GDS - the Geriatric Depression Scale - the higher his or her level of depression. The maximum score is 30 using the Long Form. Patients with scores between 10 and 19 are considered moderately depressed.
In the treatment of the patient with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), you know that the following are measures to manage this condition except:
a. Exercise and weight loss will improve this condition.
b. Metformin (Glucophage) improves insulin sensitivity, lowers LH, lowers androgen, and improves fertility.
c. Estrogen excess leads to hyperinsulinemia in these patients.
d. Provera 10 mg daily for 10-14 days at the end of each month is recommended.
c. Estrogen excess leads to hyperinsulinemia in these patients.

Androgen excess leads to insulin resistance which spurs hyperinsulinemia and increases the risk for diabetes mellitus.
You are managing a 74-year-old patient who has osteoarthritis and chronic pain. Which of the following medications increases the risk of a GI related ulceration?
a. warfarin
b. celecoxib
c. prevastatin
d. thiazide diuretic
b. celecoxib

This medication is an NSAID and all NSAIDs increase the risk of upper and lower GI ulcerations. Warfarin does not increase the risk of an ulceration, but, if one occurs, the risk of bleeding is increased. Statins and diuretics are not considered ulcerogenic.
Your elderly patient sees the code E87.6 on his chart and explains to you that he understands you will be medically treating him for the condition, but doesn't understand what it is. What do you tell him?
a. Diabetes 2 mel w/o comp (adult onset).
b. Hypokalemia.
c. Cirrhosis of liver.
d. Irritable Bowel Syndrome.
b. Hypokalemia.

According to the ICD-10, various medical conditions have their own diagnostic codes to help healthcare professionals differentiate between them. They are also useful when requesting payment for seeing the patient.
A 65-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of postvoid dribbling and an urge incontinence. Which of the following types of urinary incontinence would you suspect?
a. functional
b. transient
c. urethral obstruction
d. stress
c. urethral obstruction

Postvoid dribbling coupled with urge incontinence indicates a urethral obstruction that results in urinary retention with overflow and detrusor instability. This is treated by treating the cause of the urethral obstruction.
Your 65-year-old patient presents with confusion and oppressive retrosternal chest pain. After testing, you determine she is positive for STEMI. Of the following, which would LEAST likely be a differential diagnosis for STEMI?
a. Unstable angina.
b. Biliary tract disease.
c. Pancreatitis.
d. Halitosis.
d. Halitosis.

Correct answer: Halitosis STEMI is a cardiovascular disorder. Other differential diagnoses of the condition are Pericarditis, esophageal spasm, and aortic dissection.
The GNP who works with geriatric patients needs to know that the most commonly reported form of elder maltreatment is:
a. sexual exploitation
b. neglect
c. physical abuse
d. financial exploitation
b. neglect

Elder mistreatment is likely to be more prevalent in a cultural community milieu where tolerance of aggressive behavior and negative beliefs about aging and elderly adults exist. Neglect is the most commonly encountered type of elder maltreatment and in times of economic difficulty, the rate of financial exploitation usually increases.
When counseling regarding HAV (hepatitis A vaccine) the GNP should inform the patient that:
a. It requires two doses given 6 to 12 months apart to ensure an enhanced immunologic response.
b. It isn't necessary for children.
c. It contains live virus.
d. It has a high risk of systemic reaction.
a. It requires two doses given 6 to 12 months apart to ensure an enhanced immunologic response.

This vaccine must be given in a 2 part series to achieve lifelong protection. It is required for children by the CDC, it contains no live virus, and is usually well tolerated without systemic reaction.
Your 73-year-old patient presents with a second degree burn. What type of lesion do you diagnose this as?
a. Cyst.
b. Bulla.
c. Wheal.
d. Plaques.
b. Bulla.

Correct answer: Bulla Cyst: encapsulated, fluid-filled mass that varies in size. Bulla: fluid-filled, elevated, circumscribed lesion that's larger than 5mm. Wheal: circumscribed, reddening with transient elevation lesion that's 0.5 to 10mm diameter. Plaques: usually a grouping of papules; elevated and a variety of shapes; larger than 5mm.
You prescribe a medication for your elderly patient and note it should be taken ut dict. What does this mean?
a. Three times a day.
b. As directed.
c. In each eye.
d. Taken by mouth.
b. As directed.

