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APII - All Study Guides - Embry
Terms in this set (198)
T/F: Hormones are chemical messengers that are transported by the bloodstream and stimulate physiological responses in cells of another tissue or organ.
Match abbreviation to function
1: ADH = stimulates water retention
2: ACTH = stimulates secretion of anti-stress hormone
3: PRL = stimulates milk synthesis
4: TRH = stimulated production of TSH and PRL
5: LH = stimulates ovulation
Target organs regulate the pituitary through feedback loops. Most often, this is in the form of _________
Negative Feedback Inhibition
Match the disease with the homeostatic imbalance
1: Graves = Thyroid hypertrophy and hypersecretion
2: Cushing = Excess cortisol secretion
3: Addison = Hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids
4: Pheochromocytoma = Excess epinephrine secretion
5: Myxedema = Prolonged adult hypothyroidism
6: Hyperparathyroidism = Excess PTH secretion
When cells cannot absorb glucose, they must get their energy someplace else, and, in turn, they metabolize fat and protein. In time, this leads to ____
a condition called ketoacidosis, causing deep, gasping breathing
After eating a meal, blood sugar levels ______
After a meal is eaten by a person who does not have diabetes, insulin is released and will cause blood sugar levels to _______
return to about normal
In Type-I diabetes, blood sugar levels remain high after a meal because ____
no insulin is released
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released by the _____
Which of the following is a function of ADH?
Decrease urine volume output and cause blood-vessel constriction
hormone or description into the appropriate category to identify which organ secretes it
1: Adipose Tissue
1: Adipose tissue: secretes leptin, which has long-term appetite-regulating affects
2: Heart: secretes natriuretic peptide to lower blood pressure
3: Stomach: secretes gastrin, which stimulates hydrochloric acid production
4: Intestines: secrete peptide YY, a hormone that suppresses the appetite
5:Liver: secretes angiotensin and erythropoietin
T/F: ADH helps to conserve water during dehydration
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the _______
Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via _______
Negative Feedback Inhibition
Growth hormone (GH) hypersecretion causes gigantism when it begins in childhood, but it is more likely to cause __________ when it begins in adulthood.
Of the following hormones, which has more target cells in the body than the others?
The __________ secrete(s) a hormone as a response to hypocalcemia.
The absence of iodine in the diet leads to _______
How do the kidneys regulate blood volume and blood?
by regulating water output
What is the order of urine-collecting structures found within the kidney?
Minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter
When there is a drop in blood pressure, the juxtaglomerular cells respond by secreting which of the following?
A friend confides in you that she's recently started taking a calcium supplement but then started having very painful urination. You suggest she go to a doctor to get checked for which of the following?
The process of urination, or voiding urine, is called ___
The __________ cell carries the chromosome that determines the sex of the zygote.
An inability to achieve an erection in response to direct genital stimulation may be due to damage to the _____
parasympathetic fibers of S2 to S4
Men have only one _____
Why would an enlarged prostate interfere with urination?
it compresses the urethra
Which hormone suppresses spermatogenesis without affecting testosterone secretion
Which of the following is not a change in the male body that results from puberty?
a: Deepening of the voice
b: Gain in muscle mass
c: Growth of the scrotum and penis
e: These are all changes associated with male puberty
e: These are all changes associated with male puberty
Male infertility (sterility) refers to ____
the inability to fertilize and egg
List the organs of the male reproductive system
testes, penis, prostate, scrotum, seminal vesicles, vas deferans
List the organs of the female reproductive system
ovary, vagina, uterus, uterine tube, cervix, labium majus
Place the following structures found in the male pelvis in order from posterior to anterior.
Coccyx, rectum, prostate, pubic symphysis
Place the following structures of the male reproductive tract in order of how sperm passes through them to the external environment.
Seminiferous tubule, epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory ducts, urethra
How many sperm are produced in the testes each day?
Rank each of the following events of the ovarian cycle in chronological order using #1 to identify the earliest event.
1: The follicular phase begins. (event 1)
2: FSH stimulates the maturation of follicles.
