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During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
2,000 feet
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
3 miles
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
1,000 feet
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
5 miles.
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
1 mile.
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
1,000 feet.
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of the clouds
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
3 miles.
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AFL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is
1 mile.
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is
500 feet.
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles.
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
1 mile flight visibility
What are the minimum requirements for an airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
No person may operate an airplane within class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
Air Traffic Control Tower
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
Odd thousandths plus 500 feet
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
5,500 feet
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
4,500 feet
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on
magnetic course of 0 through 179 degrees
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
Normal, utility, acrobatic
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate
over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Flight over a densely populated area.
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight
except by prior arrangement with the PIC of each aircraft.
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons property or property on the surface.
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 knots
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
200 knots
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is
200 knots
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
owner or operator.
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a
review of the maintenance records.
the responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
owner or operator.
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
owner or operator.
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than
July 31, next year.
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the
aircraft maintenance records.
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding
24 calendar months.
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2006. The next inspection will be due no later than
September 30, 2008
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.7
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Private or Commercial Pilot
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated
with passengers aboard.
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a
private pilot certificate.
An aircraft had a 100 hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100 hour inspection due?
1359.6 hours
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft Maintenance Records
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives? (ADs)
They are mandatory.
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an AD?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
Who is responsible for ensuring ADs are complied with?
Owner or operator.
What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication?
Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by
ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
60
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airspace are issued under which subject number?
70
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to ATC and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
90
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in a substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified
immediately.
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
An in-flight fire.
Which incident requires an immediate notification made to the nearest NTSB field office?
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
10
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB
when requested.
Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished
the same as during daytime.
The numbers 9 and 27on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately
090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic.
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
Indicates designation an direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations program?
Student pilots
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance?
PIC
when should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance?
When it will compromise safety
Where is the "Available Landing Distance" ALD data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
Special Notices Section of the A/FD.
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a LAHSO clearance?
3 statute miles.
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
Denotes intersecting runways.
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to take off runways.
An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
blue omnidirectional lights
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it
five times within five seconds.
A lighted heliport may be identified by a
green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
an amber light signal
An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is
a green light signal
A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
pulsating red light
While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
When approaching to land on a runway served by VASI, the pilot shall
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
three white lights and one red light.
A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a
red light signal.
When taxiing with strong, quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.
Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high-wing airplane?
Quartering tailwind.
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the
longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
Airport Facility Directory
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during
that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of
15,000 feet MSL
Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in
loss of muscular power
Which statement best defines hypoxia?
A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.
When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as
hyperventilation
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.
A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by
slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.
Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as
altitude increases
The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by
having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.
A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as
spatial disorientation.
Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if
visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions. (IMC)
If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to
rely upon the aircraft instrument indicators.
What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?
Scud running
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?
Follow the rules.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "impulsivity?"
Not so fast, think first.
Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?
Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability
in the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?
Recognizing hazardous thoughts.
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?
Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as invulnerability?
it could happen to me.
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "macho"?
Taking chances is foolish
What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude such as "resignation"?
I am not helpless
Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?
The pilot
what is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?
Human error
What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under VFR?
Continual flight in instrument conditions.
What is one of the negated items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?
Checklists
Most midair collision accidents occur during
clear days
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?
All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degree sector
Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
What preparation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?
Avoid bright white lights for at least 30 mins before the flight.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to
look to the side of the object and scan slowly
the most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
sunset to sunrise
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within
10 miles of any airport.
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light, and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a
heat exchange
What causes variations in altimeter settings between weather reporting points?
Unequal heating of the Earth's surface
The wind at 5,000 feet AGL is southwesterly while the surface wind is southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to
friction between the wind and the surface.
Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by
cool, dense, air moving inland over the water.
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
What is meant by the term "dewpoint"?
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
air temperature
Clouds, fog, or dew, will always form when
water vapor condenses.
What are the processes by which moisture is added to unsaturated air?
Evaporation and sublimation
If the temperature/dewpoint spread is small and decreasing, and the temperature is 62 degrees F, what type weather is most likely to develop?
Fog or low clouds.
