Unit 4 Exam Immunology

With regard to the type of B-cell response generated, protein antigens typically provoke which of the following responses?
A) TI-1
B) TI-2
C) TD
D) Both A and B
E) None of the above
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With regard to the type of B-cell response generated, protein antigens typically provoke which of the following responses?
A) TI-1
B) TI-2
C) TD
D) Both A and B
E) None of the above
C) TD
Activated TH cells signal to B cells to initiate their activation program via which of the following?
A) CD40L on the T cell to CD40 on the B cell
B) CD40 on the T cell to CD40L on the B cell
C) FasL on the T cell to Fas on the B cell
D) Fas on the T cell to FasL on the B cell
E) Notch ligand on the B cell to notch-1 on the T cell
A) CD40L on the T cell to CD40 on the B cell
B cells follow which of the following chemotactic signals to migrate to the cortical regions of secondary lymphoid tissue?
A) CCL19
B) CXCL13
C) CCL21
D) Both A and C
E) None of the above
B) CXCL13
Which of the following constitutes the critical survival cytokine for B cells in the secondary lymphoid tissue cortex?
A) BAFF
B) IL-7
C) IL-2
D) IL-6
E) None of the above
A) BAFF
The first immunoglobulin isotype produced during the course of a primary immune response contains which of the following heavy chains?
A) γ
B) κ
C) δ
D) μ
E) None of the above
D) μ
Which of the following do you expect would be actively functioning in a B cell that had migrated to a germinal center?
A) RAG-1
B) Artemis
C) AID
D) Ku70
E) None of the above
C) AID
AID converts cytosine into which of the following bases?
A) Adenine
B) Thymine
C) Uracil
D) Guanine
E) None of the above
C) uracil
Which of the following mechanisms of mutagenesis via AID activity is possible?
A) The lesion is not repaired prior to replication, resulting in a CG→TA transition.
B) Base excision repair, followed by error-prone DNA polymerase fill-in of the gap created.
C) Mismatch repair, followed by error-prone DNA polymerase fill-in of the gap created.
D) Choices A and B are both possible.
E) All of the above are possible.
E) all of the above
SHM and CSR are both dependent on the activity of which of the following enzymes?
A) AID
B) RAG-1/2
C) Artemis
D) DNA uridine glycosylase
E) Both A and D are required for SHM and CSR.
E) both A and D are required
AID and DNA uridine glycosylase
A knockout of which of the following genes results in the inability to form germinal centers?
A) Blimp-1
B) IRF-4
C) Pax-5
D) Bcl-6
E) NF-κB
D) Bcl-6
Which of the following is considered to be the "master regulator" of terminal plasma cell differentiation? A) Blimp-1 B) IRF-4 C) Pax-5 D) Bcl-6 E) NF-κBA) Blimp-1Which of the following represses expression of the transcription factor identified in Question 11? A) Blimp-1 B) IRF-4 C) Pax-5 D) Bcl-6 E) NF-κBD) Bcl-6Blimp-1 represses the expression of which of the following transcription factors? A) Blimp-1 B) IRF-4 C) Pax-5 D) Bcl-6 E) NF-κBD) Bcl-6Which of the following factors is thought to induce expression of Blimp-1? A) Blimp-1 B) IRF-4 C) Pax-5 D) Bcl-6 E) NF-κBB) IRF-4Which of the following is a way in which follicular B cells can acquire antigen entering a lymph node via an afferent lymphatic? A) Direct capture of whole antigen that directly enters the follicle by passing between sub-capsular sinus macrophages B) Transfer of complement-bound antigen from surface receptors on sub-capsular sinus macrophages to B cells C) Passage of antigen from sub-capsular sinus macrophages to follicular dendritic cells to B cells D) Passage of antigen from DCs that reside near HEVs to B cells E) All of the above are possible.E) all of the aboveWhich of the following does NOT occur shortly following oligomerization of the BCR upon antigen binding? A) Movement of the BCR complex into areas of the membrane called "lipid rafts" B) Positioning of Igα and Igβ to allow for phosphorylation of their ITAM motifs C) Positioning of CD3 to allow for phosphorylation if its ITAM motifs D) Formation of clathrin-coated pits around BCR complex E) All of the above occur.C) Positioning of CD3 to allow for phosphorylation if its ITAM motifsWhich of the following is or appears to be controlled by Blimp-1 during plasma cell differentiation? A) Exit from the cell cycle B) Transitioning from membrane-bound to secreted IgM C) Loss of MHC class