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Pharm I questions

STUDY
PLAY
The BEST antidote for atropine poisoning is
physostigmine
Which of the following drugs is favored in treatment of glaucoma?
a. pilocarpine
b. bethanechol
c. neostigmine
d. muscarine
e. carbachol
pilocarpine
Atropine may cause all of the following except
a. constipation
b. tachycardia
c. urine retention
d. decrease in intraocular pressure
e. decrease in gastric secretion
decrease in intraocular pressure
Which of the following is the drug of choice in the immediate treatment of acute anaphylactic shock?
a. atropine
b. epinephrine
c. norepinephrine
d. neostigmine
e. isoproterenol
epinephrine
Epinephrine is CONTRAINDICATED with phenothiazine derivatives mainly because it
will cause severe hypotension
Which of the following drugs is the drug of choice for treatment of acute bronchial asthma?
a. isoproterenol
b. epinephrine
c. ephedrine
d. albuterol
e. ipratropium
albuterol
All of the following are therapeutic uses of beta-blockers EXCEPT
a. hypertension
b. hyperthyroidism
c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias
d. glaucoma
e. urinary incontinence
urinary incontinence
A dog poisoned with chocolate would show signs of which of the following effects?
a. oliguria, shock, CNS depression
b. hyperglycemia, hemolysis, shock
c. tachycardia, convulsive seizures, urination
d. bronchoconstriction, pulmonary edema, hypertension
e. bradycardia, urine retention, constipation
tachycardia, convulsive seizures, urination
All of the following agents can be given orally to decrease absorption of strychnine EXCEPT
a. diluted potassium permanganate solution
b. diluted tincture of iodine
c. diluted tannic acid solution
d. activated charcoal
e. sodium bicarbonate
sodium bicarbonate
Xanthine derivatives stimulate the CNS MAINLY by
a. blocking glycine receptors
b. blocking GABA receptors
c. inhibiting reuptake of norepinephrine
d. blocking α2-adrenergic receptors
e. blocking adenosine receptors
blocking adenosine receptors
Which of the following drugs is used as antidote for diazepam?
a. propranolol
b. atropine
c. yohimbine
d. flumazenil
e. misoprostol
flumazenil
Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives
a. preanesthetic
b. chemical restraint
c. bronchial asthma
d. motion sickness
e. antiemetics
bronchial asthma
Benzodiazepines cause CNS depression by
enhancing GABA
Which of the following CNS depressant drugs are used to stimulate appetite in cats and dogs?
a. phenothiazines
b. butyrophenones
c. benzodiazepines
d. α2-adrenergic agonists
e. opioid agonists
benzodiazepines
The BEST antagonist for droperidol-fentanyl combination is
4-AP/naloxone combination
Bradycardia due to xylazine in the horse is BEST treated with
a. yohimbine
b. isoproterenol
c. atropine
d. epinephrine
e. bethanechol
atropine
Which of the following drugs is MOST effective in reversing the sedative, analgesic, and physiological changes in dogs receiving medetomidine?
a. atropine
b. epinephrine
c. prazosin
d. atipamezole
e. naloxone
atipamezole
Opioid antidiarrheals have all of the following actions EXCEPT
a. inhibition of propulsive motility
b. inhibition of intestinal secretion
c. inhibition of segmental motility
d. prolonging the transit time
e. inhibition of the defecation reflex
inhibition of segmental motility
Which of the following drugs would you choose as antitussive to contol severe cough in a dog with infectious tracheobronchitis?
a. meperidine
b. hydrocodone
c. loperamide
d. atropine
e. xylazine
hydrocodone
Buprenorphine is used in dogs and cats as
analgesic
Propofol is preferred over thiobarbiturates as an injectable anesthetic because
it has less cardiovascular effects
All of the following statements with dissociative anesthetics are true EXCEPT
a. they produce only stage I and stage II
b. induction is usually within 5 minutes depending on route of administration
c. duration of anesthesia is about 20-45 min in small animals
d. recovery is within 10-15 minutes
e. reflexes are maintained during anesthesia
recovery is within 10-15 minutes
All of the following injectible anesthetics cause cardiovascular depression EXCEPT
a. thiopental
b. ketamine
c. propofol
d. etamidate
e. thiamylal
ketamine
Isoflurane is preferred over halothane because of all of the following effects EXEPT
a. it has faster induction and recovery
b. it has greater precision on the depth of anesthesia
c. it has less ability to sensitize the myocardium to catecholamines
d. it does not cause organ toxicity
e. it causes less respiratory depression
it causes less respiratory depression
Which of the following inhalation anesthetics has the fastest induction?
a. halothane
b. methoxyflurane
c. isoflurane
d. desflurane
e. sevoflurane
desflurane
All of the following statements about nitrous oxide are true EXCEPT
a. it is used as anesthetic adjuvant with other anesthetcis
b. it may increase intracranial pressure
c. it is a potent muscle relaxant
d. it produces fair to good analgesia
e. it does not affect liver or kidney functions
it is a potent muscle relaxant
All of the following drugs may aggravate epinephrine-induced cardia arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT
a. thiopental
b. lidocaine
c. xylazine
d. norepinephrine
e. succinylcholine
lidocaine
Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension?
