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CPT Practice Exam

Terms in this set (400)

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance?

a. Neuromuscular control
b. perturbation
c. somatosensation
d. sensorimotor function
c. perturbation
Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following?

a. landing mechanics
b. power development
c. core stability
d. force production
a. landing mechanics
Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance?

a. dynamic balance
b. semi-dynamic balance
c. stable balance
d. static balance
b. semi-dynamic balance
When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?

a. rags and cleaning supplies
b. the vacuum cleaner, in case a personal trainer has to clean up during the shift
c. the remote control for the tv's or sound system
d. the aed, in case the personal trainer will need to perform cpr on a health club member
d. the aed, in case the personal trainer will need to perform cpr on a health club member
Which benefit listed is not correct regarding resistance training?

a. Increased hypertrophy (size increase) of muscle fibers
b. A decrease in metabolic rate
c. A decrease in heart rate/pulse at rest
d. A reduction in blood pressure at rest
b. a decrease in metabolic rate
Which of the following answers indicates a primary difference between working as an independent contractor and working as an employee?

a. An independent contractor can expect client referrals from a facility, while an employee will have to find clients on the gym floor.
b. An employee can earn more per hour than an independent contractor.
c. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
d. An employee can establish their own hours, while an independent contractor must adhere to a specific work schedule.
c. An independent contractor is responsible for paying their own taxes, while an employee has taxes withheld by the employer.
You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?

a. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management.
b. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories.
c. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
d. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain.
c. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
Why is it important for clients to learn how to accelerate, decelerate, and stabilize in all planes of motion?

a. Athletic performance is a universal goal.
b. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
c. Most injuries occur in the sagittal plane.
d. Multiplanar training eliminates the risk for injury.
b. Injuries often occur when rotating or moving laterally.
Empathy is best described as?

a. Listening to a client but not providing any support
b. The ability to identify with how another person feels
c. Being positive and outgoing during training sessions
d. Providing instrumental support to an individual
b. The ability to identify with how another person feels
Which lower-body stretch is considered controversial and may be a risk for injury?

a. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
b. Assisted supine hamstring stretch
c. Supine hamstrings stretch
d. Standing hamstring stretch
a. Inverted hurdler's stretch for hamstrings
Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system?

a. Visual system
b. Auditory system
c. Vestibular system
d. Somatosensory system
a. Visual system
What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?

a. To set prices for supplements
b. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used
c. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
d. To ban illegal substances
c. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products
Creatine is most effective for what purpose?

a. Improving strength and muscle size
b. Improving heart health
c. Damaging the kidneys
d. Improving endurance
a. Improving strength and muscle size
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?

a. The actin pulling the myosin toward the center of the sarcomere
b. The Z-lines moving farther apart
c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
d. The lengthening of a sarcomere after a muscle contraction
c. The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
What three joint actions comprise triple extension?

a. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension
b. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion
c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
d. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion
c. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension
What statement best describes a low-cost health club?

a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that provides amenities like locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
When a person is ambivalent about changing, what stage of change are they likely in?

a. Maintenance
b. Precontemplation
c. Contemplation
d. Action
c. Contemplation
The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring?

a. Flexion and extension
b. Adduction and abduction
c. Abduction and extension
d. Supination and pronation
a. Flexion and extension
Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise?

a. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual
b. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual
c. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
d. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual
Which movement assessment utilizes weighted pullies to assess a pushing movement?

a. Standing overhead press
b. Davies test
c. Standing pull assessment
d. Standing push assessment
d. Standing push assessment
Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement?

a. 80/120 mm Hg
b. 125/75 mm Hg
c. 120/60 mm Hg
d. 120/80 mm Hg
d. 120/80 mm Hg
Which of the following workout stages can include steady-state exercise?

a. Stage 4
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 5
b. Stage 2
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?

a. Reflective listening
b. Motivational interviewing
c. Collecting summaries
d. Affirming
b. Motivational interviewing
What causes coronary heart disease?