Correct Answer:As directed.
O.U. - In each eye
p.o. - Taken by mouth
t.i.d. - Three times a day
ut dict. - As directed
Which of the following may be true of a patient who is considered independent in regards to feeding on the Katz Index?
a. He or she is fed parenterally.
b. His or her food is prepared by someone else.
c. He or she requires help getting food from plate to mouth.
d. He or she is completely unable to feed him/herself.
b. His or her food is prepared by someone else.

A person may be considered independent in regards to feeding even if the food is prepared by someone else. The Katz Index assesses the patient's ability to get food from plate to mouth.
After thorough testing of your elderly patient, you diagnose her as being positive for Maple bark stripper's disease. Of the following, which was she MOST likely exposed to that caused this illness?
a. Rotting maple tree bark.
b. Moldy compost.
c. Moldy cork dust.
d. Contaminated humidifier.
a. Rotting maple tree bark.

Correct answer: Rotting maple tree bark Maple bark stripper's disease is typically caused by rotting maple tree logs or bark, and Mushroom picker's disease, moldy compost. Suberosis is caused by moldy cork dust and "Humidifier" lung, contaminated humidifiers, air conditioners, or heating systems.
Which of these typically indicates death is in a patient's near future?
a. Patient's breathing pattern significantly changes (e.g. holding breath for a long period of time followed by several quick breaths).
b. Patient's vision is very blurry.
c. Patient cannot hear as well as he/she normally does.
d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.

There are many signs that are not exclusive to a patient nearing death, but are typical in this situation. All of the options listed are examples of such signs.
In the course of admittance to the hospital your 65-year-old male patient's resting heart rate is found to be 51 beats per minute. This indicates which of the following?
a. tachycardia
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. bradycardia
d. PVCs
c. bradycardia

Bradycardia is a slower than normal heart rate. A resting heart rate of 51 beats per minute is lower than the normal 60-100 beats per minute. This indicates bradycardia.
You are educating a patient about self-care when she returns home after CABG. She says she cannot wait to take a long tub bath. Which of the following is an appropriate response?
a. Tell the patient that she must avoid tub bathing for the first week at home.
b. Show the patient how to keep her dressing dry.
c. Tell the patient to take tub baths when she feels ready to do so.
d. Tell the patient that tub baths must be avoided until her incision heals.
a. Tell the patient that she must avoid tub bathing for the first week at home.

While CABG patients may shower as soon as they return home, they should avoid tub baths for the first week. Dressings must be kept dry no matter which bathing method the patient chooses.
Your patient indicates that she has stopped taking her antidepressant because she experienced blinding headaches while taking the drug. Of the following, which is the BEST way to promote this patient's compliance with her medication regimen?
a. Assure the patient that the headaches will abate with time, and encourage her to continue taking the medication as prescribed.
b. Investigate whether a different anti-depressant that does not carry the risk of headaches is available and appropriate for this patient.
c. Investigate whether another drug can be prescribed along with the antidepressant to ease the patient's headaches.
d. Investigate whether natural remedies for depression are appropriate for this patient.
b. Investigate whether a different anti-depressant that does not carry the risk of headaches is available and appropriate for this patient.

Correct Answer: Investigate whether a different anti-depressant that does not carry the risk of headaches is available and appropriate for this patient Patients will often stop a drug if they cannot tolerate the side effects. Finding an alternative medication that does not have the same side effects can be the best way to encourage patient compliance when the medication is for a condition that is not life threatening or where medication is not necessarily vital to the patient's continued health. In the case of depression, the patient's well being will be improved by taking her drugs, though medication for depression may not be considered vital to continued health. For drugs that are vital to continued health, or where no alternative medication exists, prescribing another medication to offset the side effects may be appropriate.
You are examining an older adult who is underweight. She is 66-years of age and expresses a desire to gain weight. The Geriatric Nurse Practitioner understands that which of the following is NOT part of the prescription for weight gain in older adults?
a. Eat three meals per day plus snacks between.
b. Add extras to food.
c. Eat high calorie food.
d. Eat frequent small meals.
d. Eat frequent small meals.

Eating frequent small meals is a strategy for weight loss, not weight gain. Eating frequently, eating larger portions, eating high calorie foods, adding extras to food, and making beverages count are suggestions that can help with weight gain.
Paxil is a SSRI and goes by the _____ generic name?
a. Fluoxetine.
b. Sertraline.
c. Paroxetine.
d. Escitalopram.
c. Paroxetine.

