Upgrade to remove ads

Only $35.99/year

BSC2085 Unit Exam 2 Study Guides

Terms in this set (175)

T/F: Both endocrine and exocrine glands contain ducts.

Which of the following is a description of a tight junction?
A) "spot weld" b/w two cells
B) pattern of complementary grooves and ridges in the membranes of two adjacent cells
C) a water-filled channel formed by six membrane proteins connecting adjacent cells
D) none of the above

B) pattern of complementary grooves and ridges in the membranes of two adjacent cells

Which type of gland has vesicles that release their secretion by exocytosis?

T/F: A serous membrane lines passageways that open to the exterior environment.

What is formed in an immobilized person when continuous pressure on the skin cuts off the blood flow to an area?

decubitus ulcer

This tissue type is excitable and forms layers in the digestive organs:

The tissue type has a mesodermal origin:

skeletal muscle

These connective tissues produce histamine:

The ends of bones at movable joints are covered with this tissue:

hyaline cartilage

From the contents of this tissue, one can produce a great amount of ATP:

This excitable tissue is characterized by having intercalated discs and striations:

This part of the neuron receives signals from the other cells:

These epithelial cells produce mucus:

This type of epithelium is often keratinized and has tight intercellular junctions:

stratified squamous

The subcutaneous oil gland in the scalp secretes in which way?

Primitive connective tissue is termed:

The material that lies b/w an epithelium and its underlying connective tissue is called:

basement membrane

Transitional epithelium is found in the (organ)

In compact bone, the delicate canals that extend b/w one lacunae to another are called:

T/F: Endocrine and exocrine glands both secrete their products into ducts.

T/F: Lack of use of your biceps brachii will result in atrophy of this muscle.

T/F: Gap junctions are common throughout skeletal muscle tissue.

How many different types of cells exist w/in the human body?

Mesoderm differentiates directly into which of the following types of embryonic tissue?
A) bone
B) immature muscle
C) mesenchyme
D) cartilage

Across which type of the epithelium are substances most rapidly transported?

simple squamous epithelium

Which type of epithelium is highly absorptive b/c of the increased surface area of the microvilli typically found on its free surface?

simple cuboidal or simple columnar epithelium

Which type of epithelium is often covered with a protective layer of mucus produced by goblet cells? and where is it found?

ciliated pseudostratified epithelium in the respiratory system

T/F: The cells of connective tissue are not in direct contact with each other due to their extracellular matrix.

Which of the primary tissue types is the most abundant and the most variable?

connective tissue

Which of the following connective tissue cell types secretes heparin and histamine?
A) macrophages
B) plasma cells
C) mast cells
D) fibroblasts

Which of the primary tissues is most likely to have the function of holding an organ against the body wall?

connective tissue

T/F: Tendons, ligaments, and the deep layer of the skin are primarily made up of elastin fibers.

Collagen fibers are found in all the following except
A) tendons
B) transitional epithelium
C) bone
D) cartilage

B) transitional epithelium

T/F: White fat is found only in hibernating animals, human fetuses, and infants.

In mature bone, osteocytes can be found in tiny cavities called

T/F: When nervous and muscular tissues respond to outside stimuli, a change occurs in the voltage across the plasma membrane.

Which of the following has intercalated discs?
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) striated muscle

T/F: Smooth muscle lacks striations and is involuntary.

If the secretory cells of an exocrine gland form a dilated sac, the gland is called a(n) _____________ gland.

Blonde hair
A) contains air in the medulla
B) normally has a flatter shaft than brown or black hair
C) has a sparse amount of melanin in the cortex
D) typically lacks a cuticle
E) is a result of a low amount of iron in the papillae

C) has a sparse amount of melanin in the cortex

When you walk outside barefoot, in which part of your toenail will dirt adhere and be the most difficult to remove?

the hyponychium

T/F: First-degree burns extend through the epidermis only.

T/F: Mammary glands are modified apocrine sweat glands.

T/F: Apocrine sweat has a very disagreeable odor.

The single layer of cells that make up the stratum basale of the epidermis contains all of the following types except
A) melanocytes
B) keratinocytes
C) merkel cells
D) fibroblasts

T/F: The deep, or reticular, layer of the dermis is composed mainly of adipocytes.

T/F: The dendritic, or langerhan, cells within the epidermis are sensory nerve fibers.