a. succinylcholine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. d-tubocurarine
d-tubocurarine
Which of the following muscle relaxants has the SHORTEST duration of action in the horse?
a. tubocurarine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. atacurium
e. succinylcholine
succinylcholine
Which of the following is PREFERRED as an antidote for nondepolarizing muscle relaxants overdose?
a. physostigmine
b. pyridostigmine
c. atropine
d. epinephrine
e. neostigmine
neostigmine
Which of the following NSAIDs used in dogs is a selective COX-2 inhibitor?
a. acetylsalicylic acid
b. phenylbutazone
c. meclofenamic acid
d. etodolac
e. flunixin
etodolac
The antithrombotic effect of aspirin is MAINLY due to
a. vasoconstriction
b. inhibition of prostacyclin production
c. competitive antagonism of vitamin K
d. antithrombin effect
e. inhibition of platelet aggregation
inhibition of platelet aggregation
An opioid drug mainly used in the symptomatic treatment of diarrhea is
a. buprenorphine
b. meperidine
c. loperamide
d. naltrexone
e. oxymorphone
loperamide
Which of the following opioid analgesics has minimal cardiovascular effects?
a. morphine
b. butorphanol
c. pentazocine
d. fentanyl
e. carfentanil
butorphanol
The drug of choice for maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats is
a. diazepam
b. phenytoin
c. phenobarbital
d. primidone
e. potassium bromide
phenobarbital
Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs is LEAST likely to cause hepatotoxicity?
a. phenobarbital
b. primidone
c. phenytoin
d. potassium bromide
e. diazepam
potassium bromide
An anticonvulsant that is contraindicated in cats because of its neurotoxicity is
primidone
A weak basic drug is expected to
a. be readily absorbed from the stomach
b. have a low volume of distribution (Vd)
c. be rapidly excreted in urine in cattle
d. be excreted in milk in large quantities
e. cross the blood-brain barrier poorly
be excreted in milk in large quantities
Which of the following statements about idiosyncratic drug reactions is LEAST accurate?
a. they are genetically determined reactions
b. they are unpredictable
c. they are dose-dependent
d. they are usually caused by reactive drug metabolites (RDMs)
e. they usually involve the immune system
they are dose-dependent
You want to administer a drug orally to a dog weighing 10 kg for 2 weeks. How many tablets approximately do you need if each tablet contains 1/130gr. active ingredient and the dosage is 0.1 mg/lb?
a. 16 tablets
b. 31 tablets
c. 62 tablets
d. 124 tablets
e. 248 tablets
62 tablets
Which of the following agents can be used to enhance renal excretion of aspirin in cats?
a. atropine
b. ammonium chloride
c. epinephrine
d. sodium bicarbonate
e. methionine
sodium bicarbonate
You wish to administer a drug to a dog weighing 44 lb. How much approximately would you need if the dosage were 5mg/kg and the available solution is 2%?
a. 1 mL
b. 3 mL
c. 5 mL
d. 7 mL
e. 10 mL
5 mL
You want to make half a gallon of an antiseptic solution at a ratio of 1:20. How many fluid ounces would you need from a stock at a ratio of 1:5 to add to water to make half a gallon of 1:20?
a. 8.7 fluid ounces
b. 12.7 fluid ounces
c. 16.7 fluid ounces
d. 20.7 fluid ounces
3. 24.7 fluid ounces
16.7 fluid ounces
Which of the following anesthetics is MOST likely to cause catecholamine-induced cardiac arrhythmias?
a. halothane
b. isoflurane
c. mexthoxyflurane
d. desflurane
e. sevoflurane
halothane
Facilitated diffusion of drugs is a carrier-mediated transport that requires energy? T/F
False
Generally, drugs that bind extensively to plasma protein tend to have short half-lives. T/F
False
The rate of biotransformation of drugs by the hepatic microsomal enzyme system depends MAINLY on their lipid solubility. T/F
True
The MOST common biotransformation reaction is oxidation. T/F
True
A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction of the receptors. T/F
False
If the intravenous infusion rate is doubled, the plasma concentration ultimately achieved at the steady-state is doubled. T/F
True
Which of the following is the MOST common cause of acute death in cholinesterase inhibitor toxicity?
a. hypertension
b. congestive heart failure
c. cardiac arrhythmias
d. respiratory failure
e. dehydration and shock
respiratory failure
Which of the following cholinesterase inhibitors may have less systemic adverse effects because of a shorter duration of action?
a. physostigmine
b. neostigmine
c. edrophonium
d. pyridostigmine
e. organophosphate
edrophonium
Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to cross the placental barrier?
a. d-tubocurarine
b. gauifenesin
c. pancuronium
d. atracurium
e. vecuronium
guaifenesin
Methylxanthine derivatives cause CNS stimulation mainly by
a. inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine
b. stimulating glutamic acid
c. blocking glycine receptors
d. blocking adenosine receptors
e. blocking GABA recpetors
blocking adenosine receptors
All of the following can be used for convulsive seizures in a dog poisoned with strychnine EXCEPT
a. diazpam
b. pentobarbital
c. acepromazine
d. xylazine
e. methocarbamol
acepromazine
All of the following are therapeutic uses of phenothiazine derivatives EXCEPT
a. antimotion sickness
b. antihistamines
c. preanesthetics
d. analgesics
e. antiemetics
analgesics
Which of the following CNS depressant drugs has clinically significant analgesia?