II from the cell surface D) All of the above E) None of the aboveD) all of the aboveWhich factors on the surfaces of B cells and T cells, through their interaction, are required to allow germinal center formation to occur? A) CD40 and CD40L B) Fas and FasL C) CD28 and CD80/86 D) TCR and MHC class II E) None of the aboveA) CD40 and CD40LThe follicular mantle zone primarily consists of which of the following? A) Follicular dendritic cells B) Naïve IgD+ B cells that are not participating in the response against the antigen C) TFH cells D) Plasmacytoid dendritic cells E) None of the aboveB) Naïve IgD+ B cells that are not participating in the response against the antigenWhich cells that are found within GC light zones are generally NOT found in the GC dark zones? A) Differentiating B cells B) TFH cells C) FDCs D) Naïve IgD+ B cells that are not participating in the response to the antigen E) None of the aboveC) FDCsThe function of Somatic Hyper-Mutation (SHM) is BEST described by which of the following statements? A) Increasing junctional diversity in IgH and IgL V regions B) Increasing the affinity of immunoglobulins for their antigen C) Irreversibly changing the isotype of immunoglobulin D)Promoting alternative splicing of an immunoglobulin heavy chain transcript to produce different isotypes on the B cell surface E) None of the aboveB) Increasing the affinity of immunoglobulins for their antigenTo which compartment in the body can long-lived plasma cells potentially be retained for the lifetime of the individual? A) Medullary cords of the lymph node B) Germinal center C) Bone marrow D) Red pulp of spleen E) None of the aboveC) bone marrowPost-germinal-center plasma cells that take up residence in the bone marrow can be found in close proximity to which other type of immune cells that provide survival factors to the plasma cells? A) Macrophages B) DCs C) Monocytes D) Eosinophils E) All of the aboveD) eosinophilsWhich immunoglobulin isotype CANNOT be produced by memory B cells? A) IgM B) IgG1 C) IgG2 D) IgE E) All of the above can be produced by memory B cells.A) IgMWhich of the following antigen types could be characterized as TI antigens? A) Soluble proteins B) Bacterial cell wall components C) Capsular polysaccharides D) Both B and C E) All of the aboveD) both B and C bacterial cell wall components and capsular polysaccharidesWhich of the following statements are TRUE about γδT cells and B-1 B cells? A) Both can self-renew in the periphery and do not need to be replenished from primary lymphoid tissues. B) Both have identical lymphocyte receptors to one another. C) Both respond to their antigens via high-affinity receptor responses. D) Both A and D E) All of the aboveA) Both can self-renew in the periphery and do not need to be replenished from primary lymphoid tissues.Which of the following statements is TRUE about B-1 B cells and MZB cells? A) Both are self-renewing in the periphery, not requiring replacement from bone marrow. B) Both can respond to TI antigen. C) Both do not undergo SHM. D) Both A and B E) All of the aboveD) both A and B both are self- renewing in the periphery, not requiring replacement from bone marrow and both can respond to T1 antigenWhat do SHP-1 and IL-10 have in common with regard to B-cell function? A) Both exert negative regulation of B-cell activity. B) Both exert positive regulation of B-cell activity. C) Both are B-cell survival factors. D) Both induce B-cell proliferation. E) None of the aboveA) Both exert negative regulation of B-cell activity.What is the effector molecule of humoral immunity? A) Antibodies B) Cytotoxic T cells C) Dendritic cells D) Helper T cells E) Plasma cellsA) antibodiesThe role of cell-mediated immunity is: A) to find cells infected with intracellular pathogens. B) to find and eliminate cells infected with intracellular pathogens. C) to present antigens to TH cells. D) to produce memory B cells. E) to secrete antibodies.B) to find and eliminate cells infected with intracellular pathogens.Cell mediated immunity includes: A) antibodies. B) plasma cells. C) TC cells. D) TH cells. E) Both C and DE) both C and D TC cells and TH cellsExamples of cytotoxic effector cells include all of the following EXCEPT: A) basophils. B) eosinophils. C) macrophages. D) NK cells. E) TC cells.A) basophilsNK T cells (NKTs) express: A) CD4. B) CD8. C) CD12. D) CD33. E) Both