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A&P1 Exam 2 Review, Chapters 9-16

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Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.
A) aldosterone
B) insulin
C) secretin
D) cortisol
D) cortisol
Normal development of the immune response is due in part to hormones produced by the ________.
A) adrenal medulla
B) pancreas
C) thyroid gland
D) thymus gland
D) thymus gland
Virtually all of the protein or amino acid-based hormones exert their effects through intracellular ________.
A) ions
B) deactivators
C) nucleotides
D) second messengers
D) second messengers
Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?
A) enzyme
B) humoral
C) neural
D) hormonal
A) enzyme
Chemical substances secreted by cells into the extracellular fluids and that regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body are called ________.
A) enzymes
B) antibodies
C) proteins
D) hormones
D) hormones
The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract ________.
A) connects the hypophysis to the pituitary gland
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
C) conducts aldosterone to the hypophysis
D) is the site of prolactin synthesis
B) is partly contained within the infundibulum
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?
A) polyuria
B) polydipsia
C) polyphagia
D) All of these are signs.
D) All of these are signs.
Which of the choices below is not a factor required for target cell activation by hormone receptor interaction?
A) blood levels of hormone
B) type of hormone
C) number of receptors for that hormone
D) strength of the bond between the receptor and hormone
B) type of hormone
Oxytocin ________.
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
B) is an adenohypophyseal secretion
C) exerts its most important effects during menstruation
D) controls milk production
A) release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism
ADH ________.
A) increases urine production
B) promotes dehydration
C) is produced in the adenohypophysis
D) is inhibited by alcohol
D) is inhibited by alcohol
Thyroid hormone exerts its influence by ________.
A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
B) exerting only a minor effect on body metabolism
C) causing a reduction in the number of blood vessel adrenergic receptors, and therefore decreasing blood pressure
D) acting to decrease basal metabolic rate
A) entering some cells and binding to intracellular receptors within the nuclei
Gonadocorticoid(s) ________.
A) synthesized by the adrenal medulla are primarily androgens
B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty
C) secretion inhibition is highly dependent on a negative feedback loop involving ACTH
D) hypersecretion can result in adrenogenital syndrome, also called feminization
B) production by the adrenal gland is insignificant compared with sex hormone release from the gonads during late puberty
Sometimes prolonged excessive exposure to high hormone concentrations causes a phenomenon known as ________.
A) diabetes mellitus
B) cellular inhibition
C) down-regulation
D) metabolism of protein kinases
C) down-regulation
Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?
A) a change in membrane potential
B) the stimulation of a genetic event resulting in protein synthesis
C) an increase in enzymatic activity
D) direct control of the nervous system
D) direct control of the nervous system
The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.
A) the location of the tissue or organ with respect to the circulatory path
B) the membrane potential of the cells of the target organ
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
D) nothingall hormones of the human body are able to stimulate any and all cell types because hormones are powerful and nonspecific
C) the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ
Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.
A) hepatic portal system
B) general circulatory system
C) hypophyseal portal system
D) feedback loop
C) hypophyseal portal system
The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ________.
A) it is strictly a part of the neural system and has little or nothing to do with hormonal release
B) embryonically it was an endocrine tissue, but in the adult human it is no longer functional
C) it is unable to function as an endocrine tissue because it is actually part of the neural system due to its location
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
D) it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release
Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
B) finding an appropriate cell receptor and initiating cAMP activity
C) stimulating the synthesis of a glycogen
D) increasing blood pressure
A) entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene
The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.
A) synthesizing more of the hormone than is actually needed
B) increasing the basal metabolic rate in the target organ
C) not responding to a feedback mechanism
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
D) binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP
Hormones often cause a cell to elicit multiple responses; this is because ________.
A) there are thousands of receptors on the cell membrane
B) the receptors bind to several hormones at the same time
C) the protein kinases are rapidly metabolized
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
D) during protein kinase activation, enzymes phosphorylate many other enzymes
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
A) peptide hormones always enter the cell membrane and elicit a response without assistance from other messengers
B) hormones alter cellular operations through stimulation of a gene directly
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
D) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
Thyroid hormone (a small iodinated amine) enters target cells in a manner similar to ________.
A) insulin, because insulin is a small peptide
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
C) growth hormone, because the thyroid works synergistically with thyroid hormone
D) glucagon, because the structure of glucagon is similar to that of thyroid hormone
B) steroid hormones, because both diffuse easily into target cells
When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.
A) estrogen
B) epinephrine
C) angiotensinogen
D) renin
B) epinephrine
One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?
A) the rapid oxidation of carbohydrates
B) catabolic inhibition
C) protein synthesis
D) humoral stimulation
D) humoral stimulation
The major targets of growth hormone are ________.
A) the blood vessels
B) the adrenal glands
C) the liver
D) bones and skeletal muscles
D) bones and skeletal muscles
The parathyroid glands maintain adequate levels of blood calcium. This is accomplished through ________.
A) blocking the action of growth hormone
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
C) antagonizing the synthesis of calcitonin
D) slowing the activity of tissues that require calcium for activity
B) targeting the bone and activating osteoclasts so that calcium will be released
Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?
A) the heart
B) the kidney
C) the skin
D) the spleen
A) the heart
Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.
A) testosterone
B) estrogen
C) cortisol
D) epinephrine
C) cortisol
Leptin is secreted by ________.
A) lymphocytes
B) adipocytes
C) goblet cells
D) fibroblasts
B) adipocytes
The most important regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.
A) insulin
B) aldosterone
C) glucagon
D) cortisol
B) aldosterone
Which of the following is not a steroid-based hormone?
A) estrogen
B) aldosterone
C) epinephrine
D) cortisone
C) epinephrine
Which of the following would be associated with the action of steroids on cells?
A) extracellular receptors with a specificity for only a single amino acid sequence on the hormone
B) an enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP
C) second-messenger systems
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA
D) a hormone-receptor complex that interacts directly with the cell's DNA
Cellular responses to hormones that initiate second-messenger systems include ________.
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
B) cyclic AMP phosphodiesterase formation of an active second messenger
C) formation of a specific protein kinase that acts on a series of extracellular intermediates
D) hormone binding to intracellular receptors
A) possible activation of several different second-messenger systems
Regulating hormones from the hypothalamus ________.
A) enter venous circulation and travel to the heart, which pumps the hormone-containing blood to the pituitary
B) enter the hepatic portal system, which feeds the pituitary
C) travel by arteries to the pituitary
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
D) first enter into the hypophyseal portal system
ACTH ________.
A) is secreted by the posterior pituitary
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
C) causes the release of hormones from the adrenal medulla
D) is not a tropic hormone
B) secretion is regulated by a hypothalamic secretion
Which of the following is true about calcium homeostasis?
A) Increased calcitonin levels will cause increased blood calcium levels.
B) High calcium levels cause bone resorption.
C) Parathyroid hormone causes an increase in osteoblast activity.
D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
D) Parathyroid hormone is the single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood.
Aldosterone ________.
A) is secreted by the neurohypophysis
B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
C) presence increases potassium concentration in the blood
D) production is greatly influenced by ACTH
B) functions to increase sodium reabsorption
The only amine hormone to act like a steroid is ________.
A) TH
B) ACTH
C) GH
D) ADH
A) TH
Which organ does not have hormone production?
A) heart
B) kidney
C) liver
D) skin
C) liver
In circumstances where the body requires prolonged or increased levels of a hormone the DNA of target cells will specify the synthesis of more receptors on the surface of the cells of the target organ. This is known as ________.
A) the cell's sensitivity reaction
B) cellular affinity
C) up-regulation
D) a reaction to a stressor
C) up-regulation
Eicosanoids do not include ________.
A) paracrines
B) leukotrienes
C) hydrocortisones
D) prostaglandins
C) hydrocortisones
A man has been told that he is not synthesizing enough follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and for this reason he may be unable to father a child. Choose the correct statement to explain this problem.
A) FSH stimulates estrogen secretion by ovarian cells, therefore it is not synthesized by males.
B) The physician is wronga hormone made in the adenohypophysis could not influence fertility.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
D) The man must be producing progesterone, which inhibits the synthesis of FSH.
C) FSH stimulates sperm production in the testes.