a. chloral hydrate
b. pentobarbital
c. medetomidine
d. acepromazine
e. diazepam
medetomidine
Duration of analgesia by xylazine is about
15-30 minutes
Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be used to treat toxicity of opioid analgesics?
a. naloxone
b. levallorphan
c. buprenorphine
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine
buprenorphine
Which of the following anticonvulsant drugs is MOST effective in the long-term treatment of heredtary siezures in dogs and cats an is relatively safe?
a. phenytoin
b. diazepam
c. potassium bromide
d. phenobarbital
e. primidone
phenobarbital
Which of the following is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in a dog suffering from eipilepsy?
a. corticosteroids
b. fluoroquinolones
c. xylazine
d. metoclopramide
e. succinylcholine
succinylcholine
Which of the following anesthetic agents would you NOT use in an animal with a known history of kidney disease?
a. halothane
b. methoxyflurane
c. isoflurane
d. nitrous oxide
e. desflurane
methoxyflurane
All of the following drugs may increase epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia EXCEPT
a. xylazine
b. thiopental
c. isoproterenol
d. ephedrine
e. droperidol-fentanyl combination
droperidol-fentanyl combination
Which of the following statements concerning thiamylal is LEAST accurate?
a. it may aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias during inhalation anesthesia
b. redistribution from the brain to other tissues is responsible for termination of it CNS effects
c. it has a duration of action of about 10 minutes
d. it is used as a preanesthetic to shorten induction period
e. it increases intracranial pressure
it increases intracranial pressure
Anesthesia by dissociative anesthetics has the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. the eyes are open
b. no loss of consciousness
c. increased intracranial pressure
d. duration of anesthesia is 30-45 minutes
e. fast induction and recovery
fast induction and recovery
Propofol is preferred over thiobarbiturates as an injectable anesthetic because
a. it is a more potent analgesic
b. it has a longer duration of action
c. it is injected IM
d. it is a more potent muscle relaxant
e. it has less cardiovascular effects
it has less cardiovascular effects
A dog weighing 66 lb. is treated with a drug at a dosage of 10mg/kg b.i.d. for 2 weeks. How much of 7% solution approximately would be required?
a. 1 fl oz
b. 2 fl oz
c. 4 fl oz
d. 6 fl oz
e. 10 fl oz
4 fl oz
You want to make 2 quarts of an insecticide at 0.5%. How many fluid ounces would you need from a stock of the insecticide at 1:20 ratio to add to water to make a 0.5% solution?
a. 2.2 fl ounces
b. 3.3 fl ounces
c. 6.6 fl ounces
d. 8.8 fl ounces
e. 9.9 fl ounces
6.6 fl ounces
The dosage of thiamine supplement in the horse is 50 mg per 100 lbs. body weight. How much would you administer to a horse weighing 300 kg? Each mL contains Thiamine HCl (200mg), Disodium edetate (0.01% w/v), Benzyl Alcohol (1.5% v/v), water for injection (q.s.)
a. 0.7 mL
b. 1.7 mL
c. 2.7 mL
d. 3.7 mL
e. 4.7 mL
1.7 mL
Which of the following drugs is a selective α1-blocker?
a. Pirenzepine
b. Phenylpropanolamine
c. Prazosin
d. Bretylium
e. Atenolol
Prazosin
Which of the following drugs is used to stimulate appetite in small animals?
a. oxymorphone
b. chlorpromazine
c. oxazepam
d. droperidol
e. scopolamine
oxazepam
Which of the following opioids is the MOST potent analgesic?
a. fentanyl
b. morphine
c. oxymorphone
d. butorphanol
e. meperidine
fentanyl

(meperidne < morphine (1x) < butorphanol (5x) < oxymorphone (10x) < fentanyl (50-100x))
An inhalation anesthetic which has a blood/gas partition coefficient of 0.4 and oil/gas partition of 19 and is not metabolized by the body would be expected to have the following effects EXCEPT
a. greater precision of control over the maintenance of anesthesia
b. no hepatotoxicity
c. fast induction
d. relatively low MAC
e. fast recovery
relatively low MAC
Which of the following drugs is used in arthritis and acts by increasing synovial fluid viscosity and inhibits proteolytic enzymes and degradation of cartilage matrix?
a. ketoprofen
b. DMSO
c. orgtein
d. hyaluronic acid
e. polysulfated glycosaminoglycan
polysulfated glycosaminoglycan
Histamine causes bronchoconstriction by stimulating H1-receptors and albuterol causes bronchodilation by stimulating α2-adrenergic receptors, therefore, albuterol is probably
a. a chemical antagonist
b. a noncompetetive antagonist
c. an competitive antagonist
d. a physiological antagonist
e. a partial agonist
a physiological antagonist
Following systemic administration, aminoglycoside antibiotics have a high affinity to be sequestered by which of the following tissues?