A and BA) CD4_______ describes the action of antibodies whereby antibodies bind to a pathogen and prevent the pathogen from interacting with cell receptors. A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity B) Antigen presentation C) Complement fixation D) Neutralization E) OpsonizationD) neutralization_______ describes the recruitment of phagocytic cells by the Fab portion of an antibody A) Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity B) Antigen presentation C) Complement fixation D) Neutralization E) OpsonizationE) opsonizationLysis of a pathogen by MAC formation is an example of: A) antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. B) antigen presentation. C) complement fixation. D) neutralization. E) opsonization.C) complement fixationVirally infected host cells are tagged with antigen-antibody complexes. These complexes recruit NK cells that trigger apoptosis in the infected host cell. This is an example of: A) antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity. B) antigen presentation C) complement fixation D) neutralization. E) opsonization.A) antibody- dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicityWhich class of antibodies is the FIRST to be produced during the primary immune response? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgME) IgMWhich class of antibodies is good at fixing complement? A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgMD) IgGIgA is typically found as a dimer in high levels of secretions such as milk, tears, and saliva. What is the primary function of IgA in secretions? A) To alert plasma cells of an invading pathogen B) To neutralize toxins and pathogens C) To secrete nonspecific enzymes such as lysozyme D) To stimulate the growth of normal microbiota (normal flora) species E) To trigger apoptosis in infected mucosal cellsB) To neutralize toxins and pathogensMonoclonal antibodies may be used to treat cancer in all of the following ways EXCEPT: A) directly binding of monoclonal antibodies may trigger apoptosis or antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity B) monoclonal antibodies compete with growth factors to bind receptors on tumor cells. C) monoclonal antibodies may prevent the formation of new blood vessels to tumors. D) monoclonal antibodies may recruit TH cells to a developing tumor. E) monoclonal antibodies may serve as a vector to target tumor cells for toxin mediated therapy.D) monoclonal antibodies may recruit TH cells to a developing tumor.Fc-receptor molecules tend to have short cytoplasmic tails. How does this influence signaling events within the Fc-receptor cell? A) The Fc receptor is adjacent to secondary messengers (e.g., MAP kinase) that translocate into the nucleus to affect transcription. B) The Fc receptor is dependent upon a co-receptor (e.g., ITAM or ITIM) that will trigger signaling events within the cell. C) The Fc receptor is not directly involved in a signaling event. D) The Fc receptor serves only to enhance or dampen a signaling event. E) The Fc receptor translocates into the cytoplasm where it will binding to secondary messengers.B) The Fc receptor is dependent upon a co-receptor (e.g., ITAM or ITIM) that will trigger signaling events within the cell.Which Fc receptor is responsible for triggering the release of histamine, proteases, and other inflammatory signals from IgE? A) Fcα receptor B) Fcε receptor C) Fcɣ receptor D) Neonatal Fc receptor E) Polymeric immunoglobulin receptor (pIgR)B) Fcε receptorCell-mediated effector cells include: A) CTLs and NK-T cells. B) Plasma cells and dendritic cells. C) TC cells and NK cells. D) TC cells, NK-T cells, and NK cells. E) TC cells and memory TH cells.D) TC cells, NK-T cells, and NK cells.The Fas ligand (FASL) represents a key-signaling pathway among cell-mediated effector cells. What is the function of the Fas-FasL signaling pathway? A) Activation of the Fas-FasL signaling pathway triggers apoptosis. B) Binding of Fas to FasL induces phagocytosis by dendritic cells. C) Expression of Fas occurs only on naïve B cells. D) FAS-FASL binding recruits TH cells. E) TNF-α is released by NK-T cells triggering histamine release in infected target cells.A) Activation of the Fas-FasL signaling pathway triggers apoptosis.At what location are naïve TC cells activated to become CTLs? A) Blood stream B) Bone