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A&P FINAL studyguide

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Which of the following can contribute to receptor specificity
Tissue location of the receptor cell
Thermoreceptors
Scattered immediately beneath the surface of the skin
A receptor that contains many mechanically gated ion channels would function best as a
Tactile Receptor
Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called
Proprioceptors
Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
Baroreceptors
Tactile receptors composed of capsules that surround a core of collagen fibers intertwined with dendrites are called
Ruffini Corpuscles
Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following, except
At the level of the Larynx
Mechanoreceptors might detect which of the following sensations
Muscle length, Pressure, Vibration, Touch
Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to
Receptor Specifity
Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________.
Nociceptors; Thermoceptors;
. ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure
Baroreceptors
. The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and digest"
Parasympathetic
Sweat glands contain ________ receptors
Cholinergic
Nicotinic receptors
Use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter
Muscarinic receptors
Slow G protein, coupled responses, parasympathetic
Parasympathetic stimulation
Increase gastric mobility
Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
An organ recieving both sympatheic and parasympathetic nerves
Which of the following is an example of a visceral reflex
Pupillary reflex, Defacation reflex, Vomitting, Ejaculation
Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called
Memory consolidation
The conscious state is maintained by the
Reticular Activating System
An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial orientation, memory,
language, and personality is called
Senile Dementia
The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are ________ waves
Alpha
In deep sleep
Delta waves, breathing slows down, body temp decreases, no eye movement, bed wett, sleep walking, night tremors
Alzheimer disease is characterized by all of the following, except that it
Has a clear genetic basis
The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state(s)
Trauma
. The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following
Thorocolumnar division
Sympathetic nerves
Regulate body temperature
During sympathetic activation, ________ occurs
Elevated BP, HR, blood glucose, & sweating
Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except
Decreased HR
Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the body would interfere with the ability to
Dilate the right pupil
Injury to the cervical sympathetic ganglia would affect the function of the
...
Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called sympathomimetic drugs. Which of
the following would you not expect to observe in a person who has taken a sympathomimetic drug
Decreased BP
Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release acetylcholine
instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type
...
A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This drug probably binds
to ________ receptors
...
Which of the following would lead to increased heart rate
Increased sympathetic input, decreased parasympathetic input
Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating
High BP
Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are
Sympathomimetric
Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be
Autonomic blocking agents
Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating
Urinary Inconsistence
A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug that is used is
Adrengic activating drug, muscannic blocking drug, sympathetic drug
As the result of an accident, the white rami of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on the left side of Brad's body are severed.
What organ(s) would you expect might be affected by this injury
Left pupil & heart
A person is confronted by a dangerous dog. His heart begins to race and beat strongly, his pupils dilate, and his
hairs stand up. These signs are the result of
Increased levels of epinepherine, increased activity of autonomic centers, sympathetic activation
Mary accidentally ate poison mushrooms that contain muscarine. What symptoms would you expect to observe
Salivation, sweating, very low HR, diarrhea
Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by
Stimulating serotonin receptors
The inherited brain disorder Huntington disease is caused by the destruction of basal nuclei that use different
neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is ________.
Acetylcholine; Serotonin;
The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem nuclei that use
different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the other promoting deep sleep is
________.
Nonrepinepherine & serotonin
. Olfactory glands
Coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus
The mucus that covers the olfactory epithelium does all of the following, except that it
Dissolves unwanted chemicals and washes them away
Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to
...
All of the following are true of olfactory pathways, except
Decussate at the level of mamillary bodys
Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons. Which of these
special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors
...
Gustatory receptors are located
On the surface of the tongue
The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
Olfactory receptors
Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the
Olfactory bulb
The largest numbers of taste buds in adults are associated with the
Circumvallate Pappillae
Taste buds are monitored by cranial nerves
VII, IX, X
All of the following are true of the fibrous tunic of the eye, except that it
Contains pain receptors
The vitreous body
Helps stabelize eye & gives support to the retina
The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye
Bulbar (ocular) conjunctiva
The transparent portion of the fibrous tunic is the
Cornea
The part of the eye that determines eye color is the
Iris
The opening in the iris through which light passes is the
Pupil
The space between the cornea and the iris is the
Anterior Chamber
The space between the iris and ciliary body and the lens is the
Anterior chamber (fluid filled space)
What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision
INS
The neural tunic
includes a pigment layer & an inner retina that lines the viterous body
The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by
changing shape
The shape of the lens is controlled by the
Vascular tunic
In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the
Cornea
The ciliary muscle contracts to
Adjust shape of the lens for nerve vision
There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These cones are
designated
red/green; blue/yellow; black/white;
An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
Fovea
The first step in the process of photoreception is
Ospin Activation
Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound
Rhodopsin
A pigment synthesized from vitamin A is
Visual pigments
The external ear ends at the
Tympanic membrane
The auditory ossicles connect the
Tympanic membrane to the oval window
The vibrations received by the tympanic membrane are transferred to the oval window by the
Auditory ossicles
The senses of equilibrium and hearing are provided by receptors of the
Inner ear
. The structure that overlies the organ of Corti is the
Tectonal membrane
The structure that supports the organ of Corti is the
Flexible membrane in the cochlea
Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the
Utricle & Saccule
The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the
Ampullae
. Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals
Capolcis
The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in
Maculae & statoconia
Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on
...
Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the
Auditory Ossicles
The frequency of a perceived sound depends on
Which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated
Taste receptors are distributed in which of the following places
Portions of the larynx, pharnyx, & surface of the tongue
Taste buds are monitored by which cranial nerve(s)
Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX) & facial nerve (VII)
A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should expect damage to
cranial nerve ________.
Glossopharyngeal
Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain
Cerebrum
A ray of light entering the eye will encounter these structures in which order
conjunctiva, cornea, aqueous, tumor lens, vetreous body, retina, choroid
A sty ________
results from blocked glands
Which of the following is a function of tears
Provide oxygen, wash away debris, lubricate eye, nourish the cornea and conjuctiva
The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which contains auditory ossicles
Outer; Middle;
The external acoustic meatus ends at
Tympanic membrane
The ________ conveys information about head position with respect to gravity
Vestibular system
The cornea is part of the
outer fibrous part of the eye
The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the
Vitreous humur
If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can
Stand 20ft away from an object and see it as a person stand 15 ft away from the object can.
A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would
be high pitched
A sudden rise of room brightness would cause
rapid dialation of pupils
Why do things look blurry underwater without dive goggles or mask
light is refracted different under water
In which of the following cases would the focal distance be greater
...
When a rod is stimulated by light
...
Stimulation of nociceptive receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of
Tooth ache; Motor commands the jaw to deliver pain in the face
Which of the following is not a function of the nervous system
Direct long term functions such as growth
The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord
Central
Functions of astrocytes include all of the following, except
Functioning in action potential transmision
Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
Microglia
Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are
Satellite cells
Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons
Pseudopolar
Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as
Terminal aborization
The site of intercellular communication between neurons is the
Synapse
The rabies virus travels to the CNS via
Retrograte axoplasmic transport
Sensory neurons of the PNS are
Unipolar sensory neurons
. Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels
leakage
The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.
1. Sodium channels are inactivated.
2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization.
3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties.
4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold.
5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.
6. Sodium channel activation occurs.
7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs.
The proper sequence of these events is
4,6,7,1,2,3,5
Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system
chemical
The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
Calcium
The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse.
The correct sequence for these events is
4,2,6,7,1,8,3,5
If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely blocked
Synaptic transmission would fail
IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials)
A grate hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane
Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places on the neuron is designated
Spatial summation
The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates
A muscle of gland
Integral membrane proteins that connect electrical synapses are called
Connexons
The same ________ can have different effects depending on the properties of the ________.
Neurotransmitter; receptor;
Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and the soma is called
________ degeneration
Wallerion
The cytoskeleton of the perikaryon contains which of the following
Neurofilaments, neurotubules, neurofibrils
The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following
Neurofibrils, neurotubules, small vessicles, lysosomes, mitochondria
________ neurons are short, with a cell body between dendrite and axon, and occur in special sense organs
Bipolar
. ________ neurons are the most common class in the CNS
multipolar
________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system
Neuroglia
Ion channels that are always open are known as
Leakage channels
. ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules
Chemically gated channels
Any stimulus that opens ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential
Gated
Which of the following statements about the action potential is false
The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions
. For which of the following functions do active neurons require a supply of ATP
Active neurons
When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all these effects are possible, except
Glial calls degenerate
In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves by
Wallerion Degeneration
Most CNS neurons lack centrioles. This observation explains
Neurons loose their centrioles during differentiation and they become incapable of cell division
. Each of the following is an example of a neuroeffector junction, except the junction between a neuron and a(n)
...