Which of the following types of cells divides by mitosis to replace the dead cells that exfoliate from the surface of your skin?
A) keratinocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) Merkel cells
D) melanocytes

A) keratinocytes

T/F: Most drugs are injected by hypodermic needle into the epidermis b/c it is highly vascular and quite absorptive.

Which term refers to the yellowing of the skin due to an abnormally high level of bilirubin in the blood?

The skin serves a protective function b/c of all the following except
A) the acid mantle formed by sebum
B) the toughness of keratin
C) the strength of epidermal desmosomes
D) protection against ultraviolet light provided by melanin

A) the acid mantle formed by sebum

Of the 3 types of hair we grow during our lives, which type is pigmented?

T/F: The papilla of the bulb of each hair is vascularized and supplies the hair with its nutrition.

Fingernails grow about 1mm/week due to mitosis of cells in the

Which of the following statements about sweat glands is incorrect?
A) a milky perspiration containing fatty acids is secreted by merocrine sweat glands
B) Sweat glands are simple tubular glands lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium and emptied by a duct
C) Apocrine glands open onto hair follicles rather than sweat pore
D) The 500 ml of insensible perspiration that we produce each day does not produce a wetness of the skin.

A) a milky perspiration containing fatty acids is secreted by merocrine sweat glands

Which of the following is a fungus infection of the skin?
A) warts
B) ringworm
C) psoriasis
D) acne

T/F: Skin cancer is induced by the ultraviolet rays of the sun.

What type of skin cancer is the least dangerous b/c it seldom metastisizes?

basal cell carcinoma

The layer of the epidermis where one can find melanocytes is the:

The epidermal layer that is dead and keratinized is the

stratum corneum

The major skin layer that normally has the greatest amount of adipocytes is the

UV light stimulates the production of

Which of the following will not be a result of high levels of exposure to ultraviolet light in a normal person?
A) tanning
B) vitamin D synthesis started
C) sunburns
D) skin cancer
E) healthy skin

E) healthy skin

Cutaneous vasodilation is in response to

very warm conditions

The hair of a fetus is called

Smooth muscle bundles attached to the hair root sheath are called

These skin glands protect the ear

This common type of skin cancer arises from the stratum basale and is unlikely to metastasize:

basal cell carcinoma

The epidermal layer is found only in thick skin:

stratum lucidum

The condition termed albinism results from:

a deficiency of melanin production

In this dominant genetic condition, the chondrocytes fail to multiply

This type of fracture is common in young adults active in sports

Which of the following is a mature bone cell that appears to be responsible for the overall supervision of bone maintenance?
A) osteogenic cells
B) osteoblasts
C) osteocytes
D) endosteum cells
E) osteoclasts

This type of fracture is defined solely by the fact that the skin is not broken.

closed fracture

The basic structural unit of compact bone is termed

T/F: The hormone calcitonin is an important hormone in adults.

T/F: In an elderly person, most of the bone marrow is a gelatinous material.

T/F: The humerus and femur develop by the process of intramembranous ossification.

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
A) muscle attachment
B) production of blood cells
C) mineral reservoir
D) buffering the blood by releasing acidic mineral salts

D) buffering the blood by releasing acidic mineral salts

The shaft of a long bone, such as the femur, is known as the

T/F: Osteocytes mature and become osteoclasts.

T/F: About 85% of the inorganic matter of bone is a crystalized calcium carbonate known as hydroxyapatite.

T/F: Intramembranous ossification in the fetus produces the flat bones of the skull, when mesenchyme transforms directly into bone.

In which of the histological zones of a developing long bone would you find osteoclasts?
A) zone of cell proliferation
B) zone of bone deposition
C) zone of calcified cartilage
D) zone of cell hypertrophy

B) zone of bone deposition

T/F: Ossification in abnormal locations is called ectopic ossification.

Hypocalcemia causes which of the following?
A) sluggish reflexes
B) emotional disturbances
C) muscle tremors or spasms
D) cardiac arrest

C) muscle tremors or spasms

What hormone is involved w/calcium homeostasis is secreted by the thyroid glands?

T/F: PTH is secreted when the blood calcium concentration drops too low.

What is the adult form of rickets?

osteomalacia where the bone becomes softened and deformed

What type of fracture is a bone broken into 3 or more pieces?