marrow C) Germinal centers of lymph node D) Spleen E) ThymusD) spleenCTLs mediate a powerful and lethal immune response to infected host cells. Which of the following steps is NOT involved with CTL activation and function? A) Antigen presented with MHC class I is recognized by CTLs. B) APC presentation occurs to both TC and TH cells. C) Fas-FasL signaling pathway is activated triggering apoptosis. D) Histamine is released from cytoplasmic granules recruiting macrophages to the site of infection. E) Perforin and granzymes are released triggering apoptosis of infected cell.D) Histamine is released from cytoplasmic granules recruiting macrophages to the site of infection.Precursor CTLs are characterized by each of the following EXCEPT: A) they do not divide. B) they do not express high affinity for CD25. C) they express CD4. D) they lack cytotoxic activity. E) they produce low amounts of IL-2.C) they express CD4Which of the following statements about NK T cells is TRUE? A) Activated NK-T cells can act as both a TH and a TC cell. B) CD4 is expressed by all NK-T cells C) NK-T cells rely on p53 expression to cause apoptosis in an infected host cell. D) NK-T cells express most of the T cell lineage characteristics. E) The TCR on NK-T cells recognizes antigens presented with MHC class I and class II molecules.A) Activated NK-T cells can act as both a TH and a TC cell.Natural cytotoxicity receptors (NCRs) belong to the _______ family of receptor molecules. A) chemokine B) class I cytokine C) class II cytokine D) Ig superfamily E) TNFD) Ig superfamilyLicensing on an NK cells refers to: A) activation of an NK cell by MHC class II displayed peptide antigen. B) expression of IFN-ɣ and TNF-α by NK cells. C) production of memory cells. D) suppressing the activity of a self-recognizing NK cell. E) testing an NK cell to ensure that it will not target healthy host cells.E) testing an NK cell to ensure that it will not target healthy host cells.How many sub-populations of TC cells are there? A) One: TC B) Two: TC1 and TC2 C) Three: TC1, TC2, and TC3 D) Five: TCA, TCD, TCE, TCG, and TCM E) It varies depending on the type of infection that is found.B) Two: TC1 and TC2MHC tetramers: A) are a novel way to detect and follow specific T-cell populations within an organisms. B) are found only in mice though a parallel system in humans is under current investigation. C) describe high-functioning TC cells found in autoimmune response. D) represent novel immunotherapy for patients with Chron's disease. E) use fluorescent staining to bind to MHC class I molecules on dendritic cells.A) are a novel way to detect and follow specific T-cell populations within an organisms.During the mixed lymphocyte reaction (MLR), T lymphocytes are mixed with allogeneic spleen cells. The T lymphocytes undergo extensive cell proliferation and are tracked using radiolabeled thymine. What purpose does the radiolabeled thymine serve in tracking T lymphocytes? A) Radiolabeled thymine will be incorporated in all immunoglobulins produced by the T lymphocytes. B) Radiolabeled thymine will be incorporated into the DNA of new T lymphocytes. C) Radiolabeled thymine will be incorporated into the CTL receptors of TC1 cells. D) Radiolabeled thymine will fluoresce when exposed to UV light and can be used to identify cytokine producing cells. E) Radiolabeled thymine will be broken down into indole during ATP production by T lymphocytes.B) Radiolabeled thymine will be incorporated into the DNA of new T lymphocytes.What is measured by the cell-mediated lympholysis (CML) assay? A) Cell lysis of plasma cells B) Cell lysis of target bacterial cells C) Cell lysis of target tumor or viral infected host cells D) Cell uptake of 51Cr by new TC cells E) Cell uptake of 51Cr by new NK-T cellsC) Cell lysis of target tumor or viral infected host cellsContinual lymphocyte circulation is needed because: A) antigen is usually present in large amounts. B) lymphocytes have a small chance or recognizing a particular antigen. C) the chance of a naïve cell encountering its target antigen is moderately high. D) there are relatively few antigen presenting cells in the lymph nodes compared to lymphocytes. E) All of the above.B) lymphocytes have a small chance or recognizing a particular antigen.After production, naïve lymphocytes travel briefly through the blood to the: A) spleen