Prozac is a brand name for Fluoxetine and Zoloft, Sertraline. Paroxettine is the generic name for Paxil and Escitalopram, for Lexapro.
A 72-year old man presents with suspected bladder cancer. The Geriatric Nurse Practitioner considers that its most common presenting sign or symptoms is:
a. painless frank hematuria
b. a palpable lower abdominal mass
c. fever and flank pain
d. dysuria
a. painless frank hematuria

Bladder cancer is the second most common urologic malignancy after prostate cancer. It is usually a disease that occurs late in life with the mean age 65 years and is more common in men. Painless frank hematuria is the most common sign of this disease.
Of the following body systems, which assists the body with breaking down the food eaten and helping the body absorb nutrients?
a. Respiratory.
b. Digestive.
c. Endocrine.
d. Reproductive.
b. Digestive.

Correct answer: Digestive The human body is made up of 11 major body systems. These are Nervous, Skeletal, Muscular, Circulatory, Respiratory, Digestive, Endocrine, Reproductive, Excretory, Integumentary, and Immune. The Respiratory System controls breathing in the body. The Digestive System helps break down food and assists the body with absorbing nutrients. The Endocrine System produces and secretes hormones throughout the body. The Reproductive System serves different functions in the male and female body but they ultimately deal with sex hormones, menstruation/menopause, pregnancy, and childbirth.
When counseling a patient with the human herpesvirus 2 (HHV-2), the GNP knows that what percentage of sexually active adults has serological evidence of this disease?
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 25%
d. 25%

HHV-w, also known as herpes simplex type 2, causes painful ulcerated lesions and lymphadenopathy. A surprising 25% of adults who are sexually active have serological evidence of this disease, although only a small percentage of these persons have symptoms.
The MAST screening tests patients for what disease?
a. cataracts
b. diabetes mellitus
c. osteoporosis
d. alcoholism
d. alcoholism

Correct answer:alcoholismThe MAST screening is the Michigan Alcoholism Screening Test and is used to alert providers of the possibility of alcoholism. Another screening tool is the CAGE questionnaire.
You are educating other nurse practitioners about some of the myths surrounding aging. Which of the following is one of these myths?
a. Mental function declines with age.
b. People age in different ways.
c. Sexuality is still important and needed.
d. People learn until very late in life.
a. Mental function declines with age.

The correct answer and one of the myths about aging is that mental function declines with age. Even if older persons are slower to process information, this does not mean that their mental function has declined. Older persons can have very high levels of mental function.
Geriatric Nurse Practitioners know that the symptoms of asthma in an elderly patient:
a. are more likely to be characterized by wheezing
b. are distinct from chronic heart failure
c. are more likely to be a cough
d. have greater variability than in younger adults
c. are more likely to be a cough

Choice C is the right answer. Asthma is usually diagnosed in children and young adults, but after age 65 years, 5 to 10% of newly diagnosed asthma cases are in this age group. The most common presentation is cough, not wheezing.
You are providing care to a patient with COPD who will soon be discharged home. His wife asks what type of diet he should follow to manage his condition. Which of the following is NOT true of the diet this patient should follow.
a. The patient should eat small, frequent meals.
b. The patient should eat a very low protein diet.
c. The patient should eat a diet high in fiber.
d. The patient should eat a diet high in protein.
b. The patient should eat a very low protein diet.

A high protein diet is key to the management of COPD. High density, high protein foods can help the patient fight fatigue. When caring for geriatric patients, involving any caregivers in meal planning helps to ensure that the patient receives appropriate nutrition. Establish in the assessment whether the patient or another person prepares the majority of the patient's meals. If another individual is responsible for a significant amount of food shopping or prep, be sure to involve him or her in any patient education around diet and nutrition.
What can the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner expect to find in a patient with osteoarthritis?
a. increased density of subchondral bone on x-ray
b. a positive ANA
c. an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
d. a elevated CRP level
a. increased density of subchondral bone on x-ray

Choice A is the right answer. Radiological findings in patients with osteoarthritis include narrowing of the joint space and increased density of subchondral bone. Bone cysts and osteophytes are often present as well and develop as part of the body's repair process. In contrast to rheumatoid arthritis, ANAs, rheumatoid factors and inflammatory markers, such as ESR and CRP, are often always normal.
Health promotion and prevention includes immunization with the meningiococcal vaccine. The following are all true regarding this vaccine except for:
a. Menomune is a type of vaccine preferred for people under 50 who are at risk.
b. This immunization is indicated for college students who live in dormitories, travellers who go to endemic areas, asplenic patients and immunodeficient persons.
c. The two vaccines that are licensed for use are Menactra and Menomune.
d. This vaccine is directed against Neisseria meningitidis, the most common cause of meningitis in persons 2 to 18 years of age.
a. Menomune is a type of vaccine preferred for people under 50 who are at risk.