T/F: Estrogen replacement therapy cannot reverse osteoporosis, but it can slow its progress.

The sheath of fibrous connective tissue covering the outside of a bone is called the

These large multinucleate cells found in bones secrete enzymes to reabsorb matrix

These are little cavities occupied by osteocytes in living bones

This bone develops by intramembranous ossification:
A) vertebrae
B) cranium
C) pelvis
D) humerus
E) femur

The first step in making a long bone such as the femur is

hyaline cartilage model formed

PTH raises blood calcium concentration by all of the following except:
A) stimulating the dissolving of bone matrix
B) increases the number of osteoclasts
C) reduces calcium excretion
D) increases vitamin D excretion
E) inhibits osteoblasts

D) increase vitamin D excretion

All of these organs or organ systems participate in vitamin D production or activation except:
A) heart
B) parathyroid glands
C) skin
D) liver
E) kidney

This condition results from little exercise and lack of estrogen after menopause

Functions of the skeletal system include all of the following except:
A) acid-base balance
B) blood cell production
C) produce hormones which regulate blood glucose
D) detoxification
E) regulation of certain electrolytes

C) produce hormones which regulate blood glucose

All of the following are cranial bones except:
A) maxilla
B) parietal
C) frontal
D) occipital
E) sphenoid

The weight-bearing bone of the leg is the

W/in what part of the temporal bone do the middle and inner ear cavities lie?

the petrous part

The sella turcica, which houses the pituitary, is part of what cranial bone

Floating ribs do not connect to the sternum

T/F: The fibula is a weight-bearing bone of the lower extremity.

T/F: In order to form the hip joint, the head of the femur must fit snugly into the obturator foramen.

The axial skeleton includes all of the following except the
A) skull.
B) ribs and sternum.
C) vertebral column.
D) pelvic girdle.

D) pelvic girdle

Which common term is for the surface features of bones is used to describe a hole through a bone?

The spinal cord joins the brain as it passes through which foramina?

T/F: The suture found b/w the left and right parietal bones is the lambdoid suture.

T/F: The mandibular fossa where the mandible articulates with the skull can be found on the parietal bone.

The optic nerve connects to the eyeball after passing through the optic foramen. Where is the optic foramen found?

The hard palate is made up of which two bones?

palatine and maxillary

T/F: The 3 auditory ossicles are the malleus, incus, and hyoid bones.

Which of the four curves of the adult vertebral column develop as an infant begins to lift its head?

The spinal nerves exit the vertebral column by passing through the intervertebral foramen. What part of each vertebra is notched to form the intervertebral foramen?

T/F: The center of the intervertebral disk is called the annulus fibrosus.

T/F: The joint b/w the occipital condyles and the atlas allows us to rotate our head, as in gesturing "no".

T/F: The majority of our ribs articulate with both the vertebral bodies and the ends of the transverse process of the vertebrae.

The uppermost portion of the sternum is the

T/F: The tubercle of a rib articulates with the same numbered vertebra

When the elbow is straightened, the olecranon process of the ulna fits into which part of the posterior surface of the humerus?

olecranon fossa

The pollex contains how many phalanges?

The head of the femur articulates with the hip bone at the

A lateral malleolus is found on the distal end of what bone?

All of these bones contain sinuses except:
A) nasal
B) ethmoid
C) frontal
D) sphenoid
E) maxillary

If you had a middle ear infection, to which of the following bone areas is the illness most likely to spread?
A) hypophyseal foramen
B) sella turcica
C) perpendicular plate
D) mastoid part
E) mandibular fossa

D) mastoid part

The pituitary gland lies in the

sella turcica of the sphenoid bone

The meninges attach to several boney points in the skull. One of the places they attach is

the crista galli

These spaces b/w unfused cranial bones allow for shifting of skull bones as the newborn passes through the birth canal.