B) peripheral lymph nodes. C) mucosal associated lymphoid tissue. D) Both A and B. E) All of the aboveE) all of the above spleen, peripheral lymph nodes, and mucosal associated lymphoid tissueTrue or False: One dendritic cell can present antigen simultaneously to a CD4 T cell via MHC II, and to a CD8 T cell via MHC I.TrueLymphocytes exit the blood and enter the lymph node by extravasating at the high-endothelial venules (HEVs) present in the lymph node cortex. Extravasation does NOT require which of the following? A) Homing B) Addressins C) Chemokines D) Dendritic Cells E) All of these are required.D) dendritic cellsAfter extravasation, naïve lymphocytes enter the ________ to scan for antigen. A) thymic cortex B) lymph-node medulla C) lymph-node cortex D) high-endothelial venule E) None of the above.C) lymph node cortexReticular networks in the lymph nodes: A) are made of fibroblasts. B) guide T-cell movements. C) guide B-cell movements. D) regulate lymphocyte direction. E) All of the above.E) all of the aboveNaïve B cells do NOT depend on which of the following as they move through a lymph node? A) Follicular dendritic cells B) Fibroblastic reticular fibers C) Chemokines CCL21 and CCL19 D) The chemokine CXCL13 E) Actually, they do depend on all of these.C) Chemokines CCL21 and CCL19S1P1 receptor is upregulated by naïve T cells and B cells after 12-18 hours if they fail to encounter antigen in the lymph node. This means all of the following EXCEPT: A) the naïve cells have not been activated. B) the naïve cells have not encountered antigen. C) the naïve cells will exit the lymph node. D) space will be made for other cells to enter the lymph node. E) the naïve cells will die by apoptosis.E) the naïve cells will die by apoptosis.Pattern-recognition receptors on innate immune cells: A) Coordinate killing of pathogens B) Alert the adaptive immune system of an infection. C) Recognize a specific pathogen. D) Both A and B. E) All of the above.D) both A and B coordinate killing of pathogens and alert the adaptive immune system of an infectionEarly in an infection, antigen-presenting cells: A) become less effective at phagocytosis. B) become more effective at antigen processing. C) become less effective at cross presentation. D) recruit more adaptive immune cells than innate immune cells. E) remain at the site of infection.B) become more effective at antigen processing.Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of events? A) Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation B) APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation C) APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentation > antigen uptake > antigen processing D) Antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentation > APC migration to lymph nodes E) APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen uptake > antigen processing > antigen presentationA) Antigen uptake > antigen processing > APC migration to lymph nodes > antigen presentationAs antigen is picked up in peripheral tissues by antigen-presenting cells, it is: A) processed for presentation to B cells. B) processed for presentation to T cells. C) moved without processing over several hours to the lymph nodes. D) taken in unprocessed form for presentation to T cells. E) All of the above.B) processed for presentation to T cells.Which of the following mechanisms of travel to lymph nodes by unprocessed antigen is CORRECT? A) Small and soluble antigens travel through afferent lymphatics as opsonized particles. B) Small and soluble antigens travel directly through the bloodstream. C) Large particles and pathogens travel directly through the bloodstream. D) Opsonized pathogens travel directly through the bloodstream. E) Small particles are carried by macrophages.B) Small and soluble antigens travel directly through the bloodstream.Which of the following is the proper order of transfer for opsonized antigens? A) CD169+ macrophages > follicular dendritic cells > antigen non-specific B cells B) Antigen non-specific B cells > Cd169+ macrophages > follicular dendritic cells C) CD169+ macrophages > antigen non-specific B cells > follicular dendritic cells D) Antigen non-specific B cells > follicular dendritic cells > CD169+ macrophages E) None of the above.C) CD169+ macrophages > antigen non-specific B cells > follicular dendritic