Correct answer: Menomune is a type of vaccine preferred for people under 50 who are at risk. Menomune is a type of vaccine preferred for people over 55 who are at risk. Menactra is used in younger persons.
An elderly lady with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is in the office and placed on prednisone 5 mg PO qd. In educating her about this medication, which of the following is important for the GN to include?
a. The medication should be taken about 30 minutes before eating.
b. When the symptoms of arthritis subside, she will be able to stop this medication.
c. Increased fluid intake is important for the prevention of renal damage by the use of steroids.
d. It is important to continue the medication as prescribed, even if the redness and swelling decreases or goes away.
d. It is important to continue the medication as prescribed, even if the redness and swelling decreases or goes away.

The client should be informed that the symptoms will decrease when the medication is effective, but the client should maintain her dose as prescribed. The medication is not influenced by fluids and should be taken with food to avoid GI upset.
Which of the following is not a leading health indicator selected by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services Office and Disease Prevention and Health Promotion?
a. overweight and obesity
b. tobacco abuse
c. extreme sporting activities
d. substance abuse
c. extreme sporting activities

Correct answer:extreme sporting activities. Level of physical activity is not relevant as a health indicator. All of the other choices are good based on their ability to motivate action and their importance in public health issues.
Your 79-year-old patient died several months ago and her spouse has isolated himself and refuses to talk to anyone outside the family. He is experiencing which of the following?
a. spiritual grief
b. complicated grief
c. normal grief
d. physical grief
b. complicated grief

Complicated grief is persistent maladaptive behavior that occurs following loss that intensifies to the level where the individual is overwhelmed or remains interminably in the state of grief without progression through the mourning process to completion. This is the type of grief that this man is suffering.
You determine your patient is suffering from polyphagia. She asks what that means. What do you tell her?
a. Excessive sweating.
b. Excessive thirst.
c. Excessive uncontrolled eating.
d. Excretion of excessive urine.
c. Excessive uncontrolled eating.

Correct answer: Excessive uncontrolled eating An important part of being a GNP is not just assessing, diagnosing, and treating patients. GNPs must be knowledgeable of medical terminology and be eloquent in defining said terminology for patients.
There are a good many diseases affecting the elderly that are the result of smoking. Counseling regarding smoking cessation is part of the GNP's job. The components of brief intervention for treating tobacco use are: a. Counsel, Document, Caution, Describe, Demonstrate
b. Advise, Confer, Describe, Document, Prescribe
c. Advise, Counsel, Intervene, Prescribe, Follow-up
d. Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange
d. Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, Arrange

Ask about tobacco use, Advise to quit, Assess willingness to make an attempt to quit, Assist in this quit attempt. Arrange a follow-up.
You are conducting an assessment with a 72 year old female patient who reports extreme urinary urgency and pain that radiates from her flank to her genitals. She has passed blood in her urine and finds that she is often sweaty and nauseous. Which of the following tests should you order for this patient?
a. Ultrasound.
b. MRI.
c. Pelvic exam.
d. Complete blood count.
a. Ultrasound.

This patient's signs and symptoms are most consistent with kidney stones. In order to further investigate and confirm that diagnosis, you will need to order either a CT scan or an ultrasound.
You are assessing a 71-year old African American woman who presents with angioedema. She reports that this began less than an hour ago. She is breathing without difficulty. What does the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner suspect is the cause?
a. aspirin
b. ramipril
c. furosemide
d. clindamycin
b. ramipril

Choice B is the right answer. Angioedema is common in African American patients who take ACE inhibitors. It is unpredictable event but once it occurs, the culprit medication must be discontinued and never prescribed again. Swelling of the lips, face, eyelids, tongue, and larynx are characteristics of angioedema.
What dietary regimen would be appropriate for an elderly client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
a. high caloric, low protein, high carbohydrate
b. low caloric, low protein, high carbohydrate
c. high caloric, high protein, low carbohydrate
d. low caloric, high protein, low carbohydrate
c. high caloric, high protein, low carbohydrate

The nutritional needs are met with this diet. High carbohydrate foods should be avoided in patients who retain CO because carbohydrates metabolize into CO2 as a waste product.
What will generally NOT affect a person's end of life decisions?
a. Culture.
b. Religion.
c. Nurse.
d. Family.
c. Nurse.