a. skin
b. brain
c. fat
d. kidney
e. bone
kidney
Facilitated diffusion
a. is energy-dependent process
b. moves substances against concentration gradient
c. is slower than simple diffusion
d. involves penetration through pores
e. is a carrier-mediated transport
is a carrier-mediated transport
Dissolution is the rate-limiting step that determines the rate of absorption of a solid drug formulation given orally. T/F
True
The MOST common phase II metabolic reaction is conjugation to glucuronic acid. T/F
True
For most drugs the half-life depends on the dose of drug administered. T/F
False
A partial agonist is a drug that produces a maximal response by occupying a fraction or the receptors. T/F
False
Neostigmine can be used in all of the following EXCEPT
a. treatment of myasthenia gravis
b. diagnosis of myasthenia gravis
c. urinary tract obstruction
d. rumen atony
e. antagonizing nondepolarizing muscle relaxants (such as tubocurarine) toxicity
urinary tract obstruction
The following drugs may cause hyperglycemia EXCEPT
a. norepinephrine
b. epinephrine
c. propanolol
d. isoproterenol
e. terbutaline
propanolol
Which of the following is LEAST likely an adverse effect of atropine?
a. blurring of vision
b. dry mouth
c. urinary retention
d. colic in horses
e. hypotension
hypotension
Which of the following agents cause(s) convulsive seizures mainly due to inhibition of glycine in the spinal cord?
a. doxapram
b. physostimine
c. strychnine
d. amphetamine
e. xanthine derivatives
strychnine
Which of the following statements about theophylline is LEAST accurate?
a. it is available in rapid and slow release forms for oral administration
b. aminophylline is the soluble salt of theophylline given parenterally
c. bronchodilation is the most important therapeutic action
d. duration of action is several hours
e. its cardiac toxicity can be antagonized with atropine
its cardiac toxicity can be antagonized with atropine
A specific antagonist to benzodiazepines is
flumazenil
Atipamezole is
a. an α1-adrenoceptor agonist
b. an α2-adrenoceptor agonist
c. antimuscarinic
d. central α2-adrenergic agonist
e. central α2-adrenergic antagonist
central α2-adrenergic antagonist
Which of the following drugs does NOT aggravate epinephrine-induced cardiac arrythmias during inhalation anesthesia?
a. xylazine
b. thiamylal
c. succinylcholine
d. isoproterenol
e. acepromazine
acepromazine
The most important adverse effect due to parenteral administration of phenothiazines is
a. direct tachycardia
b. nephrotoxicity
c. histamine release
d. hypotension
e. diarrhea
hypotension
Xylazine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. analgesia
b. muscle relaxation
c. emesis
d. bradycardia
e. hypoglycemia
hypoglycemia
In preanesthetic medication, glycopyrrolate is preferred to atropine because it
a. decreases the MAC of the inhalation anesthetic
b.causes stronger block of reflex bradycardia
c. possesses analgesic properties
d. does not cross the placenta
e. causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions
causes greater inhibition of salivary and bronchial secretions
An anticonvulsant drug that is safer to use to prevent seizures in epileptic dogs with liver disease is
a. phenobarbital
b. clorazepate
c. primidone
d. phenytoin
e. potassium bromide
potassium bromide
Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to precipitate seizures in an epileptic dogs?
a. morphine
b. corticosteroids
c. metoclopramide
d. glycopyrrolate
e. fluoroquinolones
glycopyrrolate
Which of the following antitussive drugs is LEAST likely to cause sedation?
a. codeine
b. butorphanol
c. hydrocodone
d. dextromethorphan
e. noscapine
dextromethorphan
Prazosin acts as an
α1-adrenergic antagonist
The ratio of the rate of elimination of a drug to its concentration in plasma is called
clearance
If the dosage of atropine sulfate, as an antidote for organophosphate poisoning is 0.5 mg/kg, how many mL of 2.5% solution is required to treat an 1100-pound cow?
a. 5 mL
b. 10 mL
c. 15 mL
d. 20 mL
e. 25 mL
10 mL
You want to use dexpanthenol injection for intestinal atony in a dog weighing 10 kg at a dosage of 25 mg per 5 lbs body weight intramuscularly. How much approximately would you need? Each mL contains Dexpanthenol (3.85 gr), Chlorobutanol (0.5%), water (q.s.)
a. 0.1 mL
b. 0.2 mL
c. 0.4 mL
d. 0.8 mL
e. 1.2 mL
0.4 mL
An inhalation anesthetic with a low oil/gas partition coeffeicient
has a relatively high MAC
Assuming that most drugs have small molecular size, diffusion of free drugs across most capillaries is MAINLY limited by lipid solubility. T/F
False
A drug's volume of distribution (Vd) is a good indication of the ability of the drug to diffuse across membranes. T/F
True
If the IV infusion rate is doubled, the time needed to achieve a steady-state plasma concentration is doubled. T/F
False
Methlyxanthines cause CNS stimulation by
a. interfering with reuptake of norepinephrine
b. blocking presynaptic α-adrenergic receptors
c. blocking glycine receptors
d. blocking adenosine receptors
e. stimulating release of glutamate
blocking adenosine receptors
Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic use of barbiturates?