cellsThe use of complement receptor deficient cells has shown that: A) normal B cells sample antigen on macrophages and leave it intact. B) normal B cells sample antigen on macrophages and take part of it. C) complement receptor-deficient B cells do not sample antigen on macrophages. D) complement receptor-deficient B cells sample antigen on macrophages and take part of it. E) Both A and C.B) normal B cells sample antigen on macrophages and take part of it.During activation, naïve CD4+ T cells: A) interact with antigen presenting cells. B) reduce movement. C) begin to divide. D) move to interact with B cells. E) All of the above.E) all of the aboveWhile our understanding of the kinetics of T-cell activation has changed over time, we now believe that: A) antigen availability does not affect T-cell APC interactions. B) antigen quantity does not affect T-cell APC interactions. C) optimal proliferation of helper T cells requires only relatively brief APC exposure. D) optimal proliferation of helper T cells requires several hours of APC exposure. E) dendritic cell activation does not affect T cell activation.D) optimal proliferation of helper T cells requires several hours of APC exposure.T dependent B cells have been shown to need two signals for activation. Absent T-cell help, they will not activate because: A) T cells provide signal 1 through the B-cell receptor. B) T cells provide signal 2 through the B-cell receptor. C) T cells activate B cells indirectly by activating follicular dendritic cells. D) T cells activate B cells through CD40 signaling. E) Actually, they will still activate because of dendritic cells.D) T cells activate B cells through CD40 signaling.Several types of T cells have been shown to be able to provide help for B cells during activation. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) All produce the same chemokine to activate but provide different CD40 signals. B) All produce the same chemokine, and the same CD40 signal as well. C) All provide CD40 signaling but produce different chemokines. D) All provide CD40 signaling but trigger distinct class switching. E) Both C and D.E) both C and DActivation of naïve B cells is a two-step process, during which: A) antigen triggers B-cell production of CCR7, which leads it to interact with T cells. B) antigen triggers T-cell production of CCR7, which recruits B cells. C) T-cell help stimulates B cells to produce CCR7, then divide. D) macrophages trigger B-cell production of CCR7, which leads it to interact with T cells. E) None of the above.A) antigen triggers B-cell production of CCR7, which leads it to interact with T cells.T-cell help of B cells will be impaired if the T cells lack CD28 because: A) CD28 is needed to activate class switching by turning on AICD. B) CD28 is needed to interact with CD40 on the B cell. C) CD28 is needed to signal through the B-cell receptor. D) CD28 is needed to signal through the T-cell receptor. E) Both B and C.D) CD28 is needed to signal through the T-cell receptor.A major difference between naïve and effector lymphocytes is that effector lymphocytes: A) do not home to the lymph nodes. B) follow chemokine trails. C) do not require co-stimulation. D) Both B and C. E) All of the above.E) all of the aboveEffector cells, in order to avoid returning to the lymph nodes: A) up-regulate chemokine receptors to allow them to home to site of infection. B) down-regulate L-selectin, so they do not enter the high-endothelial venules (HEVs). C) down-regulate chemokine receptors, so they do not enter the high-endothelial venules (HEVs). D) Both A and B. E) Both B and C.D) both A and BStudies of graft rejection using cells labeled with fluorescent markers demonstrate that: A) any infiltration of a skin graft depends on MHC mismatch. B) deep infiltration of a skin graft depends on MHC mismatch. C) antigen-presenting cells from a skin graft migrate to lymph nodes and present antigen there. D) host antigen-presenting cells enter the skin graft, then migrate to lymph nodes. E) Both B and D.E) both B and DListeria is able to persist in an infection because it: A) avoids being broken down and presented as antigen. B) localizes quickly to lymph nodes and persists there. C) reproduces inside macrophages. D) is passed by dendritic cells to monocytes. E) None of the above.D) is passed by dendritic cells to monocytes