These vertebrae each have a pair of transverse foramina to allow passage of the vertebral arteries:

The humerus has its superior articulation with the

A female pelvis, when compared to a male's, has a

greater angle of pubic arch

Which of the following serves as an attachment for large muscles of the hip?
A) radial tuberosity
B) mastoid process
C) calcaneus
D) lesser trochanter
E) fovea capitis

D) lesser trochanter

The suture that lies b/w the left and right parietal bones is the

sagittal suture

These specialized cartilages in the knee absorb shock

An example of a first class lever in the body is around this joint

This joint is an example of amphiarthrosis

distal radioulnar

This knee ligament prevents the tibia from being displaced backward along the femur

posterior cruciate ligament

This disease, marked by an autoimmune attack on joint tissues, causes severe joint deformity, pain, and disability.

rheumatoid arthritis

Which of the following is not a bursa that is associated with the shoulder joint? (p. 327)
A) subacromial
B) subcoracoid
C) subclavicular
D) subscapular
E) subdeltoid

C) subclavicular

T/F: The elbow joint proper does not include the proximal radioulnar joint.

T/F: the deltoid ligament, which lies just deep to the deltoid muscle, joins the head of the humerus to the glenoid labrum in the shoulder.

T/F: A very big yawn could dislocate the temporomandibular joint.

T/F: A diathrosis is a slighly movable joint.

T/F: Joints can be classified by the physical junction b/w adjacent bones.

Immovable fibrous joints in the skull are called

Which of the following is not a fibrous joint?
A) suture
B) syndesmosis
C) gomphosis
D) synchondrosis

D) synchondrosis

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a synovial joint?
A) synovial fluid
B) fibrous capsule
C) collagen fibers crossing the articulation
D) synovial membrane

C) collagen fibers crossing the articulation

T/F: Activities like swimming result in deterioration of the articular cartilage.

T/F: Adduction is a motion away from the midsagittal line.

T/F: Tightening screw uses the supinator muscles as the primary force.

T/F: Dorsiflexion is a movement of the foot that bring the toes upward.

T/F: The quadriceps muscle is an example of a third-class lever.

Which of the following is not part of the TMJ?
A) articular disc
B) temporomandibular ligament
C) acromion process
D) mandibular fossa

C)acromion process

The glenoid cavity is deepened by a ring of fibrocartilage called the

T/F: The shoulder joint is vulnerable to dislocation when the arm is abducted or when the arm is pulled sharply.

The hinge joint of the elbow contains which of the following?
A) humeroulnar joint
B) distal radioulnar joint
C) proximal radioulnar joint
D) glenohumeral joint

A) humeroulnar joint

One test for a knee injury is to stabilize the foot with the knee in flexion and to attempt to pull the upper tibia forward. What ligamentous injury would allow this motion?

anterior cruciate tear

Which of the following is not part of the ankle joint?
A) talus
B) calcaneus
C) tibia
D) fibula

The humeroscapular joint is a _______ joint.

ball and socket

The ankle joint is a _________ joint

Uric acid crystal formation in joints is associated w/ what disease?

"Wear and Tear" arthritis describes which disease?

An autoimmune attack on joint tissue is associated with which disease?

rheumatoid arthritis

T/F: A prosthetic joint is stronger than a natural joint.

In terms of function, the elbow is an example of a/an ________ joint.

This type of fibrous joint connects the parietal bones to the occipital bone

squamous suture

If a suture completely ossifies, it would then be a

This is an example of a hinge joint:
A) trapeziometacarpal
B) radiocarpal
C) interphalangeal
D) shoulder
E) radioulnar

C) interphalangeal

This unusual synovial joint type allows for thumb opposability

This joint allows for multiaxial movements

ball and socket

If you decrease the angle of your forearm with respect to the arm than you have made which movement?

Which of the following is due to an autoimmune disorder?
A) rheumatoid arthritis
B) osteoarthritis
C) Paget disease
D) rickets
E) crepitus

A) rheumatoid arthritis

Other sets by this creator

Exam 2 Review Questions

170 terms

BSC2085 Exam 4 Study Guide

90 terms

BSC2085 Muscles

45 terms

BSC2085 Exam 3 Study Guide

105 terms

Recommended textbook solutions

Biology

1st Edition•ISBN: 9780133669510 (1 more)Kenneth R. Miller, Levine

2,591 solutions

Clinical Reasoning Cases in Nursing

7th Edition•ISBN: 9780323527361Julie S Snyder, Mariann M Harding

2,512 solutions

Hole's Human Anatomy and Physiology

13th Edition•ISBN: 9780073378275David N. Shier, Jackie L. Butler, Ricki Lewis

1,402 solutions

Anatomy and Physiology Coloring Workbook

11th Edition•ISBN: 9780321961921Elaine N. Marieb

930 solutions