a. sedatives
b. preanesthetics
c. euthanetics
d. anticonvulsants
e. analgesics
analgesics
Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of phenothiazine derivatives
a. preanesthetic
b. chemical restraint
c. bronchial asthma
d. motion sickness
e. antiemetic
bronchial asthma
All of the following are therapeutic uses of xylazine EXCEPT
a. preanesthetic
b. combined with ketamine as anesthetic in dogs and cats
c. muscle relaxant
d. emetic
e. antiepileptic
antiepileptic
Atipamezole acts as
an α2-antagonist
Buprenorphine is used in dogs and cats as
an analgesic
Which of the following injectable anesthetics is CONTRAINDICATED in head injuries and cerebral hemorrhage?
a. thiamylal
b. thiopental
c. propofol
d. ketamine
e. etomidate
ketamine
A quaternary ammonium compound is expected to
a. be rapidly absorbed following oral administration
b. have a relatively large volume of distribution
c. act intracellularly
d. be rapidly excreted in milk
e. be excreted in urine relatively unchanged
be excreted in urine relatively unchanged
You wish to prepare one gallon of insecticide at a concentration of 0.2%. How much approximately would you need from a stock at a 1:20 ratio?
a. 1.3 fl oz
b. 3.3 fl oz
c. 5.3 fl oz
d. 7.3 fl oz
e. 9.3 fl oz
5.3 fl oz
Nonselective β-adrenergic blockers may be associated with the following adverse effects EXCEPT
a. bradycardia
b. sedation
c. bronchoconstriction is asthmatic patients
d. AV-block
e. hypertension
hypertension
The drug of choice for treatment of drug-induced sinus bradycardia is
a. lidocaine
b. dopamine
c. digitalis
d. atropine
e. epinephrine
atropine
Which of the following muscle relaxants is MOST likely to be associated with hypotension?
a. succinylcholine
b. pancuronium
c. vecuronium
d. d-tubocurarine
d-tubocurarine
Prescription orders for schedule II drugs must be limited to a 14-day supply and cannot be refilled. T/F
False
Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use for anticholinergic drugs?
a. antispasmodic in colic
b. cycloplegic in opthamology
c. antimotion sickness
d. antihypertensives
e. antidote for organophosphate poisoning
antihypertensives
What is the drug of choice in the immediate treatment of anaphylactic shock?
epinephrine
Which of the following muscle relaxants can increase intraocular pressure?
a. tubocurarine
b. succinylcholine
c. pancuronium
d. vecuronium
e. atracurium
succinylcholine
The MOST common adverse effect due to injection of phenothiazine derivatives is
hypotension
Opioid analgesics have the following uses EXCEPT
a. preanesthetics
b. antitussives
c. antiemetics
d. antidiarrheals
e. epidural analgesics
antiemetics
All of the following drugs are clinically used as opioid antagonists EXCEPT
a. naloxone
b. buprenorphine
c. natrexone
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine
buprenorphine
Which of the following drugs is MOST likely to be used to limit or prevent NSAID-induced gastrointestinal tract mucosal inury?
a. atropine
b. glycopyrrolate
c. chlorpromazine
d. misoprostol
e. acetylcysteine
misoprostol
Treatment of organophosphate poisoning includes all of the following EXCEPT
a. atropine
b. 2-PAM
c. succinylcholine
d. activated charcoal
e. artificial respiration
succinylcholine
Which of the following mydriatic anticholinergic drugs has the SHORTEST duration of action?
a. atropine
b. cyclopentolate
c. scopolamine
d. tropicamide
e. homatropine
tropicamide
Phenothiazine derivatives cause CNS depression mainly by
blocking dopamine excitatory receptors
You want to administer triamcinolone acetonide (Cortalone tablets) orally to a cat weighing 10 lbs for 2 weeks. How many tablets do you need if the daily dosage is 0.1 mg/lb and each tablet contains 1/130 gr. triacinolone acetonide?
a. 7 tablets
b. 14 tablets
c. 28 tablets
d. 42 tablets
e. 56 tablets
28 tablets
You wish to prepare chlorhexidine disinfectant solution at 0.015%. How much approximately do you need from chlorhexidine disinfectant solution 2% to add it to water to make 1 gallon of 0.015% chlorhexidine solution?
a. 0.25 fl oz
b. 0.5 fl oz
c. 1 fl oz
d. 2 fl oz
e. 4 fl oz
1 fl oz
Drug conjugates are usually water soluble and inactive. T/F
True
Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of flunixin in the horse?
a. analgesic for musculoskeletal pain
b. antipyretic
c. analgesic for colic
d. endotoxic and septic shock
e. bronchodilator for obstructive airway disease
bronchodilator for obstructive airway disease
At therapeutic doses, which of the following CNS depressants are LEAST likely to cause cardiovascular and respiratory depression?
a. barbiturates
b. opioid analgesics
c. phenothiazines
d. benzodiazepines
e. butyrophenones
benzodiazepines
Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be used to treat toxicity of opioid analgesics?
a. naloxone
b. levallorphan
c. buprenorphine
d. diprenorphine
e. nalorphine
buprenorphine
Anesthesia by dissociative anesthetics is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
a. rapid induction and slow recovery
b. duration of anesthesia about 20-45 min
c. catalepsy
d. CNS stimulation
e. complete loss of reflexes
complete loss of reflexes
You want to make 2 quarts of an insecticide at 0.5%. How many fl oz would you need from a stock of the insecticide at 1:20 ratio to add to water to make 0.5% insecticide solution?