Which of the following organs is affected by thyroid hormone in adults?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) thyroid gland
D) brain
A) liver
Thyroxine is a peptide hormone, but its mechanism is different from other peptide hormones. Which of the following statements is true concerning this difference?
A) It causes positive feedback.
B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
C) It is very specific in the cell type it targets.
D) It is a stimulant of cellular metabolism and targets all cells.
B) It does not require a second messenger to effect a response.
How do glucocorticoids enable the body to deal appropriately with stress?
A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
B) by decreasing the heart rate, thus decreasing blood pressure
C) by stimulating the pancreas to release insulin
D) by blocking the neurotransmitters that prepare the body for the stress response
A) by increasing blood glucose, fatty acid, and amino acid levels and enhancing blood pressure
What ion is sometimes used as a second messenger of amino acidbased hormones?
A) iron
B) calcium
C) sodium
D) chlorine
B) calcium
The secretions of the adrenal medulla act to supplement the effects of ________.
A) parasympathetic innervation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) vagus nerve activity
D) neurosecretory substances
B) sympathetic stimulation
Which of the following does not describe the ANS?
A) a system of motor neurons that innervates smooth and cardiac muscle and glands
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
C) involuntary nervous system
D) general visceral motor system
B) a system of motor neurons that innervates all muscle cells
Preparing the body for the "fight-or-flight" response is the role of the ________.
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) cerebrum
C) parasympathetic nervous system
D) somatic nervous system
A) sympathetic nervous system
The somatic and autonomic nervous systems differ in all of the following except ________.
A) their effectors
B) their efferent pathways
C) to some degree in target responses to their neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
D) all of the neurotransmitters
A drug that might be used specifically to reduce heart rate in cardiac patients could be ________.
A) anticholinesterase
B) epinephrine
C) norepinephrine
D) a beta-blocker
D) a beta-blocker
The parasympathetic ganglion that serves the eye is the ________.
A) ciliary ganglion
B) pterygopalatine ganglion
C) submandibular ganglion
D) otic ganglion
A) ciliary ganglion
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all except ________.
A) constriction of most blood vessels
B) dilation of the vessels serving the skeletal muscles
C) increase of heart rate and force
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
D) dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Over 90% of all parasympathetic fibers are derived from cranial nerve number ________.
A) V
B) VII
C) X
D) XII
C) X
The "resting and digesting" division of the autonomic nervous system is the ________.
A) parasympathetic division
B) sympathetic division
C) somatic division
D) peripheral nervous system
A) parasympathetic division
Control of temperature, endocrine activity, and thirst are functions associated with the ________.
A) medulla
B) cerebellum
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
Which of these effectors is not directly controlled by the autonomic nervous system?
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) most glands
C) skeletal muscle
Which of the following is not a result of parasympathetic stimulation?
A) salivation
B) dilation of the pupils
C) increased peristalsis of the digestive viscera
D) elimination of urine
B) dilation of the pupils
Which of the following statements is not true?
A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
B) Sympathetic ganglia are within a few centimeters of the CNS, parasympathetic are close to visceral organs served.
C) Sympathetic division has short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers.
D) Sympathetic has extensive branching of preganglionic fibers, parasympathetic has minimal branching of preganglionic fibers.
A) Sympathetic origin is craniosacral, parasympathetic is thoracolumbar.
Sympathetic responses generally are widespread because ________.
A) inactivation of ACh is fairly slow
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
C) preganglionic fibers are short
D) preganglionic fibers are long
B) NE and epinephrine are secreted into the blood as part of the sympathetic response
Sympathetic nerves may leave the spinal cord at which vertebra?
A) second cervical
B) third lumbar
C) first coccyx
D) first thoracic
D) first thoracic
Autonomic ganglia contain ________.
A) an outer connective tissue capsule around the cell bodies of preganglionic motor neurons
B) synapses between postganglionic fibers and their effectors
C) the cell bodies of motor neurons
D) both somatic afferent and efferent neurons
C) the cell bodies of motor neurons
The parasympathetic fibers of the ________ nerves innervate smooth muscles of the eye that cause the lenses to bulge to accommodate close vision.
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) abducens
B) oculomotor
Fibers that enter and leave the sympathetic chain without synapsing form structures called ________.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) spinal nerves
D) splanchnic nerves
D) splanchnic nerves
Which of the following is not a plexus of the vagus nerve?
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) celiac
D) esophageal
C) celiac
Visceral reflex arcs differ from somatic in that ________.
A) visceral arcs contain two sensory neurons
B) somatic arcs contain one additional component that visceral arcs do not possess
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
D) visceral arcs do not use integration centers
C) visceral arcs involve two motor neurons
The parasympathetic tone ________.
A) prevents unnecessary heart deceleration
B) accelerates activity of the digestive tract
C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract
D) causes blood pressure to rise
C) determines normal activity of the urinary tract
Once a sympathetic preganglionic axon reaches a trunk ganglion, it can do all but which one of the following?
A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
B) synapase with a ganglionic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
C) ascend or descend the trunk to synapse in another trunk ganglion
D) pass through the trunk ganglion without synapsing with another neuron
A) synapse with a parasympathetic neuron in the same trunk ganglion
The white rami communicantes ________.
A) are found only in the - cord segments
B) are unmyelinated
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
D) carry postganglionic fibers to the periphery
C) carry preganglionic axons to the sympathetic chain
Beta-blockers ________.
A) increase a dangerously low heart rate
B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
C) have widespread sympathetic effects
D) are potent antidepressants
B) decrease heart rate and blood pressure
Erection of the penis or clitoris ________.
A) is primarily under sympathetic control
B) is primarily under parasympathetic control
C) is the result of coordinated activation by both sympathetic and parasympathetic input
D) depends very little on autonomic activation
B) is primarily under parasympathetic control
Which is a uniquely sympathetic function?
A) regulation of pupil size
B) regulation of cardiac rate
C) regulation of respiratory rate
D) regulation of body temperature
D) regulation of body temperature
Raynaud's disease ________.
A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
B) is induced by heat stress
C) occurs primarily in association with injury to the spinal cord
D) is frequently life threatening
A) is characterized by exaggerated vasoconstriction in the extremities
Autonomic dysreflexia ________.
A) is also known as autonomic areflexia
B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
C) usually precedes spinal shock
D) results from overexcitatory input from the cortex
B) involves uncontrolled activation of autonomic neurons
Which sympathetic fibers form the splanchnic nerve?
A) those that synapse with parasympathetic fibers
B) those that synapse in the same trunk ganglion they entered
C) those that synapse with somatic fibers
D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
D) those that pass through the trunk ganglion to synapse in collateral or prevertebral ganglia
In aging, autonomic inefficiency is often due to ________.
A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments
B) cerebral hemorrhage
C) major loss of axons
D) peripheral vascular changes
A) clogging of preganglionic axon terminals with filaments
Where would you not find an autonomic ganglion?
A) in the head
B) in the cervical region
C) close to the visceral effectors they serve
D) in the armpit
D) in the armpit
Sympathetic division stimulation causes ________.
A) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
B) increased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
D) decreased blood glucose, increased GI peristalsis, and decreased heart rate and blood pressure
C) increased blood glucose, decreased GI peristalsis, and increased heart rate and blood pressure
The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
A) lumbar splanchnic nerves
B) cephalic plexus
C) pelvic nerves
D) tenth cranial nerve
D) tenth cranial nerve
The route of major parasympathetic outflow from the head is via the ________.
A) sympathetic trunk
B) phrenic nerve
C) vagus nerve
D) sacral nerve
C) vagus nerve
Parasympathetic functions include ________.
A) a stimulation of heart rate and force of contraction
B) allowing the body to cope with an external threat
C) lens accommodation for close vision
D) mobilizing storage energy sources
C) lens accommodation for close vision
Emotions influence autonomic reactions primarily through integration in the ________.
A) lateral horn of the spinal cord
B) hypothalamus
C) lateral geniculate of the thalamus
D) inferior colliculus
B) hypothalamus
The possibility of some control over autonomic responses is demonstrated by ________.
A) split brain studies
B) stress-induced hypertension
C) biofeedback
D) nightmares
C) biofeedback
The vagus nerve does not innervate the ________.
A) pancreas
B) kidneys
C) parotid gland
D) gallbladder
C) parotid gland
The patellar "knee jerk" reflex is an example of a(n) ________.
A) extensor thrust reflex
B) stress reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) stretch reflex
D) stretch reflex
The ________ nerve is not a branch of the trigeminal nerve.
A) ophthalmic
B) maxillary
C) cervical
D) mandibular
C) cervical
Which of the following nerves does not arise from the brachial plexus?
A) median
B) phrenic
C) radial
D) ulnar
B) phrenic
Which of the following is not an example of an exteroceptor?
A) touch
B) pressure
C) pain
D) temperature
E) baroreceptor
E) baroreceptor
Which of the following is not a main level of neural integration in the somatosensory system?
A) receptor
B) circuit
C) segmental
D) perceptual
C) segmental
The posterior side of the thigh, leg, and foot is served by the ________ nerve.
A) obturator
B) common fibular
C) tibial
D) femoral
C) tibial
Starting at the spinal cord, the subdivisions of the brachial plexus are (in order):
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
B) roots, divisions, cords, and trunks
C) divisions, roots, trunks, and cords
D) trunks, divisions, cords, and roots
A) roots, trunks, divisions, and cords
The cranial nerve with a dual origin (brain and spinal cord) is the ________.
A) hypoglossal
B) accessory
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
B) accessory
Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding the occurrence of a sensation?
A) The stimulus energy must match the specificity of the receptor.
B) The stimulus energy must occur within the receptor's receptive field.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.
D) A generator potential in the associated sensory neuron must reach threshold.
C) The stimulus energy must be converted into the energy of a graded potential called a transduction potential.
A major nerve of the lumbar plexus is the ________.
A) femoral
B) iliohypogastric
C) sciatic
D) ilioinguinal
A) femoral
Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the ________.
A) lumbar plexus
B) femoral plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus
C) sacral plexus
The abducens nerve ________.
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
B) relays sensory information from taste buds on the tongue
C) exits from the medulla
D) if paralyzed, exhibits Bell's palsy
A) supplies innervation to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye
Inborn or intristic reflexes are ________.
A) rapid, predictable, learned responses
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
C) autonomic only
D) always mediated by the brain
B) involuntary, yet may be modified by learned behavior
Which of the following is not an aspect of sensory perception?
A) magnitude estimation
B) spatial discrimination
C) feature attraction
D) quality estimation
E) pattern recognition
D) quality estimation
Striking the "funny bone" is actually stimulation of (or injury to) the ________.
A) radial nerve
B) sciatic nerve
C) ulnar nerve
D) median nerve
C) ulnar nerve
A reflex that causes muscle relaxation and lengthening in response to muscle tension is called a ________.
A) Golgi tendon reflex
B) flexor reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) plantar reflex
A) Golgi tendon reflex
Pressure, pain, and temperature receptors in the skin are ________.
A) interoceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) mechanoreceptors
B) exteroceptors
Potentially damaging stimuli that result in pain are selectively detected by ________.
A) interoceptors
B) photoreceptors
C) nociceptors
D) proprioceptors
C) nociceptors
Which receptors adapt most slowly?
A) smell receptors
B) pressure receptors
C) nociceptors
D) touch receptors
C) nociceptors
The trochlear nerve conveys proprioceptor impulses from the ________ to the brain.
A) medial rectus muscle
B) lateral rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
D) inferior rectus muscle
C) superior rectus muscle
Nerves that carry impulses toward the CNS only are ________.
A) afferent nerves
B) efferent nerves
C) motor nerves
D) mixed nerves
A) afferent nerves
After axonal injury, regeneration in peripheral nerves is guided by ________.
A) Wallerian cells
B) Schwann cells
C) dendrites
D) Golgi organs
B) Schwann cells
Regeneration within the CNS ________.
A) is more successful than with the PNS
B) typically allows axonal sprouting of 20 mm
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
D) is promoted by growth inhibitors and glial scars
C) is prevented due to growth-inhibiting proteins of oligodendrocytes
In a crossed-extensor reflex, if the right arm was grabbed it would flex and the left arm would ________.
A) also flex
B) extend
C) abduct
D) adduct
B) extend
Select the correct definition.
A) Magnitude estimation is the simplest level of sensation.
B) Perceptual detection is the ability to detect how much stimulus is applied to the body.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
D) Spatial discrimination allows us to recognize textures.
C) Pattern recognition allows us to see a familiar face.
All processing at the circuit level going up to the perceptual level must synapse in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) reticular formation
D) medulla
B) thalamus
The sciatic nerve is a combination of which two nerves?
A) pudendal and posterior femoral cutaneous
B) posterior femoral cutaneous and tibial
C) pudendal and common fibular
D) common fibular and tibial
D) common fibular and tibial
Irritation of a major nerve of this plexus may cause hiccups.
A) cervical plexus
B) lumbar plexus
C) sacral plexus
D) thoracic plexus
A) cervical plexus
Bell's palsy is ________.
A) characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles
B) characterized by loss of vision
C) often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
D) characterized by paralysis of facial muscles
Which of the following is the correct simple spinal reflex arc?
A) effector, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, receptor
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
C) effector, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, receptor
D) receptor, efferent neuron, integration center, afferent neuron, effector
B) receptor, afferent neuron, integration center, efferent neuron, effector
Mixed cranial nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers include all except which of the following?
A) oculomotor
B) olfactory
C) trigeminal
D) facial
B) olfactory
Transduction refers to conversion of ________.
A) presynaptic nerve impulses to postsynaptic nerve impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
C) receptor energy to stimulus energy
D) afferent impulses to efferent impulses
B) stimulus information to nerve impulses
The flexor muscles in the anterior arm (biceps brachii and brachialis) are innervated by what nerve?
A) radial
B) median
C) ulnar
D) musculocutaneous
D) musculocutaneous
The cranial nerves that have neural connections with the tongue include all except the ________.
A) trigeminal
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) trochlear
D) trochlear
Problems in balance may follow trauma to which nerve?
A) abducens
B) vestibulocochlear
C) trigeminal
D) accessory
B) vestibulocochlear
A fracture of the ethmoid bone could result in damage to which cranial nerve?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) vagus
C) olfactory
D) accessory
C) olfactory
Select the statement that is most correct.
A) Ganglia are collections of neuron cell bodies in the spinal cord that are associated with efferent fibers.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
C) The dorsal root ganglion is a motor-only structure.
D) The cell bodies of afferent ganglia are located in the spinal cord.
B) Ganglia associated with afferent nerve fibers contain cell bodies of sensory neurons.
A fall or an improperly delivered gluteal injection could result in ________.
A) neurofibromatosis
B) postpoliomyelitis muscular atrophy
C) paresthesia
D) sciatica
D) sciatica
Feeling a gentle caress on your arm would likely involve all of the following except ________.
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) tactile discs
C) Pacinian corpuscles
D) hair follicle receptors
C) Pacinian corpuscles
A patient who received a blow to the side of the skull exhibits the following signs and symptoms on that side of the face: he is unable to close his eye, and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve has been damaged?
A) facial
B) glossopharyngeal
C) hypoglossal
D) accessory
A) facial
If the ventral root of a spinal nerve were cut, what would be the result in the tissue or region that nerve supplies?
A) complete loss of sensation
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
C) loss of neither sensation nor movement but only of autonomic control
D) a complete loss of sensation and movement
B) a complete loss of voluntary movement
The anteriolateral pathways ________.
A) are evolutionarily newer than the specific pathways
B) receive inputs from a single type of sensory receptor
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
D) are also called the lemniscal system
C) are involved in the emotional aspects of perception
The suprachiasmatic nucleus is found in the ________.
A) pons
B) thalamus
C) hypothalamus
D) medulla
C) hypothalamus
Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, and VII are found in the ________.
A) midbrain
B) medulla
C) pons
D) cerebrum
C) pons
The arbor vitae refers to ________.
A) cerebellar gray matter
B) cerebellar white matter
C) the pleatlike convolutions of the cerebellum
D) flocculonodular nodes
B) cerebellar white matter
The brain stem consists of the ________.
A) cerebrum, pons, midbrain, and medulla
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
C) pons, medulla, cerebellum, and midbrain
D) midbrain only
B) midbrain, medulla, and pons
The primary auditory cortex is located in the ________.
A) prefrontal lobe
B) frontal lobe
C) temporal lobe
D) parietal lobe
C) temporal lobe
Spinocerebellar tracts ________.
A) terminate in the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
C) give rise to conscious experience of perception
D) are found in the dorsal columns of the spinal cord
B) carry proprioceptive inputs to the cerebellum
What cells line the ventricles of the brain?
A) ependymal cells
B) neurons
C) epithelial cells
D) astrocytes
A) ependymal cells
The subarachnoid space lies between what two layers of meninges?
A) arachnoid and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
C) arachnoid and dura
D) dura and epidura
B) arachnoid and pia
The vital centers for the control of heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure are located in the ________.
A) pons
B) medulla
C) midbrain
D) cerebrum
B) medulla
Cell bodies of the sensory neurons of the spinal nerves are located in ________.
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
B) the ventral root ganglia of the spinal cord
C) the thalamus
D) sympathetic ganglia
A) the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal cord
Which fissure separates the cerebral hemispheres?
A) central fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
C) parieto-occipital fissure
D) lateral fissure
B) longitudinal fissure
Which of the following best describes the cerebrum?
A) motor command center
B) visceral command center
C) executive suite
D) decussation center
C) executive suite
A shallow groove on the surface of the cortex is called a ________.
A) sulcus
B) fissure
C) gyrus
D) furrow
A) sulcus
Which of the following generalizations does not describe the cerebral cortex?
A) The cerebral cortex contains three kinds of functional areas.
B) Each hemisphere is chiefly concerned with sensory and motor functions of the contralateral side of the body.
C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
D) No functional area of the cortex works alone.
C) The hemispheres are exactly equal in function.
If the posterior portion of the neural tube failed to develop properly the ________.
A) spinal cord may be affected
B) cranial nerves would not form
C) hindbrain would not be present
D) telencephalon would cease development
A) spinal cord may be affected
The central sulcus separates which lobes?
A) frontal from parietal
B) parietal from occipital
C) temporal from parietal
D) frontal from temporal
A) frontal from parietal
Neural tracts that convey life-saving information to the brain concerning burning pain would be ________.
A) anterior spinothalamic
B) reticulospinal
C) lateral spinothalamic
D) posterior spinothalamic
C) lateral spinothalamic
Which of these would you not find in the cerebral cortex?
A) cell bodies
B) dendrites
C) unmyelinated axons
D) fiber tracts
D) fiber tracts
The hypothalamus ________.
A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature
B) is an important auditory and visual relay center
C) has the Pulvinar body as part of its structure
D) mediates sensations
A) is the thermostat of the body because it regulates temperature
The white matter of the spinal cord contains ________.
A) myelinated nerve fibers only
B) unmyelinated nerve fibers only
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
D) soma that have both myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
C) myelinated and unmyelinated nerve fibers
Which of the following is not a role of the basal nuclei?
A) regulating attention and cognition
B) controlling starting and stopping movements
C) inhibiting unnecessary or antagonistic movements
D) initiating protective reflex actions
D) initiating protective reflex actions
An individual accidentally transected the spinal cord between T1 and L1. This would result in ________.
A) paraplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) quadriplegia
D) spinal shock only
A) paraplegia
Spastic paralysis suggests involvement of the ________.
A) upper motor neurons
B) lower motor neurons
C) spinal nerve roots
D) neuromotor junction
A) upper motor neurons
Ridges of tissue on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres are called ________.
A) gyri
B) sulci
C) fissures
D) ganglia
A) gyri
The frontal lobe is separated from the temporal lobe by the ________.
A) longitudinal fissure
B) lateral sulcus
C) central sulcus
D) cranial fossa
B) lateral sulcus
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
A) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of voluntary muscle control.
B) Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but movement is still possible.
C) Damage to the visual association area results in blindness.
D) Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.
A) Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of voluntary muscle control.
Two terms for the massive motor tracts serving voluntary movement are ________.
A) pyramidal and corticospinal
B) extrapyramidal and rubrospinal
C) segmental and nigrostriatal
D) supplementary and cerebellar-pontine
A) pyramidal and corticospinal
An individual who could trace a picture of a bicycle with his or her finger but could not recognize it as a bicycle is most likely to have sustained damage to the ________.
A) calcarine cortex
B) primary visual area
C) visual association area
D) lateral geniculate body
C) visual association area
Broca's area ________.
A) corresponds to Brodmann's area 8
B) is usually found in the right hemisphere
C) serves the recognition of complex objects
D) is considered a motor speech area
D) is considered a motor speech area
Which part of the cerebral cortex is involved in intellect, cognition, recall, and personality?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) posterior association area
C) limbic association area
D) combined primary somatosensory cortex and somatosensory association cortex
A) prefrontal cortex
The blood-brain barrier is effective against ________.
A) metabolic waste such as urea
B) nutrients such as glucose
C) alcohol
D) anesthetics
A) metabolic waste such as urea
Which of the following is not part of the basal nuclei?
A) putamen
B) lentiform nucleus
C) globus pallidus
D) substantia nigra
D) substantia nigra
All of the following are structures of the limbic system except the ________.
A) hippocampus
B) cingulate gyrus
C) amygdaloid nucleus
D) caudate nucleus
D) caudate nucleus
Which of the following is not a midbrain structure?
A) third ventricle
B) cerebral peduncles
C) corpora quadrigemina
D) red nucleus
A) third ventricle
The process of linking new facts with old facts already stored in the memory bank is called ________.
A) consolidation
B) automatic memory
C) long-term memory
D) rehearsal
A) consolidation
Which category of memory is involved when playing the piano?
A) declarative
B) procedural
C) motor
D) emotional
B) procedural
The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the ________.
A) thalamus
B) reticular formation
C) pyramids
D) limbic system
B) reticular formation
Which of the following would you not find in normal cerebrospinal fluid?
A) glucose
B) red blood cells
C) potassium
D) protein
B) red blood cells
REM sleep is associated with ________.
A) decreased vital signs, such as heart rate and blood pressure
B) decreased activity of the brain, especially the cerebral cortex
C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for the extrinsic eye muscles
D) decreased oxygen use, especially in the cerebral cortex
C) temporary skeletal muscle inhibition except for the extrinsic eye muscles
Which of the following is not a function of the CSF?
A) reduction of brain weight
B) protection from blows
C) nourishment of the brain
D) initiation of some nerve impulses
D) initiation of some nerve impulses
Injury to the hypothalamus may result in all of the following except ________.
A) pathologic sleep
B) loss of body temperature control
C) production of excessive quantities of urine
D) loss of proprioception
D) loss of proprioception
Which association regarding the function and location of the cerebrum is most accurate?
A) sensory-anterior
B) motor-medial
C) sensory-medial
D) motor-anterior
D) motor-anterior
Brain wave amplitude ________.
A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
B) is an average of about 1 V
C) results from subtraction of delta waves from theta waves
D) is the measure of activity of specific individual neurons
A) reflects the number of neurons firing synchronously
Important nuclei of the indirect (multineural) system that receive impulses from the equilibrium apparatus of the inner ear and help to maintain balance by varying muscle tone of postural muscles are the ________.
A) red nuclei
B) vestibular nuclei
C) reticular nuclei
D) superior colliculi
B) vestibular nuclei
Which of the following structures is probably not directly involved in memory?
A) hippocampus
B) medulla
C) amygdala
D) prefrontal cortex
B) medulla
The area of the cortex that is responsible for sensations of the full bladder and the feeling that your lungs will burst when you hold your breath too long is the ________.
A) olfactory cortex
B) gusatory cortex
C) vestibular cortex
D) visceral sensory area
D) visceral sensory area
Which statement about coma is true?
A) Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
B) During coma, brain oxygen consumption resembles that of a waking state.
C) Coma is neurologically identical to syncope.
D) Coma is rarely caused by damage to brain stem structures.
A) Coma is defined as total unresponsiveness to stimuli for a long period of time.
Tremor at rest, shuffling gait, stooped posture, and expressionless face are characteristics of ________.
A) Huntington's disease
B) Parkinson's disease
C) cerebellar disease
D) spinal cord disease
B) Parkinson's disease
Which of the following is the mildest consequence of traumatic brain injury?
A) contusion
B) concussion
C) hemorrhage
D) swelling
B) concussion
Declarative memory ________.
A) is the ability to learn specific information
B) is best remembered in the doing
C) is hard to unlearn when learned once
D) usually involves motor skills
A) is the ability to learn specific information
Which of the following is (are) involved with motor activity (either initiation or coordination)?
A) postcentral gyrus
B) gustatory cortex
C) red nuclei
D) Wernicke's area
C) red nuclei
Which statement is not true?
A) Sleep requirements decline from infancy to early adulthood, level off, then decline again in old age.
B) Half of infant sleep is composed of REM sleep.
C) Ten-year-olds are in REM sleep about 1.5-2 hours per night.
D) Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
D) Stage 4 sleep increases in old age.
Which statement about epilepsy is most accurate?
A) During seizures, sensory messages are processed normally but responses are blocked.
B) Absence seizures typically begin in adolescence and is often severely disabling.
C) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
D) The aura in tonic-clonic seizures typically occurs as the patient regains consciousness.
C) Epilepsy is often genetically induced but also frequently caused by head trauma, stroke, infection, and tumor.
White matter (myelinated fibers) is found in all of the following locations except the ________.
A) corpus callosum
B) cerebral cortex
C) corticospinal tracts
D) outer portion of the spinal cord
B) cerebral cortex
Second-order neurons of both the specific and nonspecific ascending pathways terminate in the ________.
A) spinal cord
B) medulla
C) thalamus
D) somatosensory cortex
C) thalamus
Loss of ability to perform skilled motor activities such as piano playing, with no paralysis or weakness in specific muscles, might suggest damage to the ________.
A) spinal cord
B) premotor cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) rubrospinal tracts
B) premotor cortex
Which brain waves are not normal for awake adults but are common for children?
A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Delta
D) Theta
D) Theta
Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) support and brace neurons
B) anchor neurons to blood vessels
C) guide the migration of young neurons, synapse formation, and helping to determine capillary permeability
D) control the chemical environment around neurons
E) provide the defense for the CNS
E) provide the defense for the CNS
Which of the choices below describes the ANS?
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
B) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles
C) sensory neurons that convey information from somatic receptors in the head, body wall, and limbs and from receptors from the special senses of vision, hearing, taste, and smell to the CNS
D) sensory and motor neurons that supply the digestive tract
A) motor fibers that conduct nerve impulses from the CNS to smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
What are ciliated CNS neuroglia that play an active role in moving the cerebrospinal fluid called?
A) ependymal cells
B) Schwann cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) astrocytes
A) ependymal cells
The sheath of Schwann is also called the ________.
A) myelin sheath
B) axolemma
C) neurilemma
D) white matter
C) neurilemma
Bipolar neurons are commonly ________.
A) motor neurons
B) called neuroglial cells
C) found in ganglia
D) found in the retina of the eye
D) found in the retina of the eye
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
A) cholinesterase
B) norepinephrine
C) acetylcholine
D) gamma aminobutyric acid
C) acetylcholine
Which of the following describes the nervous system integrative function?
A) senses changes in the environment
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
C) responds to stimuli by gland secretion or muscle contraction
B) analyzes sensory information, stores information, makes decisions
The period after an initial stimulus when a neuron is not sensitive to another stimulus is the ________.
A) resting period
B) repolarization
C) depolarization
D) absolute refractory period
D) absolute refractory period
Which of the following is not a special characteristic of neurons?
A) They conduct impulses.
B) They have extreme longevity.
C) They are mitotic.
D) They have an exceptionally high metabolic rate.
C) They are mitotic.
The part of a neuron that conducts impulses away from its cell body is called a(n) ________.
A) axon
B) dendrite
C) neurolemma
D) Schwann cell
A) axon
Which ion channel opens in response to a change in membrane potential and participates in the generation and conduction of action potentials?
A) mechanically gated channel
B) voltage-gated channel
C) leakage channel
D) ligand-gated channel
B) voltage-gated channel
An impulse from one nerve cell is communicated to another nerve cell via the ________.
A) cell body
B) synapse
C) receptor
D) effector
B) synapse
What is the role of acetylcholinesterase?
A) act as a transmitting agent
B) amplify or enhance the effect of ACh
C) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
D) stimulate the production of serotonin
C) destroy ACh a brief period after its release by the axon endings
Which of the following is not a function of the autonomic nervous system?
A) innervation of smooth muscle of the digestive tract
B) innervation of cardiac muscle
C) innervation of glands
D) innervation of skeletal muscle
D) innervation of skeletal muscle
Collections of nerve cell bodies outside the central nervous system are called ________.
A) nuclei
B) nerves
C) ganglia
D) tracts
C) ganglia
The term central nervous system refers to the ________.
A) autonomic nervous system
B) brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
C) brain and spinal cord
D) spinal cord and spinal nerves
C) brain and spinal cord
The substance released at axon terminals to propagate a nervous impulse is called a(n) ________.
A) ion
B) cholinesterase
C) neurotransmitter
D) biogenic amine
C) neurotransmitter
A neuron that has as its primary function the job of connecting other neurons is called a(n) ________.
A) efferent neuron
B) afferent neuron
C) association neuron
D) glial cell
C) association neuron
Saltatory conduction is made possible by ________.
A) the myelin sheath
B) large nerve fibers
C) diphasic impulses
D) erratic transmission of nerve impulses
A) the myelin sheath
Which of the following is not a chemical class of neurotransmitters?
A) acetycholine
B) amino acid
C) biogenic amine
D) ATP and other purines
E) nucleic acid
E) nucleic acid
Which of the following is false or incorrect?
A) An excitatory postsynaptic potential occurs if the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than threshold.
B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.
C) An inhibitory postsynaptic potential occurs if the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory, causing hyperpolarization of the membrane.
B) A nerve impulse occurs if the excitatory and inhibitory effects are equal.
Select the correct statement regarding synapses.
A) Cells with interconnected cytoplasm are chemically coupled.
B) The release of neurotransmitter molecules gives cells the property of being electrically coupled.
C) Neurotransmitter receptors are located on the axons of cells.
D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.
D) The synaptic cleft prevents an impulse from being transmitted directly from one neuron to another.
Ependymal cells ________.
A) are a type of neuron
B) are a type of macrophage
C) are the most numerous of the neuroglia
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
D) help to circulate the cerebrospinal fluid
Neuroglia that control the chemical environment around neurons by buffering potassium and recapturing neurotransmitters are ________.
A) astrocytes
B) oligodendrocytes
C) microglia
D) Schwann cells
A) astrocytes
Schwann cells are functionally similar to ________.
A) ependymal cells
B) microglia
C) oligodendrocytes
D) astrocytes
C) oligodendrocytes
Immediately after an action potential has peaked, which cellular gates open?
A) sodium
B) chloride
C) calcium
D) potassium
D) potassium
Nerve cell adhesion molecules (N-CAMs) ________.
A) release nerve growth factor
B) are found on "pathfinder" neurons
C) are crucial in the production of neurotransmitters
D) are crucial for the development of neural connections
D) are crucial for the development of neural connections
An inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with ________.
A) a change in sodium ion permeability
B) hyperpolarization
C) opening of voltage-regulated channels
D) lowering the threshold for an action potential to occur
B) hyperpolarization
Which of the following will occur when an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is being generated on the dendritic membrane?
A) Specific sodium gates will open.
B) Specific potassium gates will open.
C) Sodium gates will open first, then close as potassium gates open.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
D) A single type of channel will open, permitting simultaneous flow of sodium and potassium.
When a sensory neuron is excited by some form of energy, the resulting graded potential is called a(n) ________.
A) postsynaptic potential
B) excitatory potential
C) action potential
D) generator potential
D) generator potential
Which of the following is not true of graded potentials?
A) They are short-lived.
B) They can form on receptor endings.
C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
D) They can be called postsynaptic potentials.
C) They increase amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point.
Which of the following is true about the movement of ions across excitable living membranes?
A) Ions always move actively across membranes through leakage channels.
B) Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
C) Sodium gates in the membrane can open in response to electrical potential changes.
D) The bulk of the solutions inside a cell are negatively charged.
B) Some ions are prevented from moving down their concentration gradients by ATP-driven pumps.
A second nerve impulse cannot be generated until ________.
A) the membrane potential has been reestablished
B) the Na ions have been pumped back into the cell
C) proteins have been resynthesized
D) all sodium gates are closed
A) the membrane potential has been reestablished
In what way does the interior surface of a cell membrane of a resting (nonconducting) neuron differ from the external environment? The interior is ________.
A) positively charged and contains less sodium
B) negatively charged and contains less sodium
C) negatively charged and contains more sodium
D) positively charged and contains more sodium
B) negatively charged and contains less sodium
If a motor neuron in the body were stimulated by an electrode placed about midpoint along the length of the axon ________.
A) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only
B) muscle contraction would occur
C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
D) the impulse would move to the axon terminal only, and the muscle contraction would occur
C) the impulse would spread bidirectionally
Neurons may be classified according to several characteristics. Which of the following is correct?
A) Group A fibers are mostly somatic sensory and motor and are the smallest in diameter.
B) Group B fibers are highly myelinated and have the highest conduction velocities.
C) Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.
D) A small cross-sectional area allows shorter conduction times.
C) Group C fibers are not capable of saltatory conduction.
Select the correct statement about serial processing.
A) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
B) Input travels along several different pathways.
C) Smells are processed by serial pathways.
D) Memories are triggered by serial processing.
A) Spinal reflexes are an example of serial processing.
Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors?
A) a first-class lever
B) a second-class lever
C) a third-class lever
D) a fourth-class lever
A) a first-class lever
What muscle is responsible for keeping your toes from dragging when walking?
A) extensor digitorum
B) tibialis anterior
C) extensor hallucis longus
D) fibularis tertius
D) fibularis tertius
What is the major factor controlling how levers work?
A) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever
B) the weight of the load
C) the direction the load is being moved
D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum
Which of the following describes fascicle arrangement in a pennate muscle?
A) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle.
B) The fascicular pattern is circular.
C) The fascicles form a triangle.
D) The fascicles are in a fusiform arrangement.
A) The fascicles are short and attach obliquely to a central tendon that runs the length of a muscle.
What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle?
A) the length
B) the shape
C) the number of neurons innervating it
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction
What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called?
A) a synergist
B) an agonist
C) an antagonist
D) a fixator
B) an agonist
When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle?
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively.
C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively.
D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.
A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively.
Which of the following statements is true regarding the total number of skeletal muscles in the human body?
A) There are approximately the same number of muscles as bones: 206.
B) There are approximately 350 muscles in the body.
C) There are over 600 muscles in the body.
D) If one considers the very tiny, insignificant muscles, there are over 1000 muscles in the body.
C) There are over 600 muscles in the body.
The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean?
A) The muscle flexes and rotates a region.
B) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint.
C) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
D) The muscle functions as a synergist.
C) The muscle elevates and/or adducts a region.
Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles?
A) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed.
B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
C) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing.
D) They are often called strap muscles.
B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity.
The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action?
A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi
D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major
B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction
The extensor carpi radialis brevis ________.
A) extends and abducts the wrist and is short
B) extends and adducts the wrist and has a small tendon
C) supinates the forearm and is a superficial muscle
D) extends the thumb and is a deep muscle
A) extends and abducts the wrist and is short
What are the muscles that are found at openings of the body collectively called?
A) convergent muscles
B) circular muscles
C) parallel muscles
D) divergent muscles
B) circular muscles
Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead?
A) the medial pterygoid
B) the zygomaticus major
C) the frontal belly of the epicranius
D) the temporalis
C) the frontal belly of the epicranius
A cute, little curly-haired child is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use?
A) orbicularis oris
B) stylohyoid
C) hyoglossus
D) genioglossus
D) genioglossus
Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck?
A) the scalenes
B) the iliocostalis
C) the spinalis
D) the splenius
A) the scalenes
Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position?
A) the gastrocnemius
B) the sartorius
C) all of the hamstrings
D) the quadriceps femoris
B) the sartorius
Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon?
A) the semitendinosus
B) the sartorius
C) the tibialis anterior
D) the gastrocnemius
D) the gastrocnemius
If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________.
A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
B) lever system is useless
C) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum
D) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end
A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum
Which of the following does not compress the abdomen?
A) internal oblique
B) external oblique
C) transversus abdominis
D) coccygeus
D) coccygeus
A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n) ________.
A) antagonist
B) fixator
C) synergist
D) protagonist
C) synergist
What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts?
A) an antagonist
B) a prime mover
C) a synergist
D) an agonist
C) a synergist
Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings?
A) gracilis
B) semitendinosus
C) semimembranosus
D) biceps femoris
A) gracilis
A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called?
A) platysma
B) masseter
C) zygomaticus
D) buccinator
D) buccinator
Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis.
A) serratus anterior
B) zygomaticus
C) platysma
D) sternocleidomastoid
D) sternocleidomastoid
Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true?
A) Muscles produce movement by pulling on bones.
B) The bones serve as levers.
C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
D) The movements produced may be of graded intensity.
C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally.
Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles?
A) muscle location
B) the type of muscle fibers
C) the type of action they cause
D) muscle shape
B) the type of muscle fibers
Which of the choices below is the major muscle for breathing?
A) diaphragm
B) rectus abdominis
C) latissimus dorsi
D) temporalis
A) diaphragm
Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris?.
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
B) It pulls the lower lip down and back.
C) It draws the eyebrows together.
D) It allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye.
A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips.
In a pennate muscle pattern ________.
A) muscles appear to be straplike
B) there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion
C) there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon
D) muscles look like a feather
D) muscles look like a feather
What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called?
A) speed levers
B) power levers
C) functional levers
D) dysfunctional levers
C) functional levers
Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions?
A) the triceps brachii
B) the anconeus
C) the brachioradialis
D) the flexor digitorum profundus
C) the brachioradialis
Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly?
A) diaphragm alone
B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
C) external intercostals and diaphragm
D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm
B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus
Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh?
A) biceps
B) vastus medialis
C) soleus
D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
First-class levers ________.
A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle
B) are typified by tweezers or forceps
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
D) are the type found in the joints forming the ball of the foot as used in raising the body on the toes
C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location
What do the geniohyoid, hyoglossus, and stylohyoid muscles have in common?
A) All names reflect direction of muscle fibers.
B) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw.
C) All act on the tongue.
D) All names indicate the relative size of the muscle.
C) All act on the tongue.
Adductor magnus, adductor longus, and adductor brevis are parts of a large muscle mass of the ________.
A) lateral rotators
B) anterior compartment of the thigh
C) posterior muscle group of the thigh
D) medial compartment of the thigh
D) medial compartment of the thigh
If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF?
A) first-class lever
B) second-class lever
C) third-class lever
D) fourth-class lever
C) third-class lever
Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh?
A) tibialis posterior
B) vastus lateralis
C) adductor magnus
D) gluteus maximus
C) adductor magnus
Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint?
A) tibialis anterior
B) extensor digitorum longus
C) peroneus tertius
D) peroneus longus
A) tibialis anterior
Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants?
A) the vastus intermedius
B) the vastus medialis
C) rectus femoris
D) the vastus lateralis
D) the vastus lateralis
Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee?
A) hamstring muscles
B) gluteal muscles
C) brachioradialis
D) soleus
A) hamstring muscles
Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion?
A) popliteus
B) tibialis posterior
C) flexor digitorum longus
D) gastrocnemius and soleus
A) popliteus
What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles?
A) Tropomyosin is the name of a contracting unit.
B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules.
D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.
B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules.
Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?
A) skeletal
B) cardiac
C) smooth
D) no muscle can regenerate
C) smooth
Most skeletal muscles contain ________.
A) muscle fibers of the same type
B) a mixture of fiber types
C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers
D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers
B) a mixture of fiber types
Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________.
A) intense exercise of long duration
B) intense exercise of short duration
C) slow exercise of long duration
D) slow exercise of short duration
B) intense exercise of short duration
The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________.
A) increasing stimulus above the threshold
B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers
C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus
Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases?
A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers
B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units
C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons
Which of the following is not a usual result of resistance exercise?
A) increase in the efficiency of the respiratory system
B) increase in the efficiency of the circulatory system
C) increase in the number of muscle cells
D) increase in the number of myofibrils within the muscle cells
C) increase in the number of muscle cells
Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances?
A) Ca2+ and ATP
B) Ca2+ only
C) ATP only
D) ATP and glucose
A) Ca2+ and ATP
Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle
contraction?