a. Cirrhosis
b. Osteoporosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Tuberculosi
c. Atherosclerosis
Maintaining one's balance while running on an uneven surface can best be described as what type of balance?

a. Static balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Stationary balance
b. Dynamic balance
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Arteriosclerosis
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Hypoglycemia
b. Arteriosclerosis
Which of the following statements is the most accurate when discussing strength-training machines?

a. Machines are superior to free weights for improving core stability because they increase core stability demands.
b. Machines always work well for those who are obese or are smaller or taller than average.
c. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
d. Machines work in multiple planes and allow for greater gains in strength development.
c. Not all strength-training machines are designed to fit all body types and thus can limit the effectiveness of the intended exercise.
Receptors involved with this sense are specifically responsible for determining angular accelerations of the head while bending over to pick something up off the ground.

a. Sensorimotor function
b. Vestibular
c. Visual
d. Somatosensory
b. Vestibular
Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?

a. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press
b. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
c. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown
d. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
d. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
What are the two categories of bone markings?

a. Depressions and processes
b. Surface and deep
c. Short and long
d. Irregular and flat
a. Depressions and processes
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?

a. Short-term contractions
b. Smaller in size
c. Slow to fatigue
d. Increased oxygen delivery
a. Short-term contractions
Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise?

a. High-impact activity
b. Low-impact activity
c. Loaded movement training
d. Proprioceptive training
b. Low-impact activity
When is a muscle considered overactive?

a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
b. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation
c. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity
d. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment
a. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?

a. Anterior oblique subsystem
b. Lateral subsystem
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Posterior oblique subsystem
b. Lateral subsystem
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

a. Adductor complex
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Tensor fascia latae
d. Lower trapezius
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?

a. YMCA 3-minute step test
b. Rockport 1-mile walk test
c. 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test
d. Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1) test
a. YMCA 3-minute step test
What is the best definition of essential when discussing human nutrition?
Select one:
a. Needed to build muscle
b. Contained within healthy food items
c. Another word for macronutrients
d. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
d. Must be obtained in the diet, as the body is incapable of producing the nutrient on its own
What is the best type of plyometric exercise for a beginner client?

a. Dynamic motion
b. Fast, powerful movements
c. Small jumps
d. Explosive jumps
c. Small jumps
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

a. Lateral pelvic tilt
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
c. Posterior pelvic tilt
d. Medial pelvic tilt
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?

a. Muscle imbalance
b. Reciprocal inhibition
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Length-tension relationship
b. Reciprocal inhibition
What are the basic two types of disease?

a. Chronic and acute
b. Acute and contagious
c. Chronic and not contagious
d. Chronic and noncommunicable
a. Chronic and acute
Starting at what percentage of bone density loss does the risk of hip fracture increase by 2.5 times?

a. 5%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 10%
d. 10%
What is bioenergetics?

a. The study of metabolism during exercise
b. The study of aerobic metabolism
c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
d. The study of weight loss
c. The study of the ways in which food is turned into energy
What area of the chest contains the heart?

a. Ventricle
b. Atrium
c. Mediastinum
d. Myofibril
c. Mediastinum
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?

a. Gluteus maximus and medius
b. Tensor fascia latae
c. Adductor complex
d. Lower trapezius
a. Gluteus maximus and medius
Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?

a. Overhead squat assessment
b. Dynamic posture assessment
c. Performance assessment
d. Static posture assessment
d. Static posture assessment
How can basal metabolic rate (BMR) best be defined?

a. An anabolic hormone produced by the liver, which is responsible for growth and development
b. The amount of energy required to maintain the body when active
c. A method to help determine an individual's heart rate
d. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
d. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
Which of the following parts of the body is not subject to increases in density through resistance training?

a. Soft tissue
b. Bone
c. Nerves
d. Heart
c. Nerves
In which population is type 1 osteoporosis most prevalent?

a. Postmenopausal women
b. Women under the age of 50
c. Men under the age of 50
d. Adolescent girls
a. Postmenopausal women
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded?

a. Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation
b. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
c. Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
d. Increased catabolic hormone stimulation
b. Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?

