chapter 4

When is it inappropriate for ARFF personnel to take a high level of risk? (p. 140)
Click the card to flip 👆
1 / 100
Terms in this set (100)
When is it inappropriate for ARFF personnel to take a high level of risk? (p. 140)
to recover bodies
What should be kept on all hazardous materials? (p. 141)
safety data sheet
How many operating zones are there in an emergency scene response? (p. 142)
3
What is another name for a hot zone? (p. 142)
restricted zone
What type of area is included within the hot zone? (p. 142)
IDLH area
What must be worn in a hot zone? (p. 143)
PPE
What kind of corridor should be established in a cold zone? (p. 143)
entry/egress
What is the name for the method of identifying which emergency responders are working on an incident scene? (p. 144)
personal accountability system
Before personnel can begin interior firefighting, how many equipped and trained firefighters must be at the scene? (p. 144)
4
Which NFPA standard addresses the need for dedicated RIT personnel? (p. 145)
403
According to NFPA standards, RIT personnel must be dedicated at emergencies in what classifications of airports? (p. 145)6 through 10Which NFPA standard addresses standards for decontamination procedures? (p. 146)472Following an atypically stressful event, what should personnel be monitored for? (p. 147)signs of ptsdHistorically, what method would be used to deal with stressful events? (p. 147)offer a kids afterwardsWhat name refers to an electronic lack-of-motion sensor? (p. 147)passWhich NFPA standard addresses requirements for work uniforms of fire and emergency personnel? (p. 148)1975What is structural turnout gear particularly resistant to? (p. 149)cutsWhat kind of outer shell is offered on proximity gear? (p. 149)aluminizedWhat observable quality is offered by proximity gear? (p. 149)reflectivityWhat kinds of exposures are proximity clothing especially good for? (p. 150)radiant heatWhich NFPA standard addresses respiratory protection standards for fire fighters? (p. 150)1500How often must personnel be medically certified if they use respiratory protection devices? (p. 152)annuallyWhat is prohibited in personnel that wear respiratory protection devices? (p. 152)facial hair that interferes with the sealHow often should batteries in PASS devices be changed? (p. 152)every 6 monthsWhich categories of aircraft accidents should be treated as hazardous material incidents? (p. 154)all aircraft incidentsWhat term is used to describe the large debris of a broken aircraft? (p. 155)wreckageWhat term is used to describe any enclosed area not intended for continuous occupation? (p. 155)confined spaceWhat is the name for the process of allowing firefighters to rest, rehydrate, and recover during an incident? (p. 156)rehabilitationWhat kind of heat is added to the body through physical work? (p. 156)metabolicBefore confirmation is received that an aircraft has been fully powered down, what area should firefighters avoid on an aircraft? (p. 156)noseWhat is the flame rating for AVGAS? (p. 157)100 to 145What is the name for fuels derived from things like corn, soy, and sugarcane? (p. 157)bio fuelsWhat term describes the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off enough vapor to be ignitable near the surface? (p. 157)flash pointHow many grades are jet fuels divided into? (p. 158)2How does the flash point of jet fuels compare to AVGAS? (p. 158)the flashpoint of jet fuels is higherWhich NFPA standard addresses aircraft fuel servicing? (p. 158)407What can be generated from the difference in charge between an aircraft and its refueling vehicle? (p. 158)static electricityWhat kind of AC voltage is usually found on transport aircraft? (p. 159)115 voltsWhat is considered to be the favored construction material for a modern aircraft? (p. 160)composite fibersWhere do aircraft biohazards generally come from? (p. 160)bodily fluidsWhich windows usually sit above pitot tubes? (p. 160)cockpit windowsWhich type of engine can restart if the propeller is moved? (p. 161)reciprocatingWhat is the name for the current of air created by the rotation of a propeller? (p. 161)prop washWhat velocities can be approached by jet engines? (p. 162)800 miles per hourAfter shutdown, how long can jet engines retain enough heat to ignite spilled flammable materials nearby? (p. 162)20 minutesAt what angle does the wheel assembly fragmentation zone extend? (p. 163)45 degreesHow far out to the side does the fragmentation zone extend out for the wheel assemblies? (p. 163)289In a gusty wind condition, how close can the main rotor dip to the ground? (p. 163)4 feetWhen approaching a helicopter, what type of posture should be maintained? (p. 164)crouchedWhen approaching a helicopter on uneven ground, which side should personnel come from? (p. 164)downhill sideAt what height should tools be carried when approaching a helicopter? (p. 164)waist heightWhen landing, what amount of ground cover clearance should be available for a helicopter? (p. 166)100 feetWhat is now equipped on a number of general aviation, ultra-light, and experimental aircraft? (p. 166)ballistics recovery systemWhat causes a rocket to fire using a BRS? (p. 166)activation handleWhat is deployed to stabilize the aircraft in a BRS? (p. 166)parachuteWho publishes the Technical Instructions for the Safe Transportation of Dangerous Goods by Air? (p. 169)icaoWhat colors are often found on the border of required paperwork for dangerous goods being shipped via aircraft? (p. 169)red and whiteWhich part of CFR Title 14 requires training for airport firefighters on dangerous goods and hazardous materials? (p. 169)139Which NFPA standard addresses the competency requirements for responders dealing with hazardous materials and weapons of mass destruction? (p. 169)472What is an example of a Class I dangerous good under NFPA standards? (p. 170)explosivesWhat is an example of a Class 6 dangerous good under NFPA standards? (p. 170)infectious substancesWhat name is used to describe pallets and containers that facilitate the rapid loading and unloading of aircraft cargo? (p. 170)unit load devicesWhat is usually used to secure pallets and containers used to rapidly load and unload aircraft cargo? (p. 170)netsWhere are dangerous goods most often loaded? (p. 170)most forward positionWhat paperwork is usually provided to both the shipper and cargo facility of departure for dangerous goods? (p. 173)shippers declarationWhere is a cargo manifest kept? (p. 173)flight deckHow many separate sources should be used in identification and verification of shipments of dangerous goods? (p. 173)3What is the name for the document listing all contents carried by an aircraft for a specific trip? (p. 173)cargo manifestWhat is the first responsibility of units responding to dangerous goods incidents? (p. 175)isolate the sceneWhen agricultural chemicals are shipped as liquids, what kinds of containers are they generally held within? (p. 176)drumsWhat is the minimum quantity of hydrazine that is carried by a single carrier craft? (p. 177)7 gallonsWhich of the following is an example of a system in a military aircraft that uses hypergolic fuels? (p. 178)emuWhat secondary material can cause hypergolic fuels to ignite? (p. 178)organic materialWhich bodily systems can receive toxic damage from prolonged exposure to hydrazine? (p. 178)liverWhat is the proper name for devices or systems designed to prevent sensor-guided weapons from locking onto and destroying a target? (p. 178)countermeasuresWhat substance is used in pyrotechnics? (p. 179)white phosphorusWhat entity should be notified when ARFF personnel encounter a military aircraft crash? (p. 180)the militaryIn what way can ejection seats be powered? (p. 180)gasBoxes containing pins for safety escape systems, landing gear, EPU, and other aircraft systems are generally mounted in what location? (p. 181)wheel wellsWhat are aircraft canopies generally constructed from? (p. 182)high impact plasticsHow many kinds of canopies are generally used in military aircraft? (p. 182)3What is the least common type of canopy on military aircraft? (p. 182)hingeWhat shape is an initiator in an aircraft? (p. 183)cylinderCanopy removers are which type of device? (p. 183)telescopingIf not activated by gas pressure, how is a rotary actuator activated? (p. 183)electric currentHow are thrusters powered? (p. 184)gasWhat are the plugs in explosive squibs made from? (p. 184)rubberIf not using a halon extinguishing system, what kind of extinguishing system is usually equipped in a military aircraft? (p. 185)nitrogenIn what minimal length of time will most weapons or explosives be expected to detonate when exposed to fire in an aircraft accident? (p. 185)45 secondsWhen it is not possible to quickly extinguish a fire in which a weapon is involved, how far away should firefighting teams retreat at a minimum? (p. 185)2000 feetHow many types of HE are there? (p. 185)2An explosive that is heated into a thick liquid, poured into an ammunition case, and then cooled and solidified is known by what name? (p. 186)cast high explosionsRe-solidified explosives are sensitive to what factor? (p. 186)frictionARFF responders should take position at what kind of angle from the nose or tail or the aircraft when munitions are present? (p. 18645 degreesWhat is present on missiles that is lacking on rockets? (p. 186)guidance systemWhich of the following is an example of a gravity bomb? (p. 186)mk 84What is the recommended agent to cool a gravity bomb? (p. 187)waterWhat is a common symptom of exposure to blister agents? (p. 188)red eyesWhich of the following chemical agents can cause symptoms like seizures, coma, respiratory distress, and unresponsiveness? (p. 188)blood agentsWhich of the following chemical agents can cause symptoms like dyspnea, salivation, pinpoint pupils, severe tightness in the chest, and seizures? (p. 188)nerve agents