The boundary between two different air masses is referred to as a
front
On of the most easily recognized discontinuities across a front is
a change in temperature
One weather phenomenon which will always occur when flying across a front is a change in the
wind direction
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?
smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds
What measurement can be used to determine the stability of the atmosphere?
Actual lapse rate
What would decrease the stability of an air mass?
Warming from below
What is a characteristic of stable air?
Stratiform clouds
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
a stable layer of air
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
Cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation
What are characteristics of unstable air?
Turbulence and good surface visibility
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
Poor surface visibility
Moist, stable air flowing upslope can be expected to
produce stratus type clouds
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type of clouds can be expected?
Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated turbulence
Steady precipitation preceding a front is an indication of
stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.
The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and
unstable, moist air
What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the surface air temperature at 1,000 feet MSL is 70 degrees F and the dewpoint is 48 degrees F?
6,000 feet MSL
At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temp. is 82 degrees F and the dewpoint is 38 degrees F?
10,000 feet AGL
The suffix "nimbus" used in naming clouds means
a rain cloud
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
height range
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Cumulonimbus
An almond, or lens shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as a
lenticular cloud
Crests of standing mountain waves may be marked by stationary, lens-shaped clouds known as
standing lenticular clouds.
What cloud types would indicate convective turbulence?
Towering cumulus clouds.
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable.
Upon encountering severe turbulence, which flight condition should the pilot attempt to maintain?
Level flight attitude.
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Continuous updraft.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
Precipitation beginning to fall
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions.
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
dissipating
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
mature stage
Thunderstorms which generally produce the most intense hazard to aircraft are
squall line thunderstorms
A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is known as the
squall line
If there is thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of an airport at which you plan to land, which hazardous atmospheric phenomenon might be expected on the landing approach?
Wind shear turbulence
Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?
Lightning
Where does wind shear occur?
At all altitudes, in all directions.
When may hazardous wind shear be expected?
in areas of low level temperature inversion, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least
25 knots
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that there
is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude.
One in flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
visible moisture
In which environment is aircraft structural ice most likely to have the highest accumulation rate?
Freezing rain
During an IFR cross country flight, you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. you are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are at 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temp. is 3 degrees celsius. You decide to:
use a faster than normal approach and landing speed.
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights
in which situation is advection fog most likely to form?
An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.
What types of fog depend on wind in order to exist?
Advection fog and upslope fog.
Low level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
Steam fog
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing
How does frost affect the lifting surfaces of an airplane on takeoff?
Frost may prevent the airplane from becoming airborne at normal takeoff speed.
How will frost on the wings of an airplane affect takeoff performance?
Frost will disrupt the smooth flow of air over the wing, adversely affecting its lifting capability.
Why is frost considered hazardous to flight?
Frost spoils the smooth flow of air over the wings, thereby decreasing lifting capability.
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
lowest broken or overcast layer or vertical visibility into an obscuration.
From which primary source should information be obtained regarding expected weather at the estimated time of arrival if your destination has no Terminal Forecast?
Area Forecast
To best determine general forecast weather conditions over several states, the pilot should refer to
Aviation Area Forecasts
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, the pilot should refer to the
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories
The section of the Area Forecast entitled "VFR CLDS/WX" contains a general description of
clouds and weather which cover an area greater than 3,000 square miles and is significant to VFR flight operations.
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
true direction and knots
When the term light and variable is used in a reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
9900 and less than 5 knots
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
location of precipitation along with type, intensity, and cell movement of precipitation.
What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?
Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.
What does the heavy dashed line that forms a large rectangular box on a radar summary chart refer to?
Severe weather watch area
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers.
What info is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?
Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.
SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions hazardous to which aircraft/
all aircraft
Which in flight advisory would contain information on severe icing not associated with thunderstorms?
SIGMET
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather or phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
All pilots
What service should a pilot normally expect from an En Route Flight Advisory Service station?
Actual weather info and thunderstorm activity along the route
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather info, pilots should state
whether they intend to fly VFR only.
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
a standard briefing.
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather info has been received?
Standard briefing
Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
An abbreviated briefing.