The nurse needs to respect the patients rights and decisions regarding end of life care. This includes being respectful to a person's culture, religion, and family.
What would the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner need to order to confirm a diagnosis of lower extremity occlusive disease after he suspects it from a patient's clinical presentation?
a. a MRI of the lower extremities
b. a magnetic resonance angiography
c. a D-Dimer blood test
d. a CT scan of the lower extremities
b. a magnetic resonance angiography

A magnetic resonance angiography and duplex ultrasonography will confirm the diagnosis of lower extremity occlusive vascular disease and these tests will give the best measure of the extent of the disease.
You determine your patient is suffering from hyperinsulinemia. He asks what that means. What do you tell him?
a. Too much insulin in the blood.
b. High blood pressure.
c. Too much thyroid hormone.
d. Too much sugar in the blood.
a. Too much insulin in the blood.

An important part of being a GNP is not just assessing, diagnosing, and treating patients. GNPs must be knowledgeable of medical terminology and be eloquent in defining said terminology for patients.
Upon evaluation of a 66-year-old Caucasian female who presents with stress incontinence, she asks questions regarding etiology and management. The GNP has knowledge that factors that contribute to this condition include:
a. pelvic floor weakness
b. urinary tract infection
c. detrusor overactivity
d. urethral stricture
a. pelvic floor weakness

Stress incontinence is a result from weakness of the pelvic floor and urethral muscles and is more common form of incontinence in women. If a UTI is present, it should be treated but is not the cause of this condition. Urge incontinence is a result of detrusor overactivity and a urethral obstruction is caused by a stricture.
A patient has primary open angle glaucoma and several other comorbidities. Which disease is associated with primary open angle glaucoma?
a. Hypertension.
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
d. Rheumatoid Arthritis.
a. Hypertension.

A thorough health history should be assessed for patients with primary angle glaucoma. The following conditions are associated with POAG: hypertension, thyroid disease and diabetes mellitus.
All of the following are true regarding developmental theory except:
a. The pace of development varies among individuals.
b. Stress does not impact development.
c. All development is patterned, orderly, and predictable with both a purpose and a direction.
d. Development is continuous throughout life, although the degree of change in many areas decreases after adolescence.
b. Stress does not impact development.

The correct answer is stress does not impact development. Physical and mental stress during periods of critical developmental change, such as puberty, may make a person particularly susceptible to outside stressors.
A 65-year-old woman is in the clinic and newly diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. She reports she is a strict vegetarian and has strong beliefs about avoiding meat. What should you suggest as part of her dietary measures that could help with this condition?
a. mushrooms, oatmeal, and whole grain bread
b. dark green leafy vegetables and dried peas and beans
c. baked potatoes, beets, and broccoli
d. beets, broccoli, and beef
b. dark green leafy vegetables and dried peas and beans

The patient has iron deficiency anemia because she does not get enough dietary iron. In addition to an iron supplement, she should be encouraged to eat leafy green vegetables, like spinach, and dried peas and beans, like lentils, black beans, red beans, and white beans. It is important to instruct on the importance of Vitamin C along with these foods for adequate absorption.
When assessing the geriatric patient, the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner knows that medications can cause symptoms. Older adults frequently complain of constipation. Which of the following medications does NOT increase the incidence of constipation in the older adult?
a. warfarin
b. multivitamins with iron
c. verapamil
d. hydrochlorothiazide
a. warfarin

Choice A is the right answer. Constipation is a common complaint among older adults because of medications they routinely take and due to their disease states. Examples of other medications that cause constipation are NSAIDs, opiate analgesics, antacids, iron supplements, verapamil, and hydrochlorothiazide.
An 81 year old male patient complains of abdominal pain and slimy stools that smell like "rotten eggs". Testing shows leukocytes and blood in the stools. What diagnosis will the NP MOST likely make?
a. Shigella.
b. Adenovirus.
c. Campylobacter jejuni.
d. Salmonella.
d. Salmonella.