Extensive damage to oligodendrocytes in the CNS could result in
...
Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the
Formation of the cerebralspinal fluid
. If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases
Inward movement of sodium will increase
Graded potentials
...
If the potassium permeability of a resting neuron increases above the resting permeability, what effect will this
have on the transmembrane potential
Inside of the membrane will become more negative
How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels failed to inactivate
Larger than normal
Presynaptic facilitation by serotonin is caused by
calcium channels in the presynaptic membrane remaining open longer
After a stroke, what type of glial cell accumulates within the affected brain region
Microglia
Opioids relieve pain by blocking the release of
Substance D
. Enlargements of the spinal cord occur
In the spinal sements that control limbs
The ________ is a strand of fibrous tissue that provides longitudinal support as a component of the coccygeal ligament
Filum terminate
The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age
4
Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the
Pia mater
The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord are called
...
Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found in the
...
The outermost connective-tissue covering of nerves is the
Epineurium
The dorsal root of a spinal nerve contains
Sensory neurons (afferent)
The ventral root of a spinal nerve contains
Motor neurons (efferent)
Spinal nerves are
Both sensory and motor
The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the thoracic and lumbar
region of the spinal cord form the
...
Postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate internal organs do not rejoin the spinal
nerve but form
Autonomic nerves
Which of the following associations is incorrect
...
The ________ of each spinal nerve innervates the skin and muscles of the back
...
The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the ventral rami of neighboring spinal nerves is
termed a
plexus
In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise
Brachial
Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes
Innate
The flexor reflex
moves a limb away from a painful stimulus
The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles
Crossed extensor
Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called
...
The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the
Dura mater
The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly
Myelinated axons
The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the
Endoneurium
In the condition ________, a virus infects dorsal root ganglia, causing a painful rash whose distribution
corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their dermatomes
Shingles
. Each peripheral nerve provides ________ innervation to peripheral structures
Sensory & motor
The ventral rami form four major plexuses, including all of the following, except the ________ plexus
Nuchal
If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he
Might be unable to breathe on his own
As the ________ nerve approaches the knee, it divides into two branches, the fibular nerve and the tibial nerve
...
The obturator nerve is distributed to the
...
Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the
...
The epidural space contains
Connective tissue & blood vessels
The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the
Pia mater
The posterior horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
...
If the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is severed
...
Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the
...
. In which of the following would the delay between stimulus and response be greater
...
In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about
...
The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the
pons
Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the
...
A neural cortex is found on the surface of the
...
The thin partition that separates the first and second ventricles is the
...
Each lateral ventricle communicates with the third ventricle through a
...
The dural sinuses are located in the
dural folds
The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the
Falx cerebri
Absorption at the arachnoid granulations returns CSF to the
Venous circulation
The pons contains
sensory and motor nuclei for cranial nerve, nuclei for breathing tracts that link the cerebellum with the brain stem
The regions of the mesencephalon that issue subconscious motor commands that affect upper limb position and
background muscle tone are the
Red nucleus
Which of the following is a property of the mamillary bodies
All of the above
Stimulation of the reticular formation results in
Increased conciousness
Which of the following is (are) true of the epithalamus
contains the choroid plexus & pineal gland, & forms the roof of the diencephalon
The ventral nuclei of the thalamus
recieve input from basal ganglia, cerebellum, recieve general sensory input
The mamillary bodies of the hypothalamus
Control feeding reflexes
Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system
Functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold water
A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the
Fornix
Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
Lobes
The cerebral area posterior to the central sulcus is the
Parietal lobe
The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the
...
The primary motor cortex is the surface of the
Precerebra
The auditory cortex is located in the
Temporal lobe
The corpus callosum is composed of
Comm fibers
The internal capsule of the cerebrum is composed of
Projection fibers
The putamen and globus pallidus are frequently considered to be subdivisions of the
Lentiform nucleus
Higher-order functions
Involve complex interactions among areas of the cortex, can be adjusted overtime based on experience, combine both concious and unconcious information processing
The basal nuclei
provide general pattern and rythm for movements such as walking
Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains
Larger
. The medulla oblongata regulates
BP & respiration
. The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex
thalamus
Specialized ________ cells form the secretory component of the choroid plexus
Ependymal
Which of the following help to protect the brain
All of the above
Ependymal cells work to
secrete CSF in the ventricles, remove waste products from CSF, surround the capillaries of the choroid process
The choroid plexus produces CSF at a rate of about
500 ml/day
As CSF circulates, ________ between it and the interstitial fluid of the CNS is unrestricted between and across
the ependyma
diffusion
The respiratory rhythmicity center is located in
the cerebellum
. ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely complex motor
activities such as speech
Integrative
You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to
Smell his food
________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve
Bell palsy
The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the
Medulla Oblongata
A person with a damaged visual association area may be
able to see letters quite clearly but unable to recognize or interpret them
Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve
Mandibular branch of the trigeminal
Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)
Vagus & Glossopharyngeal
The tympanic reflex
Restrict movement of the auditory ossicles
Excitation of neurons in the basal nuclei would lead to
Increased muscle tone
Tic douloureux is
All of the above
. Damage to the superior colliculi would interfere with the reflex ability to
React to bright light
. Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory nerve
Weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke
damage is in the area of the ________ lobe
Left frontal
At the optic chiasm
Axons from the nasal halves of each retina cross
Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain
tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located
hypothalamus
After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably caused damage to the
Occipital lobe
The general interpretive area
Allow us to interpret what is read or heard
Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to
Prefrontal cortex
Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly pigmented cells. This tissue
probably came from the
Substantia Nigra
Increased production and release of acetylcholine by the neurons of the cerebral nuclei would result in
Spastic, uncontrollable muscle contractions
Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers consciousness, he can
hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or sentences. This implies damage to his
General interpretive area
Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in which the fibers of
the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be unable to
Verbally identify an object placed in the left hand
Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb
Trigciminal
Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle
All of the above
The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the
Epimyesium
The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together
is the
Endomysium
Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
have many nuclei
Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called
Myoblasts
Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere
Repeating unit of striated myofibrils
Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum
Storage & release site for calcium ions
The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
Sacrolemma
Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
Muscle contraction
In a sarcomere, thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the
M line
Which of the following best describes the term Z line
Thin filaments are anchored here
The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the
I band
. Which of the following best describes the term titin
Protein that accounts for elasticity or resting muscle
At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by
Troponin molecules
Receptors for acetylcholine are located on the
Motor end plate
The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
Transverse tubules
Active sites on the actin become available for binding after
Calcium binds to troponin
In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic reticulum releases
calcium ions
Which of the following acts as an ATPase during the contraction cycle of muscle
Troponin molecules
The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
Active transport of calcium into the sacroplasmic reticulum
Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction
Thin filaments & thick filaments
Calcium ions are binding to troponin during the ________ of a muscle twitch
Latent period & contraction period
When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady
maximum tension. This is called
Complete tetanus
A muscle producing tension that peaks and falls at intermediate stimulus rates is said to be in
Incomplete tetanus
If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs.
This is called
Wave summation
A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called
Motor unit
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
Isometric
During anaerobic glycolysis
Pyruvic acid is produced, ATP is produced, oxygen is not consumed
At peak levels of muscle exertion the mitochondria can supply
Only about 1/3 of the energy required by the muscle.
After heavy exercise, if energy reserves in a muscle are depleted, ________ occurs
Oxygen debt
During the Cori cycle, in the liver
Glucose is produced from lactic acid
During the recovery period the body's need for oxygen is increased because
Additional oxygen is required to restore energy reserves consumed during exercise
Fast fibers
Have low resistance to fatigue & have twitches with a very brief contraction phase
The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber
Slow
. Fast muscle fibers can adapt to aerobic metabolism by generating more mitochondria in response to
Prolonged periods of inactivity
Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding human muscles
All of the above
Which of the following statements is false
Cardiac muscle stimulation is neural
Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle
Smooth muscle connective tissue forms tendons & aponeuroses
Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue
Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly specialized for
Contraction
The types of muscle tissue include all of the following, except
Skeletal muscle
At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, and each perimysium and endomysium, come
together to form a
Tendon
Which of the following is not a type of motor unit
White-slow twitch
The thin filaments of striated muscle are made of which protein
All of the above
Each skeletal muscle fiber contains ________ myofibrils
Hundreds to thousands
When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts
All of the above
Which statement about the microscopic anatomy of skeletal muscle fibers is true
All are true
The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the neurotransmitter
Acetylcholine
Which statement about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect
Calcium ion is released from the transverse tubule
Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting muscle cell
95
In an isotonic contraction
Muscle tension exceeds the load & the muscle lift the load
Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
Fast fibers
Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to increased muscle mass
Testosterone
Because skeletal muscle contractions demand large quantities of ATP, skeletal muscles have
A rich blood supply & abundant mitochondria
In rigor mortis
All of the above
Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes
Decreased width of the H band during contraction
Which of the following is greater
Concentration of calcium ion in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of a resting muscle
The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction.
The correct sequence of these events is
3,5,1,4,6,2
How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle
Cause spastic paralysis (muscles contracted, unable to relax)
When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes
More permeable to sodium ions
Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
Acetylcholine binds to chemicallt gated channels in the end plate membrane
In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers
Muscles that control the eyes
Decreased blood flow to a muscle could result in all of the following, except
An increase in intracellular lactate
How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles
It would stimulate energy use & heat production
Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles
Sphinter circular
The type of muscle whose functional characteristics most closely resemble those of its muscle fibers is the
________ muscles
Parallel
Skeletal muscles in which the fascicles form a common angle with the tendon are ________ muscles
Pennate
The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the
load. These are called ________ levers
3rd class
A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in
Chewing
The pectoralis major muscle inserts on the greater tubercle of the humerus. When it contracts, it produces
Flexion at the shoulder joint
Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to
Extend the forearm
Which of the following muscles does not have an action that is antagonistic to the action of the brachialis
muscle
Brachioradialis
A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a
Synergist
The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following, except
Collagen content of the muscles
Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called
Rectus
Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action, except
Sartorius
Which of the following terms could be used with a muscle that is associated with the chin
Genio-
Each of the following terms is used to describe the shape of a muscle, except
Hallucis
A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the
Tongue
Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the
Head
Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression
Masseter
The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the
Obicularis
. All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII), except for the ________ muscle
Levator
The origin of the frontalis muscle is the
Galea Aponeurotica
The temporalis muscle passes through the
Zygomatic Arch
The auricularis muscle acts to
Move the external ear
The mentalis muscle inserts on the
Skin of the chin
Which of the following describes the action of the corrugator supercilii
Wrinkles the brow
The procerus inserts on the
Lateral nasal cartilages
Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle
Depresses & retracts the tongue
Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle
Rectus Abdominis
The anterior muscle that inserts widely on the periosteum of the mandible is the
playtsma
The muscle that elevates the tongue is the
Palatoglossus
Which of the following does not originate or insert on the hyoid bone
Sternothyroid
Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue
Styloglossus
Which of the following is a spinal flexor
Longus capitas, longus colli, quadratus lumborum
The iliac crest is the origin of the
Lumborum
The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the
Superior nuchal line
The scalenes have their origin on the
Transverse process of the cervical vertebrae
Which of the following muscles has its origin on the sternum
Rectus abdominis
The muscle that inserts on the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the
Rectus Abdominis
Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen
External, rectus, transverse
Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus
Collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris
Which of the following muscles is found within the pelvic floor
All of the above
The levator ani inserts on the
Coccyx
The spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae are the origin of the
Rhomboid & trapezius
Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major
Greater tubercle of the humerus
Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior
Protracts the shoulder
Which of the following does not move the shoulder girdle
Deltoid
The muscle that adducts and rotates the scapula laterally is the
Rhomboid
The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the
Trapezius
All of the following originate on the scapula, except the
Pectoralis major
The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the
Deltoid
Which of the following is not a muscle of the rotator cuff
Subclavicus
A muscle that adducts the humerus is the
Coracoid & Latissimus
The infraspinatus has its insertion on the
Greater tubercle
Which of the following does not originate on the humerus
Biceps Brachii
The muscle that extends the arm while doing push-ups is the
Triceps
Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachialis
Olecranon Process
Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus
All of the above
The muscle that pronates the forearm and opposes biceps brachii is the
Pronator Quad.
When opposing the thumb, which muscle is active
Flexor Pollius Longus
The muscle that adducts the thumb is the
Adductor Pollius
The adductor brevis has its origin on the
Pubis
The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the
Gluteus maximus
The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the
Illiotribial tract
Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following, except the
Tensor fasciae latae
. Which of the following is a member of the hamstring group
semimembraneous, semitendinous, biceps femoris
Which of the following muscles pulls on the iliotibial tract
Gluteus maximus
The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the
Sartorius
The inferior ramus of the pubis is the origin and the medial tibia is the insertion of the ________ muscle
Gracilis
A muscle that originates along the linea aspera of the femur is
Vas-lat; Med; Int.
The muscle that unlocks the knee joint is the
Popliteus
A sesamoid bone occasionally found within the lateral head of the gastrocnemius is
Fabella
Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group
All of the above
The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is
Inferior surface of distal phalanx
An antagonist to the gastrocnemius is the
Tibialis Anterior
A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the
Tibialis Anterior
The freedom of movement is relatively greater in the
Pectoral Girdle
Which of these phrases most aptly describes "muscle insertion"
Tendon attatchment
The bones, which serve as levers in the body, change
All of the above
Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called
Medialis
Reflection of the trapezius muscle exposes the
Infraspinatus
Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called
Oblique
Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are
Parallel Muscles
A skeletal muscle fiber can contract until it has shortened by about
30%
In a 6.45-cm2 (1-inch2) cross section, a parallel muscle can exert approximately ________ of isometric tension
23 kg
________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation
Convergent
Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called
Transversus
In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening
Circular
A lever consists of
Rigid structure & pivot point
A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement
Prime mover/agonist
Muscles visible at the body surface are often called
Superficialis
Superficial muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called
Extrinsic
Muscles located entirely within an organ are called
Intrinsic
Deep muscles are called
Profundus
Muscles that are long and round in cross section are termed
Teres
The axial muscles of the head and neck are assigned to one of the following functional groups, except
Vocal expressions
The ________ covers the anterior surface of the neck
Platysma
The eye muscles include which of the following muscles
All of the above
Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on the globe?
Superior oblique
The ________ muscle allows you to look down
Inferior rectus
The ________ allows you to look up
Superior rectus
The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle
Masseter
In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it deviates to one side.
You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has occurred
Genioglossus
The ________ extends the neck
Spinalis Cervicis
Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever
2nd
Ryan hears a loud noise and quickly turns his eyes sideways in the direction of the sound. To accomplish this
action he must use his ________ muscles
Lateral & Medial
During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that would be cut is the
Rectus Abdominis
Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris
Elevates & Raises
The leverage of the biceps brachii applies its force six times closer to the fulcrum (elbow joint) than the
resistance. This means it will need to exert ________ kg of force to support a load of 6 kg
36
Which of the following is not a pennate muscle
Pectoralis
Which of the following is not one of the forms of fascicle organization
Perpindicular
The muscles of the head and neck function in
All of the above
Muscular walls of the thorax and abdomen are composed of
Oblique & Rectus
Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in the mouth, except
the
Omohyoid
Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle
Medial rectus
A muscle that flexes the spinal column is the
Rectus Abdominis
Damage to which of the following muscles would interfere most with the ability to breathe
Intercostals
Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males
Bulbosp.
Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following, except the
Deltoid & Rhomboid
Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip
All of the above
Each of the following muscles acts to flex the leg, except the
Vastus Lat.
. The quadriceps group includes all of the following, except the
Biceps
Which of the following muscles belongs to the "hamstring" muscle group
Biceps femoris
Excessive abdominopelvic pressure can cause
Inguinial & Diap.
Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to
Adduct the humerus
Individuals who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the piano may suffer wrist
pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true concerning this condition, except that it
Never causes muscle weakness
If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when
Extending & Laterally
Tom is having difficulty plantar flexing and everting his foot. Which muscle is most likely involved in this
problem
Soleus
The preferred site for intramuscular (IM) injections in infants is the
Vas. Lat.
If the anterior compartment of the lower limb was suffering from "compartment syndrome," which of these
muscles would be at risk of injury
Ext. tib. & ext.
Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What
would you tell him
Buccinator& obicularis
Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not become any better. Her physician
suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position. Which muscle will he cut
Medial rectus
Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi ulnaris. As a result
of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform
Cant grasp things