a. Goal setting
b. Self-monitoring
c. Contemplation
d. Imagery
b. Self-monitoring
What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Cancer and bleeding disorders
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
c. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis
d. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension
b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis
SAQ training among seniors may help prevent which of the following conditions?

a. There is no evidence to show that SAQ programs for seniors may prevent this condition.
b. Arthritis
c. Lung cancer
d. Osteopenia
d. Osteopenia
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?

a. Isolating
b. Bracing
c. Drawing in
d. Inhibition
c. Drawing in
What is defined as the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to being recruited to develop increased levels of tension, as seen in resistance training?

a. Muscular atrophy
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Osteopenia
d. Sarcopenia
b. Muscular hypertrophy
Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support?

a. Moderate-level balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
c. Dynamic balance
d. Static balance
b. Semi-dynamic balance
Which component of SAQ involves the ability to react to a stimulus (i.e., reaction time) and appropriately change the motion of the body in response to that stimulus (such as hitting a baseball)?

a. Quickness
b. Agility
c. Stride rate
d. Speed
a. Quickness
Which food would be classified as a high biological value protein source?

a. Peas
b. Lentils
c. Whole eggs
d. Beans
c. Whole eggs
Providing encouragement and being empathetic is an example of which type of social support?

a. Instrumental support
b. Companionship support
c. Emotional support
d. Informational support
c. Emotional support
In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength?

a. Muscular Development Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Stabilization Endurance Training
d. Power Training
d. Power Training
Omega-3 fatty acids do not include which of the following fatty acids?

a. Palmitic acid
b. Alpha-linolenic acid (ALA)
c. Docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)
d. Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)
a. Palmitic acid
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like?

a. Consistency
b. Intensity
c. Mindlessness
d. Accountability
a. Consistency
Which of the following waist-to-hip ratios (WHRs) places Amy (a female) in the high-risk category for cardiovascular disease?

a. WHR of 0.83
b. WHR of 0.88
c. WHR of 0.78
d. WHR of 0.72
b. WHR of 0.88
A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?

a. Action planning
b. Self-monitoring
c. Goal setting
d. Coping planning
b. Self-monitoring
Which of the following effects of the cardiovascular system occurs during exercise?

a. Increased ventricular filling
b. Decreased venous return
c. Decreased ventricular filling
d. Venous pooling
a. Increased ventricular filling
Which physiological systems comprise the human movement system (HMS)?

a. The vision, vestibular, and somatosensory systems
b. These are not the physiological systems that comprise the HMS.
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
d. The sight, hearing, and taste systems
c. The muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement?

a. Pulling
b. Hip hinge
c. Pushing
d. Squatting
c. Pushing
Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day?

a. Resting metabolic rate
b. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
c. Exercise
d. Thermic effect of food
a. Resting metabolic rate
Ergogenic aids are typically consumed for what purpose?

a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
b. For general well-being
c. To correct nutrient imbalances
d. To mitigate the side effects of medication
a. To improve athletic performance and/or body composition
What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation "muscular strength and hypertrophy" fall into?

a. Stabilization
b. Strength Endurance
c. Muscular Development
d. Powe
c. Muscular Development
Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control?

a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Stride rate
d. Agility
d. Agility
Which joint has the simplest movement, moving either back and forth or side to side?

a. Condyloid
b. Nonaxial
c. Nonsynovial
d. Synovial
b. Nonaxial
In what phase of plyometric exercise does preloading or stretching of the agonist muscle occur?

a. Amortization
b. Eccentric
c. Acceleration
d. Concentric
b. Eccentric
Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way?

a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Osteokinematic
d. Arthrokinematic
d. Arthrokinematic
Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations?

a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM
c. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM
d. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM
a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM
What are the two primary actions of the Golgi tendon organ?

a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
c. Sense the amount of eccentric tendon force and joint range of motion
d. Sense the amount of isometric tendon force and speed of shortening
a. Sense change in muscle-tendon tension and speed of tension change
Extreme dietary restrictions may increase risk for what?