Salmonella is a type of diarrhea that can occur at any age. Stools are characterized with a "rotten" or "egg" odor.
A 66-year-old male patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. You understand that the disease varies from person to person but that the signs and symptoms include all but which of the following?
a. pill-rolling tremor
b. akathisia
c. muscular rigidity with masked facies
d. cog-wheel rigidity
b. akathisia

Akathisia is a movement disorder that is characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a need to be in constant motion. Bradykinesia, on the other hand, is a reduction in the ability to initiate voluntary movement which is typical in Parkinson's patients. Cog-wheel rigidity and muscular rigidity with masked facies as well as pill rolling tremors are all symptoms of Parkinson disease.
A patient complains of allergies manifesting with inability to smell, swollen red intranasal membranes, excessive tearing and exudate from the eyes and nose. Examination of the eyes should include checking for:
a. Periorbital edema.
b. Nystagmus.
c. Ptosis.
d. Exophthalmos.
a. Periorbital edema.

The patient who has allergic rhinitis may commonly have swelling around the eyes or periorbital edema. Nystagmus is uncontrolled eye movements often occurring as a congenital disorder or in adults as result of central nervous system impairment or toxicity. Ptosis, drooping of the eyelid, is associated with conditions such as myasthenia gravis. Exophthalmos, edema behind the eyes causing them to bulge, is common with Grave's disease.
When counseling a patient who has hepatitis C who is receiving interferon and ribavirin therapy, the GNP would encourage the patient to eat:
a. three well-balanced meals daily with minimal fluid intake
b. small frequent meals high in protein
c. small frequent meals high in carbohydrates
d. three well-balanced high-calorie meals daily
c. small frequent meals high in carbohydrates

Small frequent meals are recommended due to drug side effects of nausea, vomiting, and fatigue.
A patient with which of the following Katz Index scores would be considered highly dependent?
a. 0
b. 6
c. 5
d. 100
a. 0

The Katz Index is a 6 point scale. A patient earns 1 point for each domain of task he or she can do independently. There are 6 domains. A patient who scores a 0 is considered highly dependent.
A patient presents with actinic keratosis. The NP decides the best form of treatment would be electrical cautery. What is this?
a. Scraping away the lesion and killing the remaining cells via electricity.
b. Removing the tumor via cutting and replacing the skin with stitches.
c. Freezing.
d. Burning.
d. Burning.

There are several methods of treating actinic keratosis. The most common methods include: Electrical cautery - Burning Curettage and electrodesiccation - Scraping away the lesion and killing the remaining cells via electricity Excision - Removing the tumor via cutting and replacing the skin with stitches Cryotherapy - Freezing
From the 77-year-old female diabetic patient, you hear complaints of urinary incontinence. With poorly controlled diabetes mellitus, what is the primary cause of this?
a. increased UTI risk
b. irritating effect of increased glucose in the urine
c. decreased ability to perceive need to void
d. increased urinary volume
d. increased urinary volume

Diabetic patients have increased urinary volume which leads to urinary incontinence. The other choices are also problematic for this patient but are not the primary cause of the incontinence.
A 68-year-old non-smoker is diagnosed with pneumonia but he is otherwise healthy and does not need hospitalization. Which antibiotic can be used that is recommended by the 2007 Infectious Disease Society of America?
a. levofloxacin
b. azithromycin
c. erythromycin
d. amoxicillin
b. azithromycin

These guidelines promote macrolide use or doxycyline for initial treatment of uncomplicated pneumonia in persons who are healthy. These agents are chosen because they cover atypical pathogens and provide coverage against non-drug resistant forms of Streptococcus. The guidelines recommend saving fluoroquinolones for patients with co-morbidities and suspected resistant strains of Strep.
A fixed, painless thyroid mass in a 68-year old woman accompanied by hoarseness and dysphagia should alert the Geriatric Nurse Practitioner of:
a. Graves disease
b. Hashimoto disease
c. thyroid malignancy
d. an adenoma
c. thyroid malignancy