3: Estradiol increases the dominant follicle's sensitivity to the gonadotropins.
4: FSH secretion diminishes, and non-dominant follicles degenerate.
5: A surge in LH stimulates the primary oocyte in the dominant follicle to complete meiosis I.
6: The secondary oocyte is formed, and the dominant follicle ruptures (ovulation).
7: The follicle collapses and bleeds and becomes the corpus luteum.
8: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone helping to prepare the uterus for a possible fertilization. (event 8)
Match each hormone with its effect on the female reproductive system.
1 = GnRH: stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to secrete LH and FSH
2 = Inhibin: selectively suppresses FSH secretion
3 = Estrogen: stimulates feminizing effects associated with female puberty
4 = LH: stimulates ovulation
5 = FSH: stimulates the development of the ovarian follicles
6 = Progesterone: prepares the uterus for a possible pregnancy
After puberty, which epithelium lines the vagina?
Stratified squamous epithelium
Name the phases of the menstrual cycle
First phase: menstrual phase (days 1-5)
Second phase(pictured below): proliferative phase (days 6-14)
Third phase: secretory phase (days 15-28)
Name the phases of the ovarian cycle
follicular phase (first phase)
Ovulation occurs in the middle (around day 14)
luteal phase (second phase)
Where does sperm generally fertilize an egg?
Distal 1/3 of the uterine tube
Which structure performs excretory, nutritional, endocrine, and immune functions for the fetus?
In which process do the germ layers differentiate into organs and organ systems?
During development, an individual is known as what from the beginning of the ninth week through birth?
What is senescence?
Degeneration in an organ system that occurs with aging
What is a developing individual from the sixteenth day of gestation referred to as?
The normal gestation period for a single (non-twin) baby is how many weeks?
What is an infant up to 6 weeks old called?
The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.
A few days before ovulation to less than a day after
By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, it consists of at least __________ or more cells
__________ pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood. Fetal __________ pass(es) the other way.
Oxygen and nutrients; waste
Which of the following is not considered an embryonic membrane?
Which of the following is not a derivative of ectoderm?
By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because __________.
All of the organ systems are present
Which of the following major events of prenatal development happens first?
The central nervous system begins to form
In fetal circulation, the __________ bypasses the liver and the __________ bypasses the lungs.
Ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus
Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is caused by __________.
Deficiency of pulmonary surfactant
Urine retention is a greater problem for elderly men than for elderly women because men __________.
Can develop benign prostatic hyperplasia
Which layer gives rise to the mesenchyme
Which layer develops into skin
Ambion encloses a space containing a fluid derived from what
Filtration of the mother's blood and fetal urine
Where are the first blood cells formed?
A segment of DNA that codes for the production of a molecule of RNA is known as a(n) _______
A version of a trait that requires a homozygous genotype for expression is called a _____
UV radiation can cause changes to the DNA sequence known as ____
Hemophilia is caused by a sex-linked recessive allele. This means that ___
A son who has hemophilia inherited the allele from his mother
Which of these is not found in the karyotype of a normal human male?
All of the body's nonreproductive cells, called __________, usually have 23 pairs of chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells.
Somatic cells; diploid
In familial hypercholesterolemia, individuals with two abnormal alleles die of heart attacks in childhood, those with only one abnormal allele typically die as young adults, and those with two normal alleles have normal life expectancies. This exemplifies ______
Germ cells have __________ unpaired chromosomes and are thus called __________ cells
Eye color is caused by genes at multiple loci. This phenomenon is called _____
A mutation is
A change in DNA structure that might be beneficial, harmful, or neutral
If one allele is not phenotypically expressed in the presence of another, we say that it is a __________ allele.
The allele for cleft chin (C) is dominant to the allele for uncleft chin (c). A male and female who are both heterozygous for cleft chin have a child. What is the chance that this child will have an uncleft chin?
A karyotype shows the __________ chromosomes sorted and isolated from a cell in _____
The __________ cell carries the chromosome that determines the sex of the zygote
Whether an organism will be genetically male or female is determined by _______
Where would the majority of the DNA be located within a eukaryotic cell?