a. 2.2 fl oz
b. 3.3 fl oz
c. 6.6 fl oz
d. 8.8 fl oz
e. 9.9 fl oz
6.6 fl oz
You wish to administer amoxicillin to a dog weighing 10 kg at a dose of 5 mg/lb of body weight orally twice daily for 7 days. How much approximately would you need if 15 mL bottle of amoxicillin suspension contains 0.75 g amoxicillin as trihydrate?
a. 0.25 fl oz
b. 0.5 fl oz
c. 1.0 fl oz
d. 2.0 fl oz
e. 4.o fl oz
1.0 fl oz
A highly ionized drug can achieve high concentrations in which of the following?
a. brain
b. fetus
c. intracellular
d. interstitial fluid
e. milk
interstitial fluid
All of the following are therapeutic uses of β-blockers EXCEPT
a. hypertension
b. hyperthyroidism
c. ventricular tachyarrhythmias
d. glaucoma
e. urinary incontinence
urinary incontinence
All of the following statements about codeine are true EXCEPT
a. it acts as an opioid agonist
b. it is more potent analgesic than morphine
c. it is used as an oral antitussive and analgesic in dogs
d. it may cause histamine release
e. it has a sedative effect
it is more potent than morphine
Adverse effects of phenothiazine derivatives include all of the following EXCEPT
a. bradycardia
b. hypotension
c. penile paralysis of the horse
d. sedation
e. GI hypermotility
GI hypermotility
Hyperprolactinemia is an adverse effect of
phenothiazines
A dog showing convulsive seizures following ingestion of a toxic amount of chocolate is BEST treated with
a. acepromazine
b. diazepam
c. ketamine
d. phenobarbital
e. pancuronium
phenobarbital
All of the following statements about pharmacokinetics of barbiturates are true EXCEPT
a. they are administered IV and orally
b. duration of action depends on redistribution and eliminiation
c. they are metabolized by hydroxylation in the liver
d. they are enzyme inducers
e. acidification of urine enhances renal excretion
acidification of urine enhances renal excretion
All of the following statements about succinylcholine are true EXCEPT
a. its actions on skeletal muscle are similar to the actions of ACh
b. it has a short duration of action
c. it does not cross the blood-brain barrier
d. it potentiates the actions of catecholamines on the heart during inhalation anesthesia
e. its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine
its toxicity can be antagonized with neostigmine
All of the following are useful effects of theophylline in the treatment of respiratory disease EXCEPT
a. bronchodilation
b. anti-inflammatory
c. inhibition of the cough center
d. stimulating mucociliary clearance
e. reducing pulmonary edema
inhibition of the cough center
All of the following statements about xylazine are true EXCEPT
a. it has sedative, analgesic, and muscle relaxant effects
b. it may induce vomiting in cats and dogs
c. as a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias
d. it depresses the CNS by activating α2-adrenergic receptors
e. it is antagonized by yohimbine
as a preanesthetic, it may protect against epinephrine-induced cardiac arrhythmias
All of the following statements about primidone are true EXCEPT
a. it is not a controlled drug
b. it is metabolized to phenobarbital and other metabolites
c. it is an enzyme inducer
d. it is used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats
e. chronic use may cause hepatotoxicity
it is used in maintenance therapy of epilepsy in dogs and cats
Which of the following drugs provides mild analgesia without sedation?
a. xylazine
b. morphine
c. flunixin meglumine
d. detomidine
e. butorphanol
flunixin meglumine
All of the following are therapeutic uses of epinephrine EXCEPT
a. acute anaphylactic shock
b. bronchospasm
c. cardiac arrest
d. open-angle glaucoma
e. hemorrhagic shock
hemorrhagic shock
α2-selective agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. bronchodilation
b. hyperkalemia
c. tachycardia at large doses
d. skeletal muscle tremors
e. uterine relaxation
hyperkalemia
Prescriptions for controlled substances in Schedule II must be limited to how many days supply?
34
Which of the following statements about idiosyncratic drug relations is LEAST accurate?
a. they are genetically determined reactions
b. they are unpredictable
c. they are dose-dependent
d. they are caused by reactive drug metabolites (RDMs)
e. they usually involve the immune system
they are dose dependent
You want to make half a gallon of an antiseptic solution at a ratio of 1:20. How many fl oz would you need from a stock at a ratio of 1:5 to add to water to make a half gallon 1:20?
a. 8.7 fl oz
b. 12.7 fl oz
c. 16.7 fl oz
d. 20.7 fl oz
e. 24.7 fl oz
16.7 fl oz
All of the following matches between a preanesthetic agent and one of its actions are true EXCEPT
a. glycopyrrolate - inhibits salivary secretion
b. butorphanol - reduces the MAC of the anesthetic
c. thiopental - shortens induction
d. acepromazine - reduces postanesthetic pain
e. doperidol/fentanyl - protects against epinephrine-induced arrhythmias
acepromazine - reduces postanesthetic pain
Which of the following concerning nitrous oxide is TRUE?