The presentation of benign and malignant thyroid lesions are typically the same and the risk of a nodule being malignant increases with age. A hard fixed mass, dysphagia, dysphonia, lymphadenopathy, and hemoptysis should raise suspicion.
With the geriatric client, which assessment tool should the GNP use to evaluate balance and gait problems?
a. Index of Independence of Activities of Daily Living Scale
b. Tinetti Balance and Gait Evaluation
c. Lawton & Brody Balance and Coordination Scale
d. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale
b. Tinetti Balance and Gait Evaluation

The Tinetti scale is an activity-based test that asks the patient to perform tasks, such as sitting and rising from a chair, turning, and bending. The Index of Independence of Activities of Daily Living helps to identify daily activities with which the patient needs assistance. The Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Scale assesses complex tasks.
A patient with a Bartholin gland cyst is in the office and is being treated with the proper antibiotics. What other management measures does she need to be instructed on?
a. Warm soaks can alleviate pain and promote spontaneous ductal openings.
b. Abscesses rarely recur after incision and drainage.
c. Cysts will require treatment even if they are asymptomatic.
d. These are usually uncomplicated cysts.
a. Warm soaks can alleviate pain and promote spontaneous ductal openings.

Bartholin cysts often require incision and drainage and are often complicated cysts with abcesses recurring after this procedure. These cysts most always require treatment.
You are prescribing Estropipate as the Hormone Replacement Therapy for your elderly patient. Which of the following is a brand name for this drug?
a. Menest.
b. Ogen.
c. Provera.
d. Aygestin.
b. Ogen.

Menest is the brand name for Esterified estrogen and Ogen, Estropipate. Provera is the brand name for Medroxyprogesterone acetate and Aygestin, Norethisterone.
Which of the following are the most common endocrine disorders in the older adult population?
a. diabetes and Addison's disease
b. diabetes and thyroid dysfunctions
c. thyroid dysfunctions and hypoglycemia
d. hypoglycemia and diabetes
b. diabetes and thyroid dysfunctions

There are a host of endocrine disorders that affect the population but diabetes, along with thyroid dysfunctions are the most prevalent in the older adult population.
Your elderly patient who lives alone tells you that she is afraid that she will fall and injure herself. You would tell her to to take all of the following precautions except:
a. have adequate lighting throughout the home
b. paint the edges of stairs a bright contrasting color
c. encourage person to change positions slowly to prevent orthostatic hypotension
d. encourage person to move about the home in bare feet or socks
d. encourage person to move about the home in bare feet or socks

The correct answer is that you would NOT encourage your patient to move about the house in bare feet or socks. You would encourage her to wear proper footwear that supports the foot and contributes to balance. Footwear should be made of nonslippery materials.
You have prescribed a medication that includes that it should be given qid. How often should this patient receive this medication?
a. As needed.
b. Once per day, first thing in the morning.
c. Once per day, at bedtime.
d. Four times a day.
d. Four times a day.

This abbreviation indicates that the medication should be administered four times a day. Other orders, such as to administer the medication with food or the method of administration, will accompany this. It will be key to educate the patient and any caregivers about all the appropriate steps in administering this medication to the patient at home.
After your patient's abnormal PAP Smear, you decide a Cone biopsy is appropriate. Which of the following describes the process of a Cone biopsy?
a. A solution is applied to the outermost cells of the cervix. The healthcare professional uses a lighted magnifying instrument to examine it.
b. With forceps, the healthcare professional removes a portion of the detected abnormal cells of the cervix, and has them evaluated.
c. A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated.
d. The cervix is numbed. The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed.
c. A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated.

Correct answer: A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated Colposcopy - A solution is applied to the outermost cells of the cervix. The healthcare professional uses a lighted magnifying instrument to examine it.Colposcopic biopsy - With forceps, the healthcare professional removes a portion of the detected abnormal cells of the cervix, and has them evaluated. Cone biopsy - A piece of cone-shaped cervical tissue in the transformation zone is removed and evaluated.Endocervical curettage - The cervix is numbed. The healthcare professional then inserts a tool to the area between the outer cervix and inner uterus. Cells from the endocervix are removed.
Over-the-counter medications that may increase blood pressure includes:
a. Anti-pyretics.
b. Anti-acids.
c. Decongestants.
d. Cortisone.
c. Decongestants.

Correct answer: Decongestants During assessment of the hypertensive patient, the GNP should ensure all over-the-counter (OTC) medications are documented. Some OTC medications can increase the blood pressure. Over the counter, medications that increase the blood pressure include NSAIDs, anti-histamines, and decongestants.
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