a. Increased bone growth
b. Rapid weight gain
c. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
d. Mineral toxicity
c. Vitamin and mineral deficiencies
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?

a. Medicine ball chest pass
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
c. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Overhead medicine ball throw
b. Medicine ball pullover throw
What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission?

a. Adenosine triphosphate
b. Neurotransmitters
c. Sarcomeres
d. Synapses
b. Neurotransmitters
Which statement best describes the second stage of the sales process?

a. Discussing discounts on various personal training packages
b. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
c. Discussing the customer's budget
d. Communicating the negative side effects of a sedentary lifestyle
b. Communicating solutions for the customer's needs
What is the definition of energy balance?

a. When protein intake is higher than protein breakdown
b. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs
c. When carbohydrates are consumed before a workout
d. When daily food intake is consistent
b. When daily food intake is matched to energy needs
What are the two primary actions of the muscle spindle?

a. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the speed of shortening
b. Sense the change in muscle contraction and the speed of the nerve impulse
c. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
d. Sense the amount of eccentric force and the joint range of motion
c. Sense the change in muscle length and the speed of length change
What is defined as the force imparted by the ground on the body when a body segment makes contact with it?

a. Ground reaction force
b. Deceleration force
c. Acceleration force
d. Stabilization force
a. Ground reaction force
Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client's balance during movement?

a. Overhead squat
b. 40-yard dash
c. Single-leg squat
d. Push-up tes
c. Single-leg squat
Which type of training can be used to improve activation of core muscles compared to traditional core training?

a. Prone dead bugs on floor
b. Planking on a stable surface
c. Instability training using a stability ball
d. Marching on a stable surface
c. Instability training using a stability ball
Which of the following would be the recommended stability ball size for someone under 5 feet tall?

a. 55 cm
b. 75 cm
c. 65 cm
d. 45 cm
d. 45 cm
Inadequate hydration and mild dehydration can have several negative effects on athletic performance, including which of the following?

a. Increased cardiac output
b. Lower body temperature
c. Decreased blood flow
d. Lower rate of perceived exertion (RPE)
c. Decreased blood flow
Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability?

a. Strength machines
b. Terra-Core
c. Resistance bands
d. Suspended bodyweight training
a. Strength machines
What is the primary function of the local muscles of the core?

a. Move the trunk
b. Transfer load between the upper and lower extremities
c. Stabilize vertebral segments
d. Generate large amounts of force during trunk movement
c. Stabilize vertebral segments
Which disease is associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost?

a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
b. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
c. Type 2 diabetes
d. Type 1 diabetes
a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?

a. Personal grooming can help personal trainers appear more in shape, which is important for attracting clients.
b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
c. Personal grooming is critical for creating engaging social media posts.
d. Paying attention to personal grooming will make it easier to make new friends while working.
b. Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
Which of the following exercises is not considered a compound exercise?

a. Bench press
b. Seated leg extension
c. Overhead press
d. Barbell squat
b. Seated leg extension
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?

a. General manager
b. Fitness manager
c. Exercise leader
d. Certified Personal Trainer
c. Exercise leader
Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer?

a. Maria worked as a camp counselor at a youth sports camp while in college.
b. Maria was a co-captain on a state champion volleyball team in high school.
c. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
d. Maria placed second in her first bikini competition.
c. Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
Which disease is caused by specific medical conditions or medications, including alcohol abuse, smoking, specific diseases, or particular medications, that disrupt normal bone reformation?

a. Type 1 (primary) osteoporosis
b. Type 2 diabetes
c. Type 1 diabetes
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
d. Type 2 (secondary) osteoporosis
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior?

a. Self-efficacy
b. Determinants
c. Attitudes
d. Behavior change techniques
b. Determinants
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom?

a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
c. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
d. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA)
a. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)
For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?

a. Individuals recovering from an injury
b. Deconditioned individuals
c. College-aged athletes
d. Older adults
c. College-aged athletes
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?

a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Synergistic dominance
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?

a. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.
b. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be more powerful.
c. The neurological stretch reflex will be optimally activated, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
d. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
d. Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful.
What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model?