a. it is a potent anesthetic
b. it has a potent muscle relaxant effect
c. it does not have any significant analgesic effect
d. it has a relatively low blood/gas partition coefficient
e. it is metabolized in the liver to toxic metabolites
it has a relatively low blood/gas partition coefficient
The passage of drugs into the glomerular filtrate depends MAINLY on the pKa of the drug and if the drug is a weak acid or a weak base. T/F
False
α2-adrenergic agonists have all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. sedative
b. hypnotic
c. muscle relaxant
d. analgesic
e. neuroleptic
sedative
Which of the following statements concerning propofol is LEAST accurate?
a. it is a nonbarbiturate IV anesthetic
b. it is insoluble in water and is available as an aqueous emulsion
c. it has a potent analgesic effect
d. it produces insignificant cardiovascular effects at therapeutic doses
e. it has wider safety margin than barbiturates
it has a potent analgesic effect
Which of the following adverse drug reactions (ADRs) is unpredictable?
a. overdose
b. side effect
c. drug-drug interactions
d. adverse effects
e. idiosyncrasy
idiosyncrasy
Which of the following is LEAST likely a therapeutic use of atropine?
a. Cycloplegic agent
b. antidote for poisonous mushroom
c. antispasmodic for colic
d. treatment of motion sickness
e. treatment of cholinesterase inhibitor toxicuty
treatment of motion sickness
Which of the following drugs is MOST effective in antagonizing the effects of atropine?
a. pilocarpine
b. neostigmine
c. pyridostigmine
d. physostigmine
e. epinephrine
physostigmine
Bethanecol has the following attributes EXCEPT
a. it is a synthetic choline ester
b. it is not inactivated by cholinesterase
c. it has both muscarinic and nicotinic effects
d. it is mainly used to treat urinary bladder atony
e. it is less potent than ACh on the cardiovascular system
it has both muscarinic and nicotinic effects
Which of the following is LEAST likely a contraindication of epinephrine?
a. preanesthetic with halothane
b. hyperthyroidism
c. tachycardia
d. diabetes mellitus
e. peptic ulcer
peptic ulcer
***Pilocarpine is preferred in the treatment of glaucoma because
a. it has a short duration of action due to rapid inactivation by cholinesterases
b. it does not cause blurring of vision as a side effect
c. it does not have CNS side effects at large doses due to its poor penetration of the BBB
d. it reduces production of aqueous humor
e. it is a very effective miotic agent and has a rapid onset
it is a very effective miotic agent and has a rapid onset
The agent MOST likely to increase renal blood flow is
a. epinephrine
b. dobutamine
c. norepinephrine
d. dopamine
e. atropine
dopamine
Isoproterenol produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. positive inotropic effect
b. uterine relaxation
c. mydriasis
d. ventricular arrhythmias
e. vasodilation
mydriasis
Which of the following drugs is more rapidly absorbed, has a shorter duration of action and is more useful for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a. physostigmine
b. neostigmine
c. edrophonium
d. pyridostigmine
e. isoflurophate
edrophonium
Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is a ganglionic blocker?
a. pirenzepine
b. scopolamine
c. glycopyrrolate
d. atropine
e. propantheline
pirenzepine
Which of the following is LEAST likely an adverse effect of atropine?
a. loss of accommodation to near vision
b. xerostomia
c. tachycardia
d. significant hypertension
e. urine retention
significan hypertension
Atropine is used in the treatment of organophosphate insecticide poisoning because it
a. stimulates alpha-adrenergic receptors
b. reactivates inhibited acetylcholinesterase
c. is a physiological antagonist to ACh
d. is a noncompetitive antagonist to ACh
e. is competitive antagonist to ACh
is competitive antagonist to ACh
Norepinephrine produces all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. increase in systolic pressure
b. increase in diastolic pressure
c. hyperglycemia
d. increase in renal blood flow
e. contraction of the sphincter of the urinary bladder
increase in renal blood flow
Epinephrine and atropine in therapeutic doses, share the following effects EXCEPT
a. they cause mydriasis
b. they markedly increase blood pressure
c. they cause urine retention
d. they may cause tachycardia
e. they inhibit GI motility
they markedly increase blood pressure
Which of the following drugs is LEAST likely to be used in the treatment of acute glaucoma?