The first step in DNA isolation is called ________. It refers to the process of releasing DNA from the cells.
In the DNA isolation process, detergent was used to
Emulsify cellular and nuclear membranes
DNA can be collected on a glass rod in a technique called
How does the DNA rate of travel differ for small DNA fragments and large DNA fragments?
Small fragments travel farther than large fragments
Oxygen-poor blood passes through the _________.
Right AV (tricuspid) and pulmonary valves
The __________ carry blood toward the lungs.
Pulmonary trunk and arteries
Which of the following blood vessels receives blood directly from the right ventricle?
An obstruction in which of the following will cause the most severe myocardial infarction (MI)?
Left coronary artery (LCA)
Which of the following is a feature shared by cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle?
Muscle fiber striations
An extended period of time between the P wave and the QRS complex may indicate which of the following?
The signal is taking too long to get to the AV node
Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the __________ when the ventricles contract.
When the ventricles relax, the __________ valve prevents backflow of blood into the left ventricle.
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle __________.
Can cause systemic edema
Assume that the left ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 mL/min. His SV is __________ mL/beat and his HR is __________ bpm.
What is the longest vein commonly used in grafts in coronary bypass surgery?
T/F: Transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) are characterized by temporary dizziness, loss of vision or other senses, weakness, paralysis, headache, or aphasia.
Which of the following statements about TIAs and CVAs is true?
TIAs are often early warning signs of an impending stroke
Myocardial infarction can lead to what type of shock?
What type of shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability?
Your grandmother is experiencing temporary dizziness, blurred vision, paralysis on her left side, and mild aphasia. What do you think might be happening?
She is having a TIA
In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. What causes the varicose veins?
Failure of the venous valves
While out hiking, a friend of yours falls and suffers a trauma. You notice they start to go into shock. What do you do to help?
Lie them down and elevate their legs
What is the best way to estimate the MAP?
Take the diastolic pressure and add ⅓ of the pulse pressure
A nurse takes your blood pressure and tells you the numbers are 110/70. What are your blood pressures?
Systolic = 110 mmHg, Diastolic = 70 mmHg, Pulse Pressure = 40 mmHg, MAP = 83 mmMg
How many heme groups are there in each hemoglobin molecule?
Which of the following would not lead to polycythemia?
T/F: Circulating white blood cells spend most of their time in the bloodstream
T/F: Blood viscosity stems mainly from electrolytes and monomers dissolved in plasma
Plasma transports which of the following
1 = Nutrients from the digestive system
2 = Oxygen from the lungs
3 = Nitrogenous waste from the kidneys
What is the function of fibrin?
Fibrin creates the framework of a blood clot
List, in order, the stages of erythropoiesis. Start with the least differentiated cell type and end with erythrocytes.
Hematopoietic stem cells (1)
Colony-forming units (2)
Which of the following might be injected into a patient who is prone to forming blood clots and therefore is at risk of a heart attack or stroke?
Which of the following has not been implicated in causing leukopenia?
List the leukocytes from most abundant to least abundant (in healthy individuals).
T/F: A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B.
Which of the following is not true of a patient with anemia?
Their blood viscosity is increased
An individual with A antigens on their RBCs but no B antigens has which ABO blood type?
T/F: Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens.
T/F: After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.
Match each leukocyte disorder to its cause or definition.
1 = Leukopenia
2 = Leukemia
3 = Myeloid Leukemia
4 = Lymphoid Leukemia
5 = Leukocytosis
6 = Acute Leukemia
7 = Chronic Leukemia
1 = Leukopenia: A total WBC count below 5,000 WBCs/uL
2 = Leukemia: Cancer that produces a high number of circulating leukocytes and their precursors.
3 = Myeloid Leukemia: Marked by uncontrolled granulocyte production
4 = Lymphoid Leukemia: Involves uncontrolled lymphocyte or monocyte production
5 = Leukocytosis: A total WBC count above 10,000 WBCs/uL
6 = Acute Leukemia: Appears suddenly, progresses rapidly, and causes death within a few months
7 = Chronic Leukemia: Develops more slowly and may go undetected for many months
Which of the following is most likely to cause anemia?
T/F: Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.
A patient is suffering from ketoacidosis caused by an unregulated high protein diet. Which function of the blood has been compromised?
Stabilizing the body's pH
Match each erythrocyte disorder to its cause or definition
1 = Primary Polycthemia
2 = Secondary Polycthemia
3 = Pernicious Anemia
4 = Thalassemia
5 = Iron Deficiency Anemia
6 = Sickle-Cell Anemia
1 = Primary Polycthemia: Due to cancer of the erythropoietic line of the red bone marrow
2 = Secondary Polycthemia: Can result from dehydration
3 = Pernicious Anemia: Occurs when stomach glands fail to produce intrinsic factor
4 = Thalassemia: A deficiency or absence of alpha or beta hemoglobin
5 = Iron Deficiency Anemia: Usually caused by blood loss without sufficient compensatory iron ingestion
6 = Sickle-Cell Anemia: Caused by a recessive allele that modifies the hemoglobin beta chain
Match each erythrocyte disorder to its cause or definition.
1 = Septicemia
2 = Thrombocytopenia
3 = Disseminated intravascular coagulation
4 = Infectious mononucleosis
1 = Septicemia: Bacteria in the bloodstream
2 = Thrombocytopenia: A platelet count below 100,000/mL
3 = Disseminated intravascular coagulation: Widespread clotting within broken vessels
4 = Infectious mononucleosis: Infection of b-lymphocytes with Epstein-Barr virus
T/F: Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh- fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Basophils of the blood help to get defensive leukocytes to the site quickly by releasing an anticoagulant called __________ and a vasodilator called __________.
Bronchoconstriction, dyspnea, and widespread vasodilation are all characteristics of __________.
T/F: Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other.
__________ lacks the capacity to remember a pathogen or react differently to it in the future, whereas __________ utilizes memory cells to adapt to a given pathogen and ward it off more easily in the future.
Innate immunity; adaptive immunity
Immune surveillance is a process in which __________ nonspecifically detect and destroy foreign cells and diseased host cells.
natural killer (NK) cells
When an enemy cell is present, a(n) __________ secretes perforins, which bore a hole in the enemy cell membrane.
natural killer (NK) cells
T/F: A pathogen is a disease-causing microorganism.
Removal of the __________ would be more harmful to a one-year-old child than an adult.
__________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels, and they empty into the __________.
Collecting ducts; subclavian veins
Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones.
_________ are secreted by cells infected with viruses, alerting neighboring cells and protecting them from becoming infected.
T cells achieve immunocompetence in the ____
Which of the following is common in the distal small intestine?
Aggregated lymphoid nodules
T/F: Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections.
An immediate and intense type I reaction that can be treated with antihistamines is characteristic of ________
___ is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation.
T/F: The lymphatic system is involved in circulation, immunity, and nutrient absorption.
Vaccination stimulates __________ immunity.
T/F: Lymph originates in blood capillaries that pick up tissue fluid.
A pyrogen is a substance that causes _____
T/F: Adaptive immunity involves macrophages, antibodies, and interleukin.
Which of these is most likely to result from contact between contaminated fingers and the nasal mucosa?
Tom is in respiratory arrest due to an electrical shock. Why does a good samaritan have up to 4 or 5 minutes to begin CPR and save Tom's life?
There is a venous reserve of O2 in Tom's blood
In which condition are the lungs infected with Mycobacterium and produce fibrous nodules around the bacteria, leading to progressive pulmonary fibrosis?
Nitrogen bubbles can form in the blood and other tissues when a scuba diver ascends too rapidly, producing a syndrome called _________.
Place the respiratory structures into the order that air would pass through them during a normal inspiration
Nares, vestibule, nasal cavity, choanae, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx
Deep, rapid breathing often seen in terminal diabetes mellitus is known as what?
Among its other purposes, how is the Valsalva maneuver used?
To aid in defecation and urination
What is the definition of partial pressure?
The separate contribution of pressure by each individual gas comprising air
Which of the following is a lung disease marked by abnormally few but large alveoli?
Air consists of about 78.6% nitrogen, 20.9% oxygen, 0.04% carbon dioxide, and 0.5% water. At sea level, (760 mmHg) what is the PCO2?
0.3 mm Hg
Polio can sometimes damage the brainstem respiratory centers and result in which condition?
Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.
Each alveolus is surrounded by a web of blood capillaries supplied by the _________.
The heart indents into the __________ of the left lung.
Because gas exchange does not occur within the conducting zone of the respiratory system, it is also referred to as what?
Anatomical dead space
Which of the following is the term for the lungs' resistance to expansion?
What is the least common but most dangerous form of lung cancer
Which bronchus is about 5cm long and slightly narrower and more horizontal than the one on the opposite side?
Which of the following is the correct list of tooth anatomy from the most superficial to the deepest?
Enamel, dentin, pulp
Starting after it leaves the pylorus, place the following anatomical structures in order to identify the correct sequence that food would pass through the body.
Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum, Cecum, Ascending Colon, Transverse Colon, Descending Colon, Sigmoid Colon, Rectum
The __________ stores excess glucose and releases it into the blood when needed.
Carbohydrate digestion begins in the __________, whereas protein digestion begins in the __________.
A patient comes to you with jaundice and waves of intense abdominal pain. He also states he can't really eat fatty foods any more. Which of the following do you suspect?
Which of the following is not involved in chemical digestion?
Large Intestine Parts
rectum, cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon
Small Intestine Parts
jejunum, Ileum, Duodenum
The __________ regulates the flow of contents from the stomach to the duodenum.
Which of the following has an abundance of lymphoid tissue in the mucosa and submucosa?
Necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption, __________ is/are secreted by __________ cells.
Intrinsic factor; parietal
Which of the following is a function of the stomach
Chemical and mechanical digestion
Defecation is stimulated by ___
stretching of the rectum (sensation after meals)
In which direction do the peristaltic contractions of the stomach's smooth muscle move contents?
From the body to the pylorus region
The peristaltic movement of colonic contents triggered by the gastrocolic reflex approximately 1-3 times per day is called __________.
Which of the following is not associated with the large absorptive surface of the small intestine?
What is the straight muscular tube conveying food from pharynx to the stomach called?
What are the segments of the small intestine in the order through which food passes?
Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
Which organ is located behind the greater curvature of the stomach and acts as both an endocrine and exocrine gland?
During digestion, what is the major site of nutrient absorption?
Bile from the liver and digestive juices from the pancreas enter which section of the small intestine?
Acid reflux into the esophagus ("heartburn") is normally prevented by __________
Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)
What is the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food called?
Protein digestion begins in the
Which of the following statements regarding cholesterol is true? Check all that apply.
1: Vigorous exercise can lower serum cholesterol levels
2: High density lipoproteins help remove cholesterol from the body
3: Cigarette smoking can increase the levels of LDLs in the blood
4: A diet low in saturated fat will lower serum cholesterol more than a diet low in actual cholesterol
High-quality __________ proteins are those that provide all the essential amino acids.
__________ yield about 4 kcal/g when completely oxidized, whereas __________ yield about 9 kcal/g.
Proteins and carbohydrates; fats
Where is most protein in the body found
In the muscular system
Which of the following is not a major class of nutrients?
An ingested chemical that is used for growth, repair, or maintenance of the body is called a(n) __________.
Which of the following constitutes the so-called bad cholesterol?
What is the term used to describe the amount of energy liberated in the body per unit of time?
In order to measure the basal metabolic rate, which of the following variables needs to be considered?
All of these factors
Glycogenesis is stimulated by __________, whereas glycogenolysis is stimulated by ________
Insulin; glucagon and epinephrine
Which of the following is the healthiest ratio of triglycerides?
High HDL: Low LDL
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