a. 2-0-2-0
b. 1-2-3-4
c. X-X-X-X
d. 4-2-1-1
d. 4-2-1-1
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?

a. Knee flexion
b. Ankle plantar flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion
d. Hip abduction
b. Ankle plantar flexion
How are dietary supplements defined?

a. Dietary materials essential for achieving fitness goals
b. Dietary products useful only for bodybuilders
c. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
d. Regulated substances that are too dangerous to discuss with clients
c. Regulated dietary materials used to increase intake of a desired nutritional component
Which postural deviation is most likely to negatively impact ventilation?

a. Adducted and internally rotated knees
b. Anterior pelvic tilt and pronated feet
c. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
d. Posterior pelvic tilt with small low-back arch
c. Rounded shoulders and a forward head posture
Which of the following markers of exercise intensity is considered to be the most subjective?

a. Percentage of VO2max
b. Metabolic equivalents
c. Ratings of perceived exertion
d. Percentage of maximal heart rate
c. Ratings of perceived exertion
What is an appropriate cue that can be given to a client to properly perform the drawing-in maneuver?

a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
b. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, bear down with the muscles of the global core.
c. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, hold your breath and tighten your gluteals.
d. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, tighten all muscles of the global core.
a. To perform the drawing-in maneuver, pull in the region just below the navel toward the spine.
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?

a. Leader's qualities
b. The requirements of the leader
c. Leader's style
d. The personality of the leader
a. Leader's qualities
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?

a. Torque
b. Force velocity
c. Arthrokinematics
d. Force
a. Torque
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

a. Serratus anterior
b. Lower trapezius
c. Cervical extensors
d. Upper trapezius
b. Lower trapezius
What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?

a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.
c. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.
d. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.
a. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
What equation represents power?

a. Time ÷ work
b. a2 + b2 = c2
c. Force x velocity
d. Y = mx + b
c. Force x velocity
What are the three macronutrients?

a. Vitamins, minerals, and phytonutrients
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
c. Protein, carbohydrates, and fluids
d. Carbohydrates, protein, and vitamins
b. Protein, carbohydrates, and lipids
Which of the following is a question that may promote change?

a. What might you want to change?
b. What makes you think that you're not at risk?
c. Why don't you just do this?
d. Why can't you make this change to your schedule?
a. What might you want to change?
What mechanism is responsible for increasing the rate of heart conduction?

a. Activation of sarcomeres
b. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
d. Activation of the intercalated discs
c. Activation of the sympathetic nervous system
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane?

a. Hip abductors
b. Hip flexors
c. Hip internal rotators
d. Hip extensors
a. Hip abductors
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?

a. Shoulder pain
b. Low-back pain
c. Neck pain
d. Leg pain
d. Leg pain
Roderick, an NASM-CPT, has submitted his application to be a personal trainer through the website of a large health club company. What will provide the best opportunity to get noticed by the hiring manager?

a. Posting workout videos to a social media account and tagging the health club and hiring managers
b. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
c. Calling the health club, asking to speak to the hiring manager, and explaining he is perfect for the job
d. Showing up at the club in workout clothes, explaining that he is an applicant, and asking for a free workout
b. Wearing a suit and tie to the health club to drop off a resume with the hiring manager and complete an application in person
If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine?

a. Sternocleidomastoid
b. Rhomboids
c. Upper trapezius
d. Diaphragm
a. Sternocleidomastoid
Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training?

a. Agility
b. Balance
c. Coordination
d. Quickness
d. Quickness
What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?

a. Less force production
b. Larger in size
c. Quick to fatigue
d. Fewer capillaries
a. Less force production
What is a progression for the box jump-down with stabilization?

a. Box jump-up with stabilization
b. Tuck jump with stabilization
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
d. Squat jump with stabilization
c. Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)?

a. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work.
b. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work
c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
d. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?

a. 1
b. 0.1
c. 0.5
d. 0.2
b. 0.1
Which of the following is true about cholesterol?

a. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
b. One can live without cholesterol.
c. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.
d. Cholesterol is found only in the body's major organs.
a. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?

a. Sandbag rotational lunge
b. Kettlebell RDL
c. Stability ball abdominal crunches
d. Cable machine single-arm row
b. Kettlebell RDL
Which of the following best defines cholesterol?

a. A substance that attaches itself to muscles and tendons
b. A raising of blood pressure
c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
d. A narrowing of arteries to the heart
c. A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells
What interventions are suggested for an individual with a resting blood pressure of 134/86 mm Hg?

a. Lifestyle changes alone
b. Medical monitoring coupled with medications to lower blood pressure
c. None are needed, as this value is considered normal (i.e., maintenance is suggested).
d. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
d. Some lifestyle changes coupled with some medical monitoring
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Isometric contraction
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Stretch reflex
c. Reciprocal inhibition
Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model?

a. Sandbags
b. Battle ropes
c. TRX Rip Trainer
d. Strength machines
a. Sandbags
When balancing, the knee of the balance leg should be in line with which structure?

a. The midline of the pelvis of the participant
b. The head of the participant
c. An imaginary point 4 inches lateral to the hip of the participant
d. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
d. The toes of the leg on which the participant is balancing
What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?

a. Inability to exercise 3 times per week
b. Poor SMART goals
c. Too much cardiovascular exercise
d. Postural distortions
d. Postural distortions
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Select one:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Increased end-systolic volume
d. Decreased stroke volume
a. Increased heart rate
How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?
Select one:
a. Reading exercise-science textbooks
b. Reading scholarly research journals
c. Accumulating hours training clients either independently or in a health club
d. Attending fitness industry conferences
d. Attending fitness industry conferences
Which of the following represents a criterion for terminating an exercise test or exercise bout that involves exertion?

a. An elevation of systolic blood pressure to 220 mm Hg
b. Failure of diastolic blood pressure to rise by more than 15 mm Hg
c. Labored or heavy breathing associated with exertion
d. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
d. Any indication of chest pain or angina-like symptoms
Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

a. Heart function
b. Kidney function
c. Thyroid function
d. Liver function
c. Thyroid function
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?

a. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone and cortisol levels.
b. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
c. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and cortisol levels.
d. Inadequate sleep will increase growth hormone levels and decrease cortisol levels
b. Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels.
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the local muscles of the core?

a. Cable rotation
b. Medicine ball soccer throw
c. Floor crunch
d. Side plank
d. Side plank
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following?

a. Groups function only when all members are present.
b. Groups rely only on the leader for support.
c. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in.
d. The group feels distinct from other people.
d. The group feels distinct from other people.
What is excess postexercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)?

a. EPOC is the faster rate of glycolysis that occurs after exercise.
b. EPOC is the increase in protein breakdown that occurs after exercise.
c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
d. EPOC is the increase in breathing rate that occurs during rest periods between exercise intervals.
c. EPOC is the increase in aerobic metabolism above baseline that occurs for a period after exercise.
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist?

a. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
c. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension
d. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation
b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
Which individual listed would be unlikely to use high levels of Maximal Strength Training of the OPT model?

a. Cross-country runner
b. Olympic weightlifter
c. Avid resistance trainer
d. Powerlifter
a. Cross-country runner
Which feature of a food label would enable a client to assess the nutrient composition of a food product?

a. The percent reference intake
b. The nutrient-to-ingredient ratio
c. The nutrition facts panel
d. The ingredients list
c. The nutrition facts panel
Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Power Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
a. Stabilization Endurance Training
A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function?

a. Wolff's law
b. Neuroplasticity
c. Muscle function
d. Motor function
d. Motor function
Which factor will be reduced through training/exercising with correct posture?

a. Physical and mental well-being
b. Cardiorespiratory fitness
c. Flexibility
d. Muscle imbalances
d. Muscle imbalances
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?

a. When process goals are too specific
b. When outcome goals are objective
c. When only one goal is set
d. When goals are not adjusted
d. When goals are not adjusted
The social standing of a person or group that includes education, income, and occupation describes which term?