a. pilocarpine
b. epinephrine
c. physostigmine
d. isoflurophate
e. carbachol
epinephrine
The MOST effective drug for the treatment of malignant hyperthermia caused by inhalation anesthesia is
a. Guaifenesin
b. Dantrolene
c. Methocarbamol
d. Diazepam
e. Droperidol
dantrolene
Which of the following muscle relaxants is the drug of choice in liver or kidney disease patients
a. Succinylcholine
b. Tubocurarine
c. Atracurium
d. Pancuronium
e. Vecuronium
atracurium
The best reversal drug for Dexmedetomidine is
a. Atipamezole
b. Naloxone
c. Flumazenil
d. Yohimbine
e. Tolazasin
atipamezole
The MOST commonly used anticholinergic drug as a bronchodilaor in the treament of bronchial asthma is
a. Atropine
b. Glycopyrrolate
c. Scopolamine
d. Ipratropium
e. Albuterol
ipratropium
Adverse effects of most general anesthetics include all but:
a. hypertension
b. hypothermia
c. decreased ventilation
d. arelfexia
e. Increased ICP
hypertension
Which of the following drugs is used as a bronchodilator without causing direct action on the heart
a. Isoproteronol
b. Epinephrine
c. Aminophylline
d. Terbutaline
e. Ipratropium
terbutaline
Which of the following statements about succinylcholine is TRUE
a. Competitive NMB
b. Wide Safety Margin
c. Causes Hypertension
d. Neostigmine is Antidote
e. 1-2 hour DOA
causes hypertension
Which of the following drugs acts by interferring with electromechanical coupling n the muscle cell by inhibiting calcium release from the sacrcoplasmic reticulum
a. Pancuronium
b. Succinylcholine
c. Gallamine
d. Diazepam
e. Dantrolene
dantrolene
Which of the following become less effective with repeated dosings
a. Atropine
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Ephedrine
ephedrine
Tubocurarine may produce all of the following effects EXCEPT
a. Ganglionic blockade
b. Sedation
c. Histamine release
d. Respiratory Depression
e. Hypotension
sedation
Your anesthetizing a dog with Thiopental, what is the best route of administration
a. IM
b. IV
c. SQ
d. PO
e. IP
IV
The therapeutic index of a drug is
a relative measure of the safety of the drug
Treating a dog with hypovolemic shock, what is the best drug therapy and route
a. Dopamine IV
b. Prazosin IV
c. Phenylephrine IM
d. Atropine IM
e. Doxapram IV
dopamine IV
Diazepam has an LD(50) = 100 and ED(50) = 5, where as Potassium bromide has LD(50) = 50 and ED(50) = 2. Which drug is safer to use in a patient with sever cholangiohepatitis?
KBr
TI =
LD(50)/ED(50)
Which is correct about plasma protein binding of drugs
a. Is irreversible
b. Globulins bound more than Albumin
c. If bound are readily metabolized
d. Binding increases their concentration in tissue
e. Strongly bound displace weakly bound to increase effect
strongly bound displace weakly bound to increase effect
Microsomal enzyme induction:
a. Like cimetidine increase half life of drugs
b. Is irreversible when using chloramphenicol
c. Is always associated with hydrophilic drugs like ketoconazole
d. May result in tolerance like with phenylephrine
e. Increases plasma protein binding warfarin
may result in tolerance like with phenylephrine
Phenylephrine is known to produce a certain phenomena that is associated with this effect on receptors
a. Up-Regulation
b. Down-Regulation
c. Summation
d. Synergism
e. None of the above
down-regulation
Which of the following is paired correctly as far as drug to receptor type
a. Morphine=Antagonist
b. Bupenorphine=Full
c. Fentanyl=Partial
d. Butorphanol=Mixed
e. Naloxone=Inverse
butorphanol = mixed
Which of the following exhibits a ceiling effect?
a. Buprenorphine
b. Butorphanol
c. Tramadol
d. A + C
e. All of the above
A + C
Volume of distribution is measured by
L/kg
Which is correct about half life
a. Constant in Zero order kinetics
b. Does not account for body clearance
c. Uses the constant k=0.963
d. Dose dependant in 1st order kinetics
e. Is independent of dose in first order kinetics
is independent of dose in first order kinetics
All of the following will increase absorption time of Sevoflurane except
a. Increased alveolar blood flow
b. Interstitial pneumonia
c. Decreased respiration rate
d. Pulmonary edema
e. Pulmonary Thromboembolism
increased alveolar blood flow
Which of the following pairs is best suited for the use in chronic treatment of epilepsy and a possible agent to increase renal excretion if overdosed?
a. Phenobarbital / Ammonium chloride
b. Potassium bromide / Methionine
c. Thiopental / Ammonium chloride
d. Diazepam / Flumazenil
e. Phenobarbital / Sodium Bicarb
phenobarbital/sodium bicarbonate
Which of the following drugs causes peripheral vasodilation by inhibiting renin release from the juxtaglomerular apparatus of the kidney
a. Prazosin
b. Phenoxybenzamine
c. Isoproteronol
d. Phenylpropanolamin
e. Propranolol
propranolol
A drug used for treatment of urinary incontinence is
a. Neostigmine
b. Terbutaline
c. Phenoxybenzamine
d. Pseudoephedrine
e. Prazosin
pseudoephedrine
Which anesthetic can cause malignant hyperthermia and what would be used to treat it:
a. Isoflurane/Flumazenil
b. Methoxyflurane/2-PAM
c. Sevoflurane/Naloxone
d. Desflurane/Yohimbine
e. Halothane/Dantrolene
halothane/dantrolene
Which of the following drugs causes mydriasis without cycloplegia?
a. Atropine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Neostigmine
d. Epinephrine
e. Phenylephrine
phenylephrine
Epinephrine and dopamine share the following EXCEPT
a. Ineffective Orally
b. Short Duration
c. Stimulate the Heart
d. Increase GFR
e. Tx of anaphylaxis
increase GFR
The first clinical signs in organophosphate poisoning are MAINLY due to
muscarinic stimulation
All of the following is true about Doxapram except
a. Cause seizures at large dose
b. Respiration decrease in neonate
c. Reverses depressant effects of acepromazine
d. Large doses to medulla cause clonic seizure
respiration decrease in neonate
The Best antidote for acetominophen toxicity is
acetylcysteine