A) number of muscle fibers stimulated
B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated
C) load on the fiber
D) muscle length
C) load on the fiber
Myoglobin ________.
A) breaks down glycogen
B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
D) produces the end plate potential
C) stores oxygen in muscle cells
What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage?
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) mitochondria
C) intermediate filament network
D) myofibrillar network
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum
What does oxygen deficit represent?
A) amount of energy needed for exertion
B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
C) the amount of oxygen taken into the body prior to the exertion
D) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion
B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used
Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.
A) contraction
B) relaxation
C) latent
D) refractory
C) latent
Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________.
A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin
B) forming a chemical compound with actin
C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP
What controls the force of muscle contraction?
A) wave summation
B) multimotor unit summation
C) treppe
D) concentric contractions
B) multimotor unit summation
The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________.
A) make and store phosphocreatine
B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments
C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration
What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell?
A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) the T tubules
B) the arrangement of myofilaments
Which of the following are composed of myosin?
A) thick filaments
B) thin filaments
C) all myofilaments
D) Z discs
A) thick filaments
During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites?
A) myosin filaments
B) actin filaments
C) Z discs
D) thick filaments
B) actin filaments
Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell?
A) perimysium
B) endomysium
C) epimysium
D) fascicle
B) endomysium
Smooth muscles that act like skeletal muscles but are controlled by autonomic nerves and hormones are ________.
A) single-unit muscles
B) multiunit muscles
C) red muscles
D) white muscles
B) multiunit muscles
Rigor mortis occurs because ________.
A) the cells are dead
B) sodium ions leak out of the muscle
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions
C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules
Which of the choices below does not describe how recovery oxygen uptake (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions?
A) converts lactic acid back into glycogen stores in the liver
B) resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP in muscle fibers
C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
D) replaces the oxygen removed from myoglobin
C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle
The term aponeurosis refers to ________.
A) the bands of myofibrils
B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
C) the rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) the tropomyosin-troponin complex
B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element
The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________.
A) hemoglobin
B) ATP
C) myoglobin
D) immunoglobin
C) myoglobin
The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________.
A) microtubules
B) mitochondria
C) T tubules
D) myofibrils
D) myofibrils
Which of the following is not a way muscle contractions can be graded?
A) changing the frequency of stimulation
B) changing the strength of the stimulus
C) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction
D) changing the type of neurotransmitter released by the motor neuron
C) changing the type of muscle fibers involved in the contraction
What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called?
A) a sarcomere
B) a myofilament
C) a myofibril
D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
A) a sarcomere
What is the functional role of the T tubules?
A) stabilize the G and F actin
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle
D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction
B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction
What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?
A) form hydroxyapatite crystals
B) reestablish glycogen stores
C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
D) increase levels of myoglobin
C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition
The warm-up period required of athletes in order to bring their muscles to peak performance is called ________.
A) twitch
B) wave summation
C) treppe
D) incomplete tetanus
C) treppe
The main effect of the warm-up period of athletes, as the muscle contractions increase in strength, is to ________.
A) increase the myoglobin content
B) convert glycogen to glucose
C) tone the muscles and stabilize the joints for the workout
D) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
D) enhance the availability of calcium and the efficiency of enzyme systems
During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________.
A) a strong base
B) stearic acid
C) hydrochloric acid
D) lactic acid
D) lactic acid
When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods?
A) relaxation period
B) refractory period
C) latent period
D) fatigue period
B) refractory period
In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________.
A) changes in length and moves the "load"
B) does not change in length but increases tension
C) never converts pyruvate to lactate
D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP
A) changes in length and moves the "load"
The muscle cell membrane is called the ________.
A) endomysium
B) sarcolemma
C) perimysium
D) epimysium
B) sarcolemma
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions?
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke
C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments
D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke
A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments
The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________.
A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism
B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium
C) the site of calcium regulation differs
D) ATP energizes the sliding process
C) the site of calcium regulation differs
Which of the following describes the cells of single-unit visceral muscle?
A) They contract all at once.
B) They are chemically coupled to one another by gap junctions.
C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.
C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials.
Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction?
A) triggers neurotransmitter secretion
B) promotes breakdown of glycogen and ATP synthesis
C) removes contraction inhibitor
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland
Which of the following is true about smooth muscle contraction?
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
B) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements.
C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle.
D) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.
A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers.
Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) it appears to lack troponin
B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
C) there are no sarcomeres
D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell
B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments
Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________.
A) secretion
B) contractility
C) extensibility
D) excitability
A) secretion
The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching.
A) A band
B) I band
C) Z disc
D) M line
A) A band
Which of the following statements is true?
A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei.
B) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules.
C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.
C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei.
An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________.
A) the citric acid cycle
B) glycolysis
C) hydrolysis
D) the electron transport chain
B) glycolysis
Muscle tone is ________.
A) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements
B) the feeling of well-being following exercise
C) a state of sustained partial contraction
D) the condition of athletes after intensive training
C) a state of sustained partial contraction
The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past
C) actin and myosin shortening but not sliding past each other
D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments
A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction?
A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae
B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules
C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
B) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction.
C) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction.
D) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.
A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction.
What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue?
A) the design of the fibers
B) the sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue
D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy
Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers?
A) a sprint by an Olympic runner
B) a long, relaxing swim
C) playing baseball or basketball
D) mountain climbing
B) a long, relaxing swim
Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions?
A) visceral smooth muscle
B) multiunit smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) skeletal muscle
B) multiunit smooth muscle
Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________.
A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin
B) no muscle tension could be generated
C) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel
D) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract
B) no muscle tension could be generated
What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors?
A) motor end plate
B) end of the muscle fiber
C) part adjacent to another muscle cell
D) any part of the sarcolemma
A) motor end plate
Which of the following statements is false or incorrect?
A) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells.
B) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
D) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP.
C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP.
What is the main function of the rods in the eye?
A) depth perception
B) color vision
C) vision in dim light
D) accommodation for near vision
C) vision in dim light
What structure regulates the amount of light passing to the visual receptors of the eye?
A) aqueous humor
B) lens
C) cornea
D) iris
D) iris
Receptors for hearing are located in the ________.
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) tympanic membrane
D) vestibule
A) cochlea
Which of the follow types of neurons are replaced throughout adult life?
A) olfactory receptor cells
B) retinal bipolar cells
C) retinal ganglion cells
D) auditory outer and inner hair cells
A) olfactory receptor cells
The oil component found in tears is produced by the ________.
A) lacrimal glands
B) ciliary gland
C) conjunctiva
D) tarsal glands
D) tarsal glands
The receptor for static equilibrium is the ________.
A) semicircular canals
B) macula
C) utricle
D) cochlear duct
B) macula
Farsightedness is more properly called ________.
A) myopia
B) hypopia
C) hyperopia
D) presbyopia
C) hyperopia
Seventy percent of all sensory receptors are located in the ________.
A) eye
B) ears
C) skin
D) nose
A) eye
Which of the following structures is not part of the external ear?
A) pinna
B) external acoustic meatus
C) tympanic membrane
D) pharyngotympanic tube
D) pharyngotympanic tube
Nerve fibers from the medial aspect of each eye ________.
A) go to the superior colliculus only
B) pass posteriorly without crossing over at the chiasma
C) divide at the chiasma, with some crossing and some not crossing
D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
D) cross over to the opposite side at the chiasma
Ordinarily, it is not possible to transplant tissues from one person to another, yet corneas can
be transplanted without tissue rejection. This is because the cornea ________.
A) is not a living tissue
B) has no nerve supply
C) has no blood supply
D) does not contain connective tissue
C) has no blood supply
The oval window is connected directly to which passageway?
A) scala vestibuli
B) external acoustic meatus
C) pharyngotympanic tube
D) scala tympani
A) scala vestibuli
There are three layers of neurons in the retina. The axons of which of these neuron layers form the optic nerves?
A) bipolar cells
B) ganglion cells
C) cone cells
D) rod cells
B) ganglion cells
The first "way station" in the visual pathway from the eye, after there has been partial
crossover of the fibers in the optic chiasma, is the ________.
A) superior colliculi
B) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
C) visual cortex
D) temporal lobe
B) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
As sound levels increase in the spiral organ (of Corti), ________.
A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
B) outer hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
C) inner hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
D) inner hair cells bend the cilia away from the kinocilium
A) outer hair cells stiffen the basilar membrane
Which of the following is true about gustatory receptors?
A) In order for a chemical to be sensed, it must be hydrophobic.
B) The receptors generate an action potential in response to chemical stimuli.
C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
D) All gustatory receptors have the same threshold for activation.
C) Complete adaptation occurs in about one to five minutes.
Taste buds are not found ________.
A) in fungiform papillae
B) in filiform papillae
C) in circumvallate papillae
D) lining the buccal cavity
B) in filiform papillae
Select the correct statement about olfaction.
A) Olfactory receptors have a high degree of specificity toward a single type of chemical.
B) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
C) Substances must be volatile and hydrophobic in order to activate olfactory receptors.
D) Olfactory adaptation is only due to fading of receptor cell response.
B) Some of the sensation of olfaction is actually one of pain.
What prevents the eyelids from sticking together when the eyes close?
A) lacrimal fluid
B) ciliary gland secretions
C) tarsal gland secretions
D) conjunctival fluid
C) tarsal gland secretions
Which of the following taste sensations is incorrectly matched to the chemicals that produce it?
A) sweetorganic substances such as sugar and some lead salts
B) souracids
C) saltymetal ions
D) bitteralkaloids
E) umamiamino acids glutamate and lysine
E) umamiamino acids glutamate and lysine
U.S. employees must wear hearing protection at ________ dB or above.
A) 100
B) 90
C) 80
D) 70
B) 90
What is a modiolus?
A) bone in the center of a semicircular canal
B) bone around the cochlea
C) a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea
D) a bony area around the junction of the facial, vestibular, and cochlear nerves
C) a bone pillar in the center of the cochlea
Which statement about malnutrition-induced night blindness is most accurate?
A) The most common cause is vitamin D deficiency.
B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
C) Visual pigment content is reduced in both rods and cones.
D) The impaired vision is caused by reduced cone function.
B) Vitamin supplements can reverse degenerative changes.
Dark adaptation ________.
A) is much faster than light adaptation
B) results in inhibition of rod function
C) involves improvement of acuity and color vision
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
D) involves accumulation of rhodopsin
Conscious perception of vision probably reflects activity in the ________.
A) thalamus
B) occipital lobe of the cortex
C) chiasma
D) superior colliculus
B) occipital lobe of the cortex
In the visual pathways to the brain, the optic radiations project to the ________.
A) medial retina
B) lateral geniculate body
C) primary visual cortex
D) optic chiasma
C) primary visual cortex
Visual inputs to the ________ serve to synchronize biorhythms with natural light and dark.
A) pretectal nuclei
B) lateral geniculate body
C) superior colliculi
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
Information from balance receptors goes directly to the ________.
A) motor cortex
B) visual cortex
C) brain stem reflex centers
D) back muscles
C) brain stem reflex centers
Motion sickness seems to ________.
A) respond best to medication taken after salivation and pallor begins
B) respond best to medication that "boosts" vestibular inputs
C) result from activation of nausea centers in the brain stem
D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
D) result from mismatch between visual and vestibular inputs
In the uterus ________.
A) the fetus cannot see and therefore visual cortical connections are not made
B) the fetus can see only light and shadow, but not forms, so partial visual connections are made
C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established
D) scanty visual connections are made that proliferate greatly during infancy
C) despite the fact that the fetus cannot see, functional visual cortical connections are established
Most newborns ________.
A) are myopic
B) often use only one eye at a time
C) see in tones of red and green only
D) cry with copious tears
B) often use only one eye at a time
The blind spot of the eye is where ________.
A) more rods than cones are found
B) the macula lutea is located
C) only cones occur
D) the optic nerve leaves the eye
D) the optic nerve leaves the eye
The first vestiges of eyes in the embryo are called ________.
A) mesenchyme
B) optic discs
C) optic vesicles
D) optic cups
C) optic vesicles
Which pairing of terms is incorrectly related?
A) frequency: loudness
B) quality: frequency number
C) amplitude: sound intensity
D) frequency: wavelength number
A) frequency: loudness
Olfactory cells and taste buds are normally stimulated by ________.
A) substances in solution
B) stretching of the receptor cells
C) the movement of otoliths
D) movement of a cupula
A) substances in solution
Which of the following could not be seen as one looks into the eye with an ophthalmoscope?
A) macula lutea
B) optic chiasma
C) fovea centralis
D) optic disc
B) optic chiasma
The cells of the retina in which action potentials are generated are the ________.
A) rods and cones
B) bipolar cells
C) ganglion cells
D) amacrine cells
C) ganglion cells
During dark adaptation ________.
A) the sensitivity of the retina decreases
B) the rate of rhodopsin breakdown is accelerated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
D) the cones are activated
C) rhodopsin accumulates in the rods
Tinnitis, vertigo, and gradual hearing loss typify the disorder called ________.
A) Ménière's syndrome
B) conjunctivitis
C) strabismus
D) motion sickness
A) Ménière's syndrome
Which of the following is not a characteristic of olfactory receptor cells?
A) They are ciliated.
B) They are unipolar neurons.
C) They are chemoreceptors.
D) They have a short life span of about 60 days.
B) They are unipolar neurons.
An essential part of the maculae involved in static equilibrium is (are) the ________.
A) spiral organ (of Corti)
B) cupula
C) scala media
D) otoliths
D) otoliths
Which of the following is true about light and vision?
A) Human photoreceptors respond to light in the 100-300 nm range.
B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the color being experienced.
C) Light is a form of electromagnetic radiation that slows down as it enters a medium of relatively less density.
D) The greater the incident angle of light striking a refractive surface, the less the amount of light bending.
B) When we see the color of an object, all light is being absorbed by that object except for the
color being experienced.
The tarsal plate of the eyelid ________.
A) is composed of connective tissue surrounding a thin cartilage plate
B) is connected to the superior rectus muscle
C) is connected to the levator palpebrae
D) assists in the act of winking
C) is connected to the levator palpebrae
Which of the following is true about photoreceptors?
A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
B) In dim light, images are focused directly on the rods in the fovea centralis.
C) Three types of color-sensitive photoreceptors exist: red, green, and yellow.
D) If all cones are stimulated equally, all colors are absorbed by the cones and the color perceived is black.
A) Rods absorb light throughout the visual spectrum but confer only gray tone vision.
Select the correct statement about equilibrium.
A) The weight of the endolymph contained within the semicircular canals against the maculae is responsible for static equilibrium.
B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
C) Hair cells of both types of equilibrium hyperpolarize only, resulting in an increased rate of impulse transmission.
D) Due to dynamic equilibrium, movement can be perceived if rotation of the body continues at a constant rate.
B) Cristae respond to angular acceleration and deceleration.
The eye muscle that elevates and turns the eye laterally is the ________.
A) lateral rectus
B) superior oblique
C) inferior oblique
D) medial rectus
C) inferior oblique
The receptor membranes of gustatory cells are ________.
A) basal cells
B) gustatory hairs
C) fungiform papillae
D) taste buds
B) gustatory hairs
Light passes through the following structures in which order?
A) vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor, cornea
B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
C) cornea, vitreous humor, lens, aqueous humor
D) aqueous humor, cornea, lens, vitreous humor
B) cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor
Damage to the medial recti muscles would probably affect ________.
A) refraction
B) accommodation
C) convergence
D) pupil constriction
C) convergence
Which statement about sound localization is not true?
A) It requires processing at the cortical level.
B) It requires input from both ears.
C) It uses time differences between sound reaching the two ears.
D) It is difficult to discriminate sound sources in the midline.
A) It requires processing at the cortical level.
Which of the following is not a possible cause of conduction deafness?
A) impacted cerumen
B) middle ear infection
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
D) otosclerosis
C) cochlear nerve degeneration
Visual processing in the thalamus does not contribute significantly to ________.
A) depth perception
B) high-acuity vision
C) night vision
D) movement perception
C) night vision
Visible light fits between ________.
A) X rays and UV
B) gamma rays and infrared
C) microwaves and radio waves
D) UV and infrared
D) UV and infrared
Ceruminous glands are ________.
A) saliva glands found at the base of the tongue
B) modified apocrine sweat glands
C) glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
D) modified taste buds
B) modified apocrine sweat glands