a. Social influence
b. Net worth
c. Income status
d. Socioeconomic status
d. Socioeconomic status
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?

a. Frontal plane box jump-up
b. Transverse plane box jump-down
c. Sagittal plane box jump-down
d. Sagittal plane box jump-up
b. Transverse plane box jump-down
Which of the following is iron considered to be?

a. Vitamin
b. Trace mineral
c. Performance supplement
d. Macromineral
b. Trace mineral
Excessive anterior pelvic tilt would lead to this posture of the lumbar spine.

a. Decreased kyphosis
b. Increased lordosis
c. Increased kyphosis
d. Decreased lordosis
b. Increased lordosis
Shorter reaction times during amortization may help reduce which of the following?

a. Force production
b. Functional movement
c. Motor unit recruitment
d. Tissue overload
d. Tissue overload
Which sense provides information about movement of the head in space?

a. Somatosensory system
b. Hearing system
c. Vestibular system
d. Visual system
c. Vestibular system
Through an integrated and systematic approach, which order of phases of training is correct?

a. Stabilization Endurance, Muscular Development, Power, Maximal Strength, and Strength Endurance
b. Muscular Development, Power, Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, and Maximal Strength
c. Strength Endurance, Stabilization Endurance, Maximal Strength, Muscular Development, and Power
d. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization Endurance, Strength Endurance, Muscular Development, Maximal Strength, and Power
What are common tools used for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Stretching straps, stability balls, and BOSU balls
b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
c. BOSU balls, air-filled discs, and stability balls
d. Stretching straps, battle ropes, and sandbags
b. Foam rollers, handheld rollers, and massage balls
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?

a. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy.
b. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
d. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity.
c. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?

a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions
b. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power
c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
d. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity
c. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.

a. Precontemplation
b. Contemplation
c. Preparation
d. Maintenance
c. Preparation
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?

a. Plantar fasciitis
b. A sprain
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear
a. Plantar fasciitis
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?

a. Erector spinae
b. Multifidus
c. Internal oblique
d. Transversus abdominis
a. Erector spinae
Which part of a cell is responsible for using nutrients to create energy for the cell?

a. Organelles
b. Effector sites
c. Electrolytes
d. Mitochondria
d. Mitochondria
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?

a. 60 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 30 minutes
d. 30 minutes
Which muscles may be overactive with knee valgus during the single-leg squat?

a. Adductor complex
b. Gluteus maximus and medius
c. Hip flexors
d. Upper trapezius
a. Adductor complex
What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart?

a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
b. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
c. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure
d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
d. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure
When a gymnast balances on a beam, they are aware of their body's general orientation and the relative position of its parts. This is due to which key sensory function?

a. Proprioception
b. Stretch reflex
c. Neuroplasticity
d. Wolff's law
a. Proprioception
Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?

a. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
c. Health Canada
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)
b. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
Which of the following describes attitude?

a. The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior
b. A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal
c. A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior
d. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
d. The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
At what BMI threshold does a person's chance for obesity-related health problems increase?

a. 30
b. 20
c. 22.5
d. 18.5
a. 30
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?

a. Sagittal plane
b. Thoracic spine
c. Frontal plane
d. Lumbar spine
b. Thoracic spine
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?

a. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
b. The scapula protruding excessively from the back
c. The arms falling forward
d. The trunk leaning forward
a. The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
Which of the following is a recommendation when assessing skinfold measurements?

a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
b. Do not give clients prior instructions about measurement protocol, as this can skew results.
c. Take skinfold measurements immediately after exercise.
d. Do not open the jaw of the caliper before removing it from the site.
a. Take a minimum of two measurements at each site; each measurement must be within 1 to 2 mm to take an average at each site.
What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label?

a. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label.
b. There is no difference.
c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
d. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.
c. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.
Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?

a. Previous injury
b. Prime-mover relaxation
c. Laxity of a joint
d. Stabilizer muscle relaxation
a. Previous injury
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways?

a. Self-monitoring
b. Enlisting social support
c. Action planