Study sets, textbooks, questions
Upgrade to remove ads
NMSK - Basecamp
Terms in this set (72)
A patient who is able to achieve & maintain upright posture and control their center of gravity best describes?
What are the 3 components of balance?
A. Somatosensory, proprioception, vestibular
B. Proprioception, strength, visual
C. Somatosensory, visual, vestibular
Children rely heavily on ______ input for balance
Somatosensory receptors are located in?
A. joints, muscles, ligaments
B. Muscles only
C. Joints, muscles, ligaments, & skin
What type of input provided to joints may relay balance information to the brain?
C. Tactile & visual
D. proprioceptive & tactile
A patient demonstrates improvements in maintaining balance on a level surface. What is the best way to challenge the somatosensory system?
A. instruct patient to close eyes
B. Have the patient stand on a unstable surface (foam)
C. instruct patient to engage in head turns
The vestibular system provided the CNS with feedback regarding?
A. Position & movement of head in relation to gravity
B. Perceptul acuity
C. Joint and body position
The labyrinth consists of?
A. 3 SCC (semicircular canals) and 4 otolith organs
B. 3 SCC filled with endolymph & 2 otolith organs
C. 1 SCC filled with endolymph & 2 otoliths
Semicircular canals respond/detect _____ acceleration/deceleration of the head
Otolith organs sense gravity and _____ acceleration/deceleration
Vestibular-ocular reflex function:
A. gaze stabilization thru eye movement that counter movement of the head
B. stabilization with head movements and coordination of the trunk during upright postures
C. Provides CNS with feedback regarding head movements
The VOR works to maintain a stable image on the ______ during movement
A therapist holds an image 12 inches away from a patients face and instructs the patient to move their head from side to side. What reflex allows the patient to be able to coordinate their eyes to produce a clear image when doing so?
What is needed for VOR adaptation in order to restore VOR gain back to 1:1?
Vestibulospinal reflex functions to?
A. provide info to CNS regarding perceptual acuity
B. Allows patient to maintain control of center of gravity
C. Stabilize body & control movement (stability while head is moving & coordination trunk during upright posture)
What balance strategy is used when a small perturbation is applied to the patients trunk during static standing?
A. hip strategy
B. ankle strategy
What strategy would be used when a patient was standing while riding a bus and it came to a sudden and very abrupt stop to assist in maintaining balance?
A patient begins to slip on ice and in order to recover balance they bend the knees and go into a squat position. What balance strategy is described here?
A patient presenting with a cerebellar stroke who presents with severe ataxia is practicing balance activities. As you prove perturbations to the trunk the patients loses balance and takes a step forward to recover. What strategy is best described here?
_____ describes a sense of movement and rotation of oneself or the surrounding environment
What would be most indicative of a positive romberg test?
A. sustained dizziness with static positioning
B. increased postural sway with static positioning
C. sustained dizziness during dynamic activity
D. increased postural sway during dynamic activity
Which muscle group would initially respond to a small anterior perturbation?
B. hip flexors
D. hip extensors
Which of the following conditions results in the greatest amount of postural sway in quiet stance?
A. absent visual input
B. disturbed visual input
C. disturbed somatosensory input
D. disturbed visual and somatosensory input
Anticipatory postural activity is most heavily dependent on
A. previous experience and learning
B. adequate muscle strength
C. appropriate sensory input
D. rapid reaction time
The functional reach test is used to assess?
A. scapular mobility
B. balance and fall risk
C. hip strategy in balance reactions
D. limits of stability in the medial-lateral direction
A patient presents to PT with complaints of frequent episodes of dizziness that are worse with head movements to the left. Which condition best aligns with the presentation?
_____ is the abnormal eye movement that entails nonvolitional rhythmic oscillation of the eyes
_______ nystagmus is a form of nystagmus is typically mild & doesn't change in severity over the person's lifetime. Not usually associated with other pathology.
Which type of nystagmus listed below is caused by an imbalance of vestibular signals to the oculomotor neurons that causes a constant drift in one direction the is countered by a quick movement in the opposite direction & usually last 24 hrs and occurs after an acute vestibular lesion
Which type of nystagmus occurs with a peripheral vestibular lesions & is inhibited when the patient fixates their vision on an object
Which type of nystagmus occurs with a central lesion of the brainstem/cerebellum 7 is not inhibited by visual fixation on an object
What type of nystagmus is induced by a change in head position and usually last for a few seconds.
What type of nystagmus occurs when the eyes shift from a primary position to an alternate position
Central nystagmus occurs in what direction
unidirectional or bidirectional
Peripheral nystagmus occurs in which direction?
A. unidirectional w/thefast segment of movement indicating the opposite direction of lesion
C. vertical direction
A patient scores a 26 on the berg balance scale. What does this score best indicate?
A. patient is at no increased risk for falls
B. patient is at increased risk for falls
C. This is the max score
Which balance outcome measure is designed to identify which sensory system the patient relies on the most?
A. clinical test of sensory interaction on balance
B. Best Test
Which term best describes the inability to interpret?
________ is the inability to read o comprehend written language secondary to a lesion within the dominant lobe of the brain
What term best describes the inability to identify objects by feel only in absence of visual systems
______ is the inability to perform particular purposive actions or particular movements on command
______ is the inability to write
______ is characterized by changes in vocal quality such as harshness, hoarseness or breathiness
With ______ aphasia word output and speech production are functional but the speech lacks any substance, use of paraphasias and neologisms
A. fluent aphasia
B. non-fluent aphasia
Fluent aphasia frequently involves the temporal lobe, wernicke's, or regions of the parietal lobe. T/F
This type of aphasia is characterized by poor word output, articulation, and an increased effort for speech
non-fluent aphasia frequently involve the frontal lobe of dominant hemisphere is affected. T/F
a patient presents to therapy and is able to speak well (can articulate words well, use paraphasias) but none of it makes sense. The patient also seems to have issues with comprehension and naming abilities. Which type of aphasia does this best describe?
Wernicke's aphasia (receptive aphasia) where is the lesion usually located?
A. posterior region of superior temporal gyrus -- temporal lobe
B. parietal lobe
C. frontal lobe
A patient presents to therapy with and has issues with repetition during speech and often has word finding difficulties. Fluency is intact as well as comprehension. What type of aphasia does this best describe?
With conduction aphasia, where is the lesion located?
A. Temporal lobe
B. supramarginal gyrus, arcuate fasciculus -- parietal lobe
C. 3rd convolution of frontal lobe
A patient presents to therapy who demonstrates frustration with language skills/errors (impaired naming skills, repetition of works, utterances such as "and, or, but.") There is a loss of normal grammatical structure. This best describes?
______ is the most common form of aphasia
Broca's aphasia (expressive aphasia) lesion is located?
A. 3rd convolution of frontal lobe
B. frontal, temporal, parietal
C. parietal lobe
A patient presents with issues with naming, writing, impaired comprehension, and is unable to articulate & comprehend words. The patient often utilizes nonverbal skills for communication. This best describes?
With global aphasia, where is the lesion located?
A. frontal, temporal, parietal lobes
B. motor cortex
C. temporal lobe
what is a common cause of global aphasia?
Verbal apraxia is a non-dysarthric & non-sphasic impairment of rhythm/sounds of speech and articulation of speech secondary to deficits in?
A. motor planning
B. motor disorder of speech
_______ is a motor disorder of speech that is caused by an UMN lesion that affects the muscles used to articulate words/sounds
B. verbal apraxia
C. conduction aphasia
Cranial nerve 1: olfactory afferent
What is the afferent for cranial nerve 2: optic
sight (eye) (also afferents for pupillary. & accommodation reflexes)
Which cranial nerves are part of the central nervous system?
A. CN 1
B. CN1 & 2
C. CN3 & 4
A patient presents to therapy and you shine a light into their right eye and there is no constriction of either pupil but when light is shined into the left eye both pupils constrict. Which cranial nerve is injured?
A. R CN2 (optic nerve)
B. L CN 2 (optic nerve)
C. R CN 3 (oculomotor)
A patient presents to therapy for eval and you are testing their cranial nerves. You shine a light into their right eye and only the left pupil constricts. When you shine light into the left eye only the left pupil constrict. Which cranial nerve is injured?
A. R CN 2 (optic)
B. L CN 3 (oculomotor)
C. R CN 3 (oculomotor)
C (loss of consensual pupillary light reflex)
CN 3: oculomotor is the efferent for?
pupillary & accommodation reflexes
What is the function of CN 3?
A. sensation of the face
B. afferent for pupillary & accommodation reflexes
C. controls eye movements (medial rectus, inferior rectus, superior rectus, inferior oblique)
A patient presents to therapy with a droopy eyelid, dilated pupil, and reports difficult with focusing on close objects. What CN is most likely to be affected?
A. CN 2
B. CN 4
C. CN 3
CN 4: trochlear is the efferent for what reflex?
vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR)
What is the function of CN 4?
A. moving eye medially & down (superior oblique)
B. Moving eye medially & up
C. Constriction of the pupil & adjustment of the shape of the lens
CN 5: Trigeminal is the afferent for?
A. touch & pain to face/mouth/anterior tongue/sinuses
B. Corneal reflex
C. Both A & B
CN 5: Trigeminal nerve is the efferent for?
A. muscle of mastication
B. Lateral rectus (abduction of eye)
C. Muscle of the tongue
What are the 3 divisions of the trigeminal nerve?
A. anterior, middle, lower
B. ophthalmic, maxillary, & mandibular
C. posterior, superior, inferior
Sets found in the same folder
NPTE Final Frontier
MSK Practice Questions - Full Questions,…
MSK - Basecamp
Other sets by this creator
Medical Concerns for SCI
Recommended textbook solutions
Clinical Reasoning Cases in Nursing
Julie S Snyder, Mariann M Harding
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process
Julie S Snyder, Linda Lilley, Shelly Collins
The Human Body in Health and Disease
Gary A. Thibodeau, Kevin T. Patton
Mathematics for Health Sciences