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request
an abbreviated briefing
A weather briefing that is provided when the information requested is 6 or more hours in advance of the proposed departure time is
an outlook briefing
when requesting weather info for the following morning, a pilot should request
an outlook briefing
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather info?
the intended route of flight and destination
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information/
Identify themselves as pilots
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather info, pilots should state
the aircraft identification or the pilots name
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?
Unusable fuel and undrainable oil
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
18.4 gallons
if an aircraft is loaded 90 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight and fuel is drained to bring the aircraft within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
15 gallons
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
higher than pressure altitude
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
15 degrees C and 29.92" HG
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
An increase in ambient temperature
Which combination of atmospheric conditions will reduce aircraft takeoff and climb performance?
High temperature, high relative humidity, and high density altitude.
What effect does high density altitude have on aircraft performance?
It reduces climb performance.
What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?
It decreases performance.
What effect does high density altitude, as compared to low density altitude, have on propeller efficiency and why?
Efficiency is reduced because the propeller exerts less force at high density altitudes than at low density altitudes.
Which statement about longitude and latitude is true?
Lines of longitude cross the equator at right angles
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
If a true heading of 135 degrees results in a ground track of 130 degrees and a true airspeed of 135 knots results in a groundspeed of 140 knots, the wind would be from
246 degrees and 13 knots
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should
add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.
How far will an aircraft travel in 2-1/2 minutes with a groundspeed of 98 knots?
4.08 NM
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certification or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
Private Pilot Certification or Student Pilot Certificate3 with appropriate logbook endorsements.
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
A blue segmented circle on a Sectional Chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D
Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
when the associated control tower is in operation
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
primary airport's control tower.
Two-way radio communications must be established with the ATC facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
Class C
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
4,000 feet AGL
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
20 NM
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a 4096 code transponder with Mode C encoding capability
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096 code transponder, and an encoding altimeter
Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least
1,000 feet and 3 miles
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landings or takeoffs
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is
4 NM
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from
1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
18,000 feet MSL
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a a restricted area?
With the controlling agency's authorization
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
received prior authorization from the controlling agency
What action should a pilot take when operating under VFR in a Military Operations Area? (MOA)
Exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
all pilots
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot should
contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than
2,000 feet AGL
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
Class A
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Execute gentle banks, left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace
When the course deviation indicator (CDI) needle is centered during an omnireceiver check using a VOR test signal (VOT), the omnibearing selector (OBS) and the TO/FROM indicator should read
0 degrees FROM or 180 degrees TO, regardless of the pilot's position from the VOT
How many satellites make up the Global Positioning System? (GPS)
24
What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on Earth?
5
How many GPS satellites are required to yield a 3D position (longitude, latitude, and altitude) and time solution?
4
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
ONE ZERO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
How should contact be established with an En Route Flight Advisory Service (EFAS) station, and what service would be expected?
Call Flight Watch on 122.0 for information regarding actual weather and thunderstorm activity along proposed route.
Below FL 180, en route weather advisories should be obtained from an FSS on
122.0 MHz
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
Airport Advisory Service
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersection
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
10 miles
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
noncontrol information is selected in high-activity terminal areas
Select the UNICOM frequencies normally assigned to stations at landing areas used exclusively at heliports.
123.05 and 123.075 MHz
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
When advised by the tower to do so
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot is
clear to land.
An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
exercise extreme caution.
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
Flashing green
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
steady red.
A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
return to the starting point on the airport.
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a
VHF transmitter and receiver.
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that
the FSS has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.
When ATC issues radar traffic info in relation to the 12 hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
ground track
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090 degrees "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND" where should the pilot look for this traffic?
south
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 degrees "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND" Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Northwest
TRSA service in the terminal radar program provides
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTH BOUND" Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
West
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
Ground control, on initial contact
An operable 4096 code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary Airport), and Class C
An operable 4096 code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200
When operating the transponder on the VFR code (1200), what is the minimum mode the transponder must be in?
Mode A
If ATC advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
1200
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096 code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
121.5 and 406 MHz
When must batteries in an ELT be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an ELT required to be replaced?
When 50 percent of their useful life expires
When must the battery in an ELT be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)?
After one half the battery's useful life
When may an ELT be tested?
During the first 5 minutes after the hour.
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the ELT has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown.