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Envoy E145 Study Guide (2020)
Terms in this set (376)
What is the Maximum Altitude for operation after an inflight depressurization unless MEA or other constraints require a higher altitude?
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed, VMO/MMO?
320 KIAS/.78 M
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed from 8,000 to 10,000 ft. MSL, VMO?
What is the Maximum Operating Airspeed up to 8,000 ft. MSL, VMO?
What is the Maximum Turbulence Penetration Airspeed below 10000 ft., VB?
What is the Maximum Turbulence Penetration Airspeed above 10000 ft., VB,MB
250 KIAS/.63 M whichever is lower
What is the Maximum Maneuvering Airspeed, VA?
What is the Maximum Landing Gear Extension Airspeed, VLOE?
What is the Maximum Airspeed with the Landing Gear Extended, VLE?
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Landing Gear Retraction, VLOR?
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 9, VFE?
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 18, VFE?
What is the Maximum Airspeed for Flaps 22, VFE?
What is the Maximum airspeed for Flaps 45, VFE?
What is the Maximum Wiper Operating Airspeed?
What is the Maximum Operating Altitude?
What is the Minimum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude?
What is the Maximum Takeoff and Landing Pressure Altitude?
What is the Minimum Takeoff and Landing Temperature Limit?
-40° C SAT
What is required in the event of a landing with a temperature lower than -40° C SAT?
The aircraft may not takeoff without further maintenance inspection
What is the lowest allowed TAT allowed in cruise flight above 25,000 ft.?
When do icing conditions exist on the ground?
OAT is 10° C or below and Visible Moisture is present
OAT is 10° C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by the engines, or freeze on the engines, nacelles, or sensor probes
Define Visible Moisture
Clouds, fog with visibility one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, and ice crystals
When do icing conditions exist in flight?
TAT is 10° C or below and visible moisture in any form is present
Should the crew manually activate the Ice Protection System if the aircraft is in known icing conditions and the Ice Detection System is not activating the Ice Protection System?
What is the Minimum Temperature for Manual Anti-icing Operation?
-40° C SAT or TAT
What is the Maximum Temperature for Manual Anti-icing Operation?
10° C SAT or TAT
What is the temperature limitation for automatic Anti-icing System Operation?
What are the conditions that make a runway considered "contaminated"?
More than 25% of the required field length within the width being used is covered by:
• More than 1/8th inch (3 mm) of:
- standing water,
- slush or
- wet snow.
• More than ¾ inches (19mm) of dry snow.
• Compacted snow
What is the Autopilot Minimum Engagement Height?
What is the Autopilot Minimum Disengagement Altitude on an Instrument Approach with APR or NAV mode?
What is the Autopilot Minimum Disengagement Altitude on a Visual Approach with HDG mode?
Traffic Pattern Altitude (1,500 ft. AGL)
Can the autopilot be engaged during a Single Engine go-around?
When can Approach mode be selected during localizer capture?
When the aircraft is inbound
When is Yaw Damper operation not authorized?
Takeoff to 500' AFL
What is the cooling period between 3 consecutive start attempts of the APU?
1 min. OFF
What is the cooling period between two series of three consecutive start attempts of the APU?
30 mins. OFF
When can the aircraft be moved during the AHRS initialization? How do you know when it is ok to move the aircraft?
Only after all attitude and heading information presented on the PFD is displayed
What is the minimum time an engine run at idle or taxi thrust before shutdown?
Minimum dispatch oil quantity before engine start? After engine start?
What is the minimum time the engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust if they have been shut down for more than 90 minutes? Less than 90 minutes?
What is the minimum Oil Temperature prior to increasing N2 above 83%?
What is the minimum time the engines must be run at idle or taxi thrust prior to increasing N2 above 83% if Oil Temperature has not reached 40°C?
How long can you leave the Thrust Levers in the Thrust Set position or beyond with a Thrust mode of T/O-1 or T/O-RSV?
What is the ITT limit for Max Continuous thrust mode?
How long can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure in the amber range in all thrust modes?
Up to 5 minutes
How long can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure at 116 psi?
Up to 2 minutes
Can the engines operate with the Oil Pressure in the red range? What action must the crew take if the Oil Pressure reaches the red range?
Any exceedance must be monitored and logged in the AML
What is the Minimum Oil Temperature for engine start?
What is the maximum time to run the starter for Starting or Dry Motoring?
Up to 5 minutes ON, 5 minutes OFF
1st thru 4th cycles, 1 min ON, 1 min OFF; following cycles, 1 min ON, 5 min OFF
What is the Maximum Altitude for Flaps Extension?
20,000 ft. MSL
What is the Maximum Airspeed after Takeoff/During Climb without Retrimming the Pitch Trim?
What is the Holding Configuration?
Landing gear - UP
Flaps - UP
Minimum Airspeed - 200 KIAS in Icing Conditions
When MUST MAXIMUM reverse thrust be used?
Whenever its use will prevent a runway excursion
If landing on runways with "Medium" or "Poor" braking action
- unless appropriate landing distance penalty is applied
When MAY IDLE reverse thrust be used?
Dry runways 9,000 ft. or shorter usable length (LDA)
Non-dry runways where braking action is 'GOOD'
When is Thrust Reverser use is PROHIBITED?
Thrust Levers stabilized in any intermediate position between IDLE reverse and MAXIMUM reverse
What is the Demonstrated Crosswind for takeoff and landing?
What is the Maximum Tailwind Component for Takeoff and Landing?
When are headsets with boom microphones required to be used?
Operations below 18,000' including taxi.
What is the requirement for a crewmember to utilize their personal headset?
Headset must be marked with a TSO certification stamp or marking
What are the critical phases of flight that require a Sterile Cockpit?
All ground operations when moving under the aircrafts own power
Takeoff and Landing
The last 1,000' of any assigned altitude during climb or descent
Holding, regardless of altitude
All other operations below 10,000' except cruise
Any other phase of flight as deemed necessary by the Captain
When are shoulder harnesses required to be used in addition to seatbelts?
Prior to the taxi phase of flight, which chart should be displayed on each pilot's EFB?
If you are unable to obtain an IFR clearance at airports which do not have operating ATC facilities and it is not possible to obtain an IFR clearance from the flight deck, what conditions must exist before the flight can takeoff?
VFR conditions reported at the time of takeoff
Flight remains in VFR conditions while operating under VFR
Flight crew obtains an IFR clearance as soon as practical but not more than 50 NM from the departure airport
What conditions must exist for a flight crew to cancel an IFR flight plan?
VFR weather conditions, remain within Class B or C airspace, remain radar monitored by ATC, and remain in direct communication with the appropriate ATC facility
VFR weather conditions; direct communication with an air/ground communication facility that provides airport traffic advisories; and within 10 NM of destination OR has established and will maintain visual reference with the landing runway
Can you carry a passenger onboard your aircraft that is obviously under the influence of any intoxicating liquor or drugs?
No, unless it's a medical patient under proper care
When are we directed to declare an emergency in regards to fuel remaining?
Anytime the flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel
What is the transponder code used for Emergency aircraft? Radio failure? Hijacking?
Name a couple of conditions that are considered an Emergency Condition according to FM1?
Flight unable to establish definite position
Flight 15 minutes or more overdue and not heard from at terminal or check point
Failure/Malfunction of aircraft or any component, which interferes with safe operation
Indication of Fire
Priority in air traffic control by ATC or tower, at request of the pilot
Communication or navigational facilities impaired to the point that orientation or letting down is difficult or impossible
Any circumstance or condition that jeopardizes safety of flight, and which requires deviation from prescribed methods, procedures, or minimums in the interest of safety
Flight has less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining on board
How soon after a Captain exercises their emergency authority must they file a Pilot Pipeline?
No later than 24 hours after the event
How much rest must a crewmember receive prior to the start of any reserve period or FDP?
10 hours, with a minimum of 8 hour of uninterrupted sleep opportunity
When does the required rest period begin following a domestic flight? What about an International flight?
Domestic- 15 minutes after block in
International- 30 minutes after block in
Does a deadhead following the last working segment count towards a FDP? What about a middle segment or first segment deadhead?
What is the maximum flight duty period extension that can be accepted?
If a Crewmember accepts a FDP extension that is greater than 30 minutes, what is required before that Crewmember can accept another extension that is greater than 30 minutes?
30 hour rest period
Does a Captain have the authority to cancel a flight?
No, that authority rests with SOC
Name two of the available methods that a pilot can electronically declare fitness for duty?
CCI or Mobile CCI
How early may a scheduled Flight depart assuming all passengers and cargo are onboard?
Can a flight be dispatched utilizing the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347, for international flights?
When would a Takeoff alternate be required?
When weather at the departure station is below authorized CAT I landing minimums
When is a destination alternate required?
WX forecast +/- 1 hour of ETA (at the Destination) indicating ceilings less than 2,000' or visibility less than 3 miles
Airshows/VIP movement within +/- 2 hours
Braking action reported NIL
Crosswind component more than 25kts forecasted
When would a second destination alternate be required?
When the weather at the destination and first alternate is forecast to be marginal
When using the Conditional Language Exemption, 17347
When determining alternate airport weather minimums with two navigational facilities available, what values must be added to the ceiling and visibility?
Ceiling- add 200 feet to the higher DA/DH/MDA of the two approaches
Visibility- add ½ statue mile to the higher authorized landing minimum of the two approaches
Your proposed alternate has two usable approaches and suitable runways, the GPS approach requires 500 and 1, the LOC approach requires 400 and ¾ what is the minimum weather to file the airport as your alternate?
700 and 1 ½ SM
If an alternate is listed on your release what is the minimum HOLD fuel time that will be listed on the dispatch release?
If an alternate is not listed, what does the default HOLD fuel incorporate?
The greater of the following:
• Historical Delay values plus fuel for gauge error and a missed approach
• One circuit in a standard hold; a missed approach; climb to 10,000'; and fly to an Op Spec airport or an airport with a runway at least 7,000'x148'
• Minimum of 20 min
What is the lowest visibility authorized for Envoy departure operations?
What wind speed requires taxi and takeoff operations be suspended?
50 kts or more
When does a Dispatch Release expire?
Lands at a point not on the original release
Lands at a point in a different sequence than specified in the dispatch release
Returns to a station after taking off (air interruption)
Not having departed by expiration time if given by dispatcher
With a drift down flight plan, what should the flight crew do if the actual ramp weight exceeds the planned ramp weight listed on the dispatch release?
If actual ramp weight exceeds your planned ramp weight on the dispatch release by 2,000lbs or more what shall the Captain do?
Contact dispatch and consider obtaining a new fuel plan
What is the primary method for determining takeoff performance?
If TPS is unavailable, how can the takeoff performance and speeds be determined?
Airport Analysis data (VAA/VAQ or fos.aa.com)
If you are operating a Functional Check Flight will EWBS or TPS be available?
When are you required to perform a Static Takeoff?
If the actual takeoff weight is within 300 lbs of the takeoff Runway Weight Limit for the thrust mode to be used
If the Maximum Takeoff Weight is landing weight limited and the actual Takeoff Weight is determined to be heavier, what should the crew do?
What does the letter "L" indicate next to the Maximum Takeoff Weight on the TPS? What about "A"? What about "T"?
L- MTOW is landing weight limited
A- MTOW is limited by the climb or runway limit for ALT T/O-1
T- MTOW is limited by the climb or runway limit for T/O-1 or T/O
If the current temperature is warmer than the planned temperature by more than 2°C, what must the flight crew do?
Obtain new TPS data
Using the QRH, determine the Max Landing Weight for a destination at 1,000' PA, 5,400' usable landing distance, WET runway, and calm wind.
42,500 lbs. with Flaps 45
Using the QRH, determine the Climb Limited Landing Weight at 7,000' PA and 36°C.
What does the FM1 define as the weight of a Cabin Crewmember? ACM?
Cabin Crewmember- 170 lbs
ACM- 190 lbs
What is the maximum variance per zone between the actual passenger count and the Load Closeout passenger count?
With a Forward Caution Zone indicated on the Load Closeout, what are the requirements for the actual passenger count in zone A and C?
Zone A- actual number of passengers must be less than or equal to the Load Closeout
Zone C- actual number of passengers must be greater than or equal to the Load Closeout
Where is the Basic Operating Weight of the aircraft denoted?
Yellow sticker in the AML
When performing a manual weight and balance on a flight without a Flight Attendant, will they need to be subtracted from the Basic Operating Weight?
What is the standard weight for Valet bags? What about Checked bags? What about Heavy Checked bags?
Valet- 20 lbs.
Checked- 30 lbs.
Heavy- 60 lbs.
If the Load Closeout indicates MANUAL next to the C-4 weight instead of SCANNED, what additional paperwork is the crew required to obtain?
What does a "LA" indicate on the SPCL line of the Load Closeout?
If the Auto-NOTOC system is not available, which form must be used to notify the Captain that HAZMAT is being carried
Who is required to review the AML prior to flight?
Captain AND First Officer
When is it required to start a new AML page?
Start of each new flight day
No more Mechanical discrepancies blocks or Accepted by Captain blanks are available
White carbon page has been removed and an entry need to be made
What is the correct way to void an entry in the AML?
Draw a single line through each line of the entry
Print the word VOID or "Entered in Error" across the entire entry- Sign and employee number
If the current AML page has been voided by Maintenance after the Captain has already accepted the aircraft, does the Captain need to accept the aircraft again?
What does a silver dot next to a dent in the airframe signify?
Maintenance has inspected the area and found the damage to be within limits
What should a crew do if a silver dot is not located next to a visible dent in the airframe?
Contact Maintenance to ensure the area in question hasn't already been notated in the ADL (Aircraft damage log), prior to making an AML entry.
Is a flight crew authorized to Flight Crew Placard a CDL item?
If you have departed the gate and a flight crew placard requires the cockpit door to be opened what action must be taken?
Return to the gate and normal placard procedures shall be followed
How would a crew know which items could be deferred under a flight crew placard and where could they find the procedure on how to perform a Flight Crew Placard?
A "YES" is listed in the Flight Crew Placarding column in the MEL
The Flight Crew Procedure is located in the MEL General Section
If a Category B MEL is entered into the AML on a Monday, on what day would it officially expire?
What is an NEF, where are they located in the MEL, and can NEF items Flight Crew Placarded?
Nonessential Equipment Furnishings
MEL General Section
Your aircraft has a Category B MEL expiring tonight at your destination, but you must divert to another airport with no maintenance and remain overnight, can you depart the next day?
What is an ACI?
Administrative Control Item
What is the maximum airspeed in Class D airspace?
What is the maximum airspeed under Class B airspace?
A LAHSO clearance, regardless of the performance capability of the aircraft, may not be accepted if ATC provides it after the aircraft is on the Final Approach and has descended below how many feet AGL?
Who has the final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance?
The Pilot in Command
If a particular airport or runway configuration is not listed in the Jepps as approved for LAHSO, may it be used for LAHSO?
How long before a hold should you be established at your holding speed?
3 minutes prior to entering hold
What is the maximum holding speed below 6,000'?
What is the maximum holding speed between 6,000' and 14,000'?
What is the maximum holding speed above 14,000'?
Where can crewmembers find a listing of the airports that require Special Airport Qualifications?
FM1, Section 3
How would a Captain ensure they are qualified for a flight into an airport identified as SARA or requiring SAQ?
Review the SAQ chart in FM1, Section 3
How does a Captain document that they have qualified per FM1 for operation into a SAQ airport?
Where can the photo pages for SAQ/SARA airports be found?
Can a First Officer ever use the photo pages for the purposes of certification to operate into a SAQ/SARA airport?
Where are the familiarization videos found for SAQ/SARA airports?
my.envoyair.com > Flight Training > SARA Airport Familiarization
If the Captain has made a takeoff and landing at DCA 6 months ago, is it required for him to review the photo pages before making another takeoff and/or landing at DCA?
Crewmembers will normally sign in how long before their scheduled departure time at the beginning of their sequence?
Crew scheduling can reduce the crewmember's show time at an outstation to what minimum time?
Under normal conditions when shall a crewmember be at the aircraft and ready for flight?
20 min prior to departure time
Are crewmembers authorized to consume the same meals while on duty?
Crewmembers shall not intentionally eat the same meals prepared by the same food preparation service while on duty, or within a six-hour period prior to duty
What is the time frame limit on consumption of alcohol prior to being on duty?
What items are you required to carry or have readily available while performing duties on the aircraft or attending training?
Restricted Radiotelephone operator permit
Backup Battery (Captain only)
What what is the primary method a crewmember should follow if they lose an Airman or Medical certificate on duty?
Request a Replacement Certificate (Permanent or Temporary) from the FAA website at http://www.faa.gov
What must a crewmember do if their FAA medical examination will not be completed by the 20th day of the due month?
Inform their Domicile Chief Pilot when the examination will be complete
Should crewmembers carry backpacks while in uniform?
When is the uniform jacket or company approved leather jacket required to be worn?
From the beginning of November to the end of April
What are the approved methods of wearing the company ID?
Clip- Clear, silver, black, navy - No Logo/design
Retractable badge reel- Clear, silver, black, navy - No Logo/design
Are crewmember allowed to have beards or goatees while on duty? In training?
When shall crewmembers wear their company issued green, highly visible safety vest?
At all times while on the AOA
Are hats required to be worn with the uniform?
Can you self-clear yourself medically fit to fly if you were hospitalized during an illness?
Where can crewmembers find a list of common medications that are approved for use while on duty?
Who should a crewmember contact if they are too fatigued to continue performing their duties or notice that another crewmember is too fatigued to continue performing their duties?
Contact Crew Scheduling
If a crew member is removed due to fatigue, how long do they have to complete the mandatory report?
If a crewmember has a limitation stating corrective lenses are required what is an additional requirement besides wearing the corrective lenses while on duty?
Carry and have readily available a spare set of corrective lenses (IATA requirement)
What actions should the crewmember take when you have received an updated medical?
Provide a copy to Chief pilot's office for their input into FOS
HIL entry to update weight
You called in sick on day three of a four day trip. You were released by scheduling and intend to commute home. What should you consider prior to your commute?
Obtain travel authorization prior to any "travel while absent" from your Chief pilot
Where does a crewmember find what the latest updates for the electronic flight bag?
EFB > Flight Operations Technical > Revision Status Sheet
Who is responsible to maintain their manuals in a current state?
Can a crew fly with only 1 IPAD available?
Yes but only to a domicile to get a loner or replacement
When the Captain is not an IOE instructor and the FO has less than 100 hours in the type of aircraft being flown what conditions warrant the Captain making all Takeoffs and Landings?
SARA Airports designated by the FAA
Any of the following conditions exist:
a) Visibility in the latest weather is at or below 3/4 mile
b) RVR for the runway being used is at or below 4,000 ft.
c) Runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions which adversely affect aircraft performance
d) Braking on runway to be used is less than "good" or equivalent
e) Crosswind component for runway to be used is in excess of 15 kts.
f) Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
g) Flaps 18° or 22° takeoffs
h) Any other condition the PIC determines to be prudent
How often are Captains required to have completed a line check?
Within the preceding 12 months
When is a Captain considered to be a "Restricted Captain"?
When such pilot has not accumulated 100 hours as PIC in revenue service on the type of aircraft being operated
- Flight time during IOE is not eligible toward the 100 hours required
What are the lowest possible minimums for landing as a restricted Captain?
300/1 mile or 4,500 RVR
You are flying with or as a high minimums Captain, the weather upon arrival reports 200 and 1 mile and you are expecting an ILS approach, may the approach be conducted?
What are the landing currency requirements?
3 takeoffs and landings within 90 days on the same type of aircraft they are to serve
What is the maximum passenger seating capacity of the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
What are the exterior dimensions of the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
98 x 66 x 22
94 x 66 x 22
What is the minimum pavement width for an 180° turn in an Embraer 145?
Can the height of the pilot seats be adjusted manually?
When the Cockpit Direct Vision Windows are not properly locked in the closed position, what indication will be present?
A yellow pin protruding from flat plate linkage near opening-"WINDOW NOT CLOSED" inscription visible
Is the Baggage Compartment pressurized?
Name the three compartment hatches that share the EICAS caution message, "ACCESS DOOR OPEN"
Forward Electronic compartment access hatch
Rear Electronic compartment access hatch
Under Cockpit access hatch/rigging hatch
Where is the Emergency Locater Transmitter located?
In the Lavatory, above the toilet
When does the CVR begin to operate?
When Essential DC Bus 2 is engergized
How many hours does the CVR record?
When does the FDR begin to record operational data?
When the Red Beacon switch is ON
When the aircraft is airborne
How many hours does the FDR record?
What system pressure will cause the "OXYGEN LO PRESS" EICAS caution message to be presented? How many minutes will that be sufficient for?
400 psi, 12 minutes
What is the difference between the pilot's oxygen masks and the observer's mask?
No venting valve
Flow indicator installed in the supply hose
Once a chemical oxygen generator is activated, can it be shut off?
Where is the Least Risk Bomb location in the EMB-145/140?
In the first overhead bin, over row three.
What happens if the TEST/RESET button is pressed with the flight deck oxygen masks not stowed?
Stops flow of oxygen
What are the different modes of the cockpit quick donning O2 mask?
Emergency Setting - Pure oxygen with positive pressure.
100% Setting - Pure oxygen at all altitudes.
Normal Setting - Oxygen/Air mixture (ratio depends on cabin altitude)
During preflight, how would you know if the cockpit crew oxygen had been over pressurized?
The green blowout disc would be missing on the forward right side of the fuselage.
What is the oxygen duration of an oxygen chemical generator?
With the Passenger Oxygen Selector in AUTO, what cabin altitude will cause the Passenger Oxygen masks to automatically deploy?
Cabin altitude of 14,000 MSL.
How long does the PBE provide protection from smoke or toxic gas inhalation?
What is the Portable Oxygen Cylinder exclusively used for?
Therapeutic first aid
List the Emergency Equipment that is located in the Cockpit:
1 Fire Extinguisher, PBE, Crash Axe
2 Flashlights, 2 Escape Ropes
3 O2 Masks, 3 Smoke Goggles, 3 Life Vest
What compressor stage is low pressure bleed air tapped from? High pressure bleed air?
What conditions will cause the High Stage Valve to open?
Low engine thrust
Crossbleed engine start
During any type of engine start, with the Cross Bleed knob in AUTO, will the Cross Bleed Valve automatically open or remain closed?
What is the Purpose of the Pre-cooler?
Cools the bleed air coming from the engine to the ECS
Is the bleed air for the Engine Air Inlet Anti-icing System tapped upstream or downstream of the High Stage Valve?
Which side of the Pneumatic System is the APU Bleed Air connected?
What prevents engine bleed air from flowing back to the APU?
A check valve
What is the temperature range of Automatic Temperature Control Mode?
18°C to 29°C
What will be the indication if the ECS Off Logic closes the pack valves?
PACK 1-2 VLV CLSD advisory EICAS message
Will the guarded Pressurization Dump Button function if the Pressurization System is being operated in the manual mode? What will the cabin altitude depressurize to if the Pressurization Dump Button is pressed?
What position must the Pressurization Manual Control Knob be in when operating in AUTO Mode?
To the DN position
If the aircraft is on the ground and the Gasper Button is out and illuminated, will the Gasper fan be off or on?
What controls the APU starting system, control logic, and failure indications?
The APU FADEC
Which fuel tank normally provides fuel to the APU?
Tank 2 (right)
How can Fuel Tank 1 provide fuel to the APU?
Selecting LOW 2 on the XFEED knob
What EICAS message will be presented when the AHRS 900 Built In Test is complete and must be presented before starting the APU?
"AHRS 1-2 ALN"
What happens when the APU Stop Button is pressed?
Sends a stop request to the FADEC
What happens when the guarded APU Fuel Shut-off Button is pressed?
Sends a stop request to the FADEC
Closes the APU fuel shut-off valve
What happens when the APU Master Knob is set to OFF?
Deenergizes the APU FADEC
Closes the APU fuel shut-off valve
Turns off indications and alarms whenever the APU RPM is below 10%
Commands the APU to shutdown
What happens when the APU Master Knob is set to ON?
Energizes the APU FADEC
Commands the APU Fuel Shutoff Valve to open
Enables APU EICAS information and alarms
When will automatic shutdown of the APU occur in flight?
Failure to start, accelerate, or light
Loss of speed data
Loss of FADEC signal
Which IC-600 incorporates Autopilot functions?
How is the "AUTOPILOT" voice message cancelled if the RA is below 2,500 ft.?
Press the Quick Disconnect button twice with a 0.6 sec delay in between
What is the pitch up guidance of the Takeoff Submode "ROL-TO" with the Flaps at 9° 22° 18°?
Flaps 9°- 14°
Flaps 22°- 12°
Flaps 18°- 13°
What is the initial pitch up guidance of the Go Around Submode "ROL-GA"?
What is the bank angle limited to when Low Bank Mode is selected?
When climbing from 0 to 10,000 ft. with Flight Level Change Mode selected, what is the preprogrammed climb speed?
When descending below 10,000 ft. with Flight Level Change Mode selected, what is the preprogrammed descent rate?
How can the pitch be adjusted with Pitch Hold Mode "PIT" selected and will this mode capture an altitude that is set in the Altitude Select window?
The Pitch Control Wheel
With the "LOC" and "GS" captured, will the Autopilot capture an altitude that is set in the Altitude Select window?
If the Autopilot Couple Button is pressed in flight with the autopilot engaged, will the autopilot disengage or remain engaged?
How can an RMU be Cross-side tuned?
Selecting Transfer Button labeled "½" on the opposite RMU
What is the purpose of the Tuning Backup Control Head?
Provides an alternate means to select frequencies for COM 2 and NAV 2
What indication is there that an RMU has been cross-side tuned by the opposite RMU?
Any change in frequency will be displayed in yellow
What happens when Emergency Mode is selected on the Captain's Digital Audio Panel?
The Captain is directly connected with COM 1 and NAV 1
What happens when Emergency Mode is selected on the First Officer's Digital Audio Panel
The First Officer is directly connected with COM 2 and NAV 2
How do you change to Direct COM Tuning on the RMU?
Press and hold the line select button beside the COM preset frequency line for three seconds
What provides DC power to the aircraft?
4 engine driven generators
1 APU Starter-generator
2 Nickel-Cadmium batteries
1 lead-acid backup battery
What provides AC power to the aircraft?
Does the Electrical Distribution Logic differ when the aircraft is on the ground versus in flight?
With 4 engine driven generators on, will the left and right electrical networks be interconnected or isolated?
How many minutes of power can both batteries provide for essential loads in case of failure of all generators in flight?
The engine driven generators will come on line when the engine speed reaches what N2?
Which electrical network does Generators #1 and #3 provide power to?
Can the APU generator can be used to replace any failed engine driven generator?
Which electrical network does the APU is normally connect in parallel to?
With only 2 engine driven generators providing power to the electrical system, which electrical buses are deengergized?
The SHED BUSES
Does OVRD position of SHED BUSES Selector Knob function if the aircraft is in flight?
What temperature will cause a BATT 1(2) OVTEMP warning message to be displayed on the EICAS
What is the purpose of the Backup Battery?
To provide stabilized power for the GCU's protective function in case of short circuit or near zero system voltage
During an APU start, which electrical bus provides power to the APU starter generator?
The Central DC Bus
Which battery provides power for an APU start?
During an APU start, which battery is isolated from the load buses
When is the APU starter generator available to provide power to the electrical system?
7 seconds after achieving 95% RPM
What amount of load on an engine driven generator will cause a GEN 1(2, 3, 4) OVLD caution message to display on the EICAS?
What are the functions of the Central DC Bus?
To connect the APU generator or the GPU to the load buses
To provide bus interconnections in case of generator failure or engine shutdown
How is the Ground Service Bus energized?
GPU connected- Batteries and GEN's disconnected
What happens with the guarded Essential Power Button is pressed?
Batteries are directly connected to the Essential Busses regardless of any other command from the EDL
What does an "ELEC ESS XFR FAIL" warning message on the EICAS indicate?
Automatic transfer to the electrical emergency configuration has failed
What does an "ELEC EMERG ABNORM" caution message on the EICAS indicate?
Improper transfer to the electrical emergency condition has occurred
What model engine powers the Embraer 145? Embraer 140?
Embraer 145- Rolls-Royce AE3007A1
Embraer 140 - Rolls-Royce AE3007A 1/3
How many stages does the Axial Flow Compressor have?
Name the engine and airplane accessories that are driven by the Accessory Gearbox.
Air Turbine Starter
Permanent Magnet Alternator
Fuel Pump and Metering Unit
What controls the Fuel Pump and Metering Unit?
What controls the Compressor Variable Geometry and what provides the means to move the guide vanes?
FPMU fuel pressure
What is the engine oil tank capacity?
At what oil quantity will the oil level indication on the MFD T/O page turn amber?
5 quarts or below
What is the primary electrical power source for the Engine Control and Ignition Systems?
At what engine speed will the PMA provide power to both of the engine FADECs? What about the Ignition system?
With the Ignition Selector knob in AUTO and the aircraft on the ground, at what N2 will the FADEC activate the associated ignition channel? What about the ON position?
AUTO 14% N2
ON 10% N2
If the Ignition Selector knob is set to OFF and the associated engine is running, will the FADEC command the Engine Fuel Metering Valve to close?
Each FADEC is connected to one of the two FADECs on the opposite engine via a data bus, which functions are implemented with this communication?
Thrust reverse interlock
Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System
With FADEC software version B9.4.1 installed, when will the FADEC automatically alternate?
After engine start
If the FADEC is unable to control the engine
In an Embraer 140 with ALT T/O-1 thrust selected, what thrust mode will the ATTCS reset the thrust mode to in the event of an engine failure? What if T/O was selected for takeoff and an engine failure occurred?
ALT T/O-1 to T/O-1
T/O to TO RSV
What thrust mode will automatically be selected when the landing gear transitions from up to down and locked below 15,000 ft. in an Embraer 145? What about the Embraer 140?
Embraer 145- T/O-1
Embraer 140- T/O
How many locking systems are incorporated in the thrust reversers to avoid inadvertent in fight deployment?
Which shutoff valves are closed when an Engine Fire Handle is pulled?
Engine air inlet ice protection
How long must you wait if it is necessary to repeat the Fire Detection Test?
What happens when the Fire Detection Test Button is held for more than 10 seconds while the APU is running?
The APU will shutdown
What happens when the guarded APU EXTG Button is pressed?
Discharges the APU fire extinguisher bottle
Sends a stop request to the APU FADEC
Closes the APU fuel shutoff valve
Can both engine fire bottles be used for one engine if needed?
If the Fire Detection System on Engine #1 has failed, what EICAS message will be presented?
ENG 1 FIRE DET FAIL
What part of the Lavatory is protected by the single fire extinguisher?
The lavatory waste container
Where is the Lavatory Smoke Detector Panel located?
Forward galley wall
How many smoke detectors are there in the baggage compartment?
What conditions will cause the guarded Baggage Fire Extinguishing Button to illuminate?
Smoke detected in the compartment
Low pressure within a baggage fire extinguisher bottle
During a fire detection test
After pressing the "BAGG EXTG" button, or
Baggage compartment fan relay fault
What indications are present while performing a Fire Detection Test?
Aural fire bell
Both Fire Handles and the BAGG EXTG button illuminate
All Master Warning and Caution lights illuminate- EICAS messages
ENG 1-2 FIRE, APU FIRE, BAGG SMOKE, ENG 1-2 FIRE DET FAIL, and APU FIRE DET FAIL
What conditions must be met for the Speed Brakes to open?
Both TLA's below 50°
Flaps at 0° or 9°
When does the Gust Lock indicator lights on the glareshield panel illuminate?
During an unlocking cycle
When a system failure occurs
When it is pressed for test
Can the elevators, ailerons and rudder all be mechanically actuated?
How are the Flaps actuated?
On which side of the elevator disconnect device is the autopilot elevator servo and the stick pusher servo located?
How many control channels does the Horizontal Stabilizer Control Unit have?
When manually actuating the pitch trim, after how many seconds is it necessary to release the switch to its neutral position?
Which side is the roll trim actuator and the artificial feel unit located on the disconnection device?
At what airspeed is Rudder System #1 is automatically shut off through the Rudder Electronic Circuit?
What are the three conditions which must occur simultaneously in order for the Rudder Electronic Circuit to shut off both rudder hydraulic systems for Rudder Hardover Protection?
Rudder deflected above 5°±1°
Force above 130 lb. on the rudder pedal to counteract the rudder deflection
Both engines running above 56.4% N2
If one of the electric motors in the Flap Power and Drive Unit fails, is the other motor capable of driving the flaps?
What conditions must be met for the Ground Spoilers to open?
Aircraft on the ground
Main landing gear wheels running above 25 knots
Both TLA's set below 30° or both engines N2 below 56.4%
Where does the Standby Airspeed, Standby Altimeter, and CPAM get static information from?
Pitot/Static tube 3
An amber "ADC 1" or "ADC 2" annunciation appears on the PFD when:
Only one ADC is supplying both sides
If the current rate of acceleration is maintained, the magenta Airspeed Trend Vector would represent the speed attained by the aircraft is how many seconds?
What color on the Low Airspeed Awareness scale represents stall speed, VS? 1.13 VS? 1.23 VS?
VS - Red
1.13 VS - Yellow
1.23 VS - White
What color will the airspeed display be if the aircraft is at or exceeds VMO or MMO?
How many knots between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Airspeed Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
How much altitude difference between ADC 1 and 2 will cause the Altitude Comparison Monitor to display on the PFDs?
At what RA will the brown Low Altitude Awareness appear on the Altitude Tape?
If the current vertical speed is maintained, the magenta Altitude Trend Vector would represent the altitude attained by the aircraft in how many seconds?
If the FMS is already initialized, how do you find the database expiration date?
Press the DATA mode select key to access DATA 1/4 Page and then press the NAV DATA line select key
What is the required Q value on the UNS-1K?
10 or less
What is the required ANP value on the UNS-1LW?
Less than or equal to the RNP
When is it required to verify the predictive RAIM when equipped with a UNS-1K?
When flying to an airport where GPS stand-alone is the only intended and suitable approach
When using FMS guidance for conducting an instrument approach that does not include GPS or RNAV in the title, which pilot's PFD must display conventional nav aid data?
How many electric fuel pumps are included and how many ejector pumps are included in one Fuel Tank
3 electric fuel pumps
1 ejector pump
What is the total useable fuel capacity at a fuel density of 6.71 lbs./gal.?
What is the purpose of the ejector pump?
Ensure enough fuel is in the collector box under all conditions
If the fuel pressure provided by the selected fuel pump drops below 6.5 psi on the inlet side of the FPMU, what EICAS caution message will be presented and what happens with the remaining fuel pumps?
E 1(2) FUEL LOW PRESS
The remaining electrical driven pumps in the fuel tank will automatically come on and cycle on and off concurrently, until the pilot selects one of them
What happens when LOW 2 is selected on Crossfeed Selector Knob?
Opens the crossfeed valve
The selected tank 2 fuel pump is turned off
What position must be selected on the Crossfeed Selector Knob during Takeoffs or Go Arounds?
At what fuel quantity will the "FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL" warning message be presented on the EICAS?
At what fuel quantity will the Fuel Quantity Indication on the EICAS turn amber and boxed?
If the "FUEL IMBALANCE' caution message is presented on the EICAS, how can it be extinguished?
Use the fuel crossfeed to decrease the difference in fuel quantity to less than 100 lbs.
If the aircraft is shutdown with no electrical power applied, can the aircraft be refueled using the Refueling Panel?
How many total direct measuring sticks are available under the wings and collector tanks to directly measure fuel quantity on the Embraer 140 and 145?
How many hydraulic systems does the EMB-145/140 have?
Two independent systems.
What is the normal system pressure provided by the electric motor driven hydraulic pump?
What is the normal system pressure provided by the engine driven hydraulic pump?
With the Electric Hydraulic Pump Control Knob in AUTO, what system pressure will trigger the electric hydraulic pump to turn on, or below what associated N2 value would cause the electric hydraulic pump to turn on?
Will the landing gear extend normally if the #2 Hydraulic System fails?
What is the purpose of the Priority valve associated with the #1 Hydraulic System?
Prioritize hydraulic supply from system #1 to flight controls while landing gear is actuated when system is powered only by the electric hydraulic pump.
What hydraulic fluid temperature will cause a "HYD SYS 1(2) OVHT" EICAS caution message to be presented?
What fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir will cause a "HYD 1(2) LO QTY" EICAS caution message to be presented?
Less than 1 liter
What happens when the guarded Hydraulic Engine Pump Shutoff button is pressed?
Closes the associated engine driven pump shutoff valve
What are the two ways to activate the Anti-icing system?
Manually- selecting ALL with the Ice Detection Override Knob
Which side of the Pneumatic System supplies bleed air to the horizontal stabilizer antiicing subsystem?
The left side
What is name of the perforated tube that supplies the hot air to the leading edges of the wings and horizontal stabilizer?
With the Ice Detection Override Knob in the ENG position and the aircraft on the ground, when are the horizontal stabilizer and wing anti-icing subsystems automatically inhibited?
Wheel speed below 25 kts.
During a Pneumatic Ice Protection Test on the ground, how long can the Ice Detection Test Knob be held in test position 1 or 2?
Why can't the APU bleed air provide anti-icing functionality?
The bleed air from the APU is not hot enough
What temperature does the Windshield Temperature Controller maintain while in Defog mode? What about Anti-ice mode?
When are all electrically heated sensors except for the TAT's heated?
One engine running above 56.4% N2
When are the TAT Probes heated?
Thrust lever in the Thrust Set position
After the Ice Detectors detect ice, how long does the icing signal remain active and what message is presented on the EICAS?
60 seconds- ICE CONDITION
How is the Landing Gear normally extended and retracted?
Electrically commanded and hydraulically actuated
Which button which allows the "LANDING GEAR" warning voice message to be cancelled with the Flap Selector Lever less than 22° and one TLA below 59°?
The guarded Landing Gear Warning Cutout Button
How many weight-on-wheels proximity switches are installed in the Air/Ground Indication System?
What are the two backup methods to landing extension?
Electrical Override System
Free Fall extension
What happens when the Landing Gear Free-fall Lever is pulled?
De-pressurizes the landing gear hydraulic lines
Unlocks all three gear uplocks.
What does the anti-skid protection system provide?
Maximum allowable braking effort for the runway surface in use
Minimum tire wear
Optimizes braking distance
Above what wheel speeds is Locked Wheel Protection activated?
What is the purpose of the Touchdown Protection?
Inhibits brake actuation before main wheel spin up during landing
How many emergency actuations does the dedicated accumulator associated with the Emergency/Parking Brake system provide? How many hours of parking brake actuation?
How can the nose wheel steering system be manually disengaged by the pilots?
The Steering Disengage Button behind either pilot's control wheel
What is the maximum displacement of the nose wheel through the Steering Handwheel? Rudder Pedals? Together?
Which has priority if pressed simultaneously, the Steering Handwheel or the Steering Disengage Button?
The Steering Handwheel
How many Landing Lights are available?
How many Taxi Lights are available?
What electrical bus powers the Taxi Lights?
Shed Bus 2
With the Courtesy Lights Control knob in AUTO and the aircraft is powered down, will the Cockpit Dome light operate?
How many dedicated batteries power the emergency lights?
The Emergency Light Batteries are charged by what electrical bus?
Essential DC Bus 2
What triggers Emergency Light activation if they are in the ARM position and how long will they last?
Approximately 15 minutes
If the Emergency Lights are turned on with the Flight Attendant's Control Panel, will the Cockpit Emergency Lighting Switch turn off the Emergency Lights?
What will be the voice message to the pilot that both Aural Warning Unit channels are operating normally during the power-up test?
"AURAL UNIT OK"
Which items does the Takeoff Configuration System check?
Flaps not in takeoff position
Parking brake applied
Pitch trim out of the green range
Any spoiler panel deployed
How is the Windshear Escape Guidance Mode "ROL-WSHR" activated if a windshear condition is detected?
Pressing a Go-Around Button
Thrust Levers set to MAX
Automatically if already in a Takeoff or Go-Around mode
What are the three EICAS Message Levels and their associated colors?
Warning - Red
Caution - Amber
Advisory - Blue
Which EICAS Message Level is always displayed on top of the list?
What does a "CAS MSG" comparison label on the PFDs indicate?
The number of EICAS messages in each IC-600 is found to be different
What indications must be observed on the PFDs and MFDs during a TCAS Test? What will be the aural warning message after a successful TCAS test?
PFD- VSIs show red and green arcs
MFD- TCAS Display showing a hollow blue diamond, a solid blue diamond, a solid amber circle, and a solid red square
Aural- "TCAS TEST PASS"
All TAs are inhibited below what altitude?
How many Stick Shaker actuators are part of the Stall Protection System?
How many Stick Pusher actuators are part of the Stall Protection System?
How many stall protection channels are part of the Stall Protection System?
How many stall protection channels are required for Stick Pusher actuation?
When does the Stall Protection Test Button illuminate?
During an SPS test
After an unsuccessful SPS test
To indicate system has not been tested after aircraft establishes power
How can the "SPS/ICE SPEEDS" advisory message on the EICAS be extinguished?
Press the Stall Protection Test Button on the ground
What happens when one of the guarded Stall Protection Cutout Buttons is pressed?
Disconnects the associated channel
Inhibits Stick Pusher actuation
What is the size of the Weather Radar antenna?
How do you override the Forced Standby Mode?
Select an active radar mode and then press the STAB button 4 times in less than 3 seconds
How is the Weather Radar placed into Slave Mode and what does it do?
Select one controller to OFF
Allows one Radar Control Panel to set the radar mode for both sides
What does the SECT button do?
Reduces the sector scan from 120° to 60°
Is the GAIN knob normally operated in the pushed in, calibrated gain mode or the pulled out, variable gain mode?
With Target Alert "TGT" mode active, what does a yellow "TGT" on the MFD indicate?
A potentially hazardous target lies directly in front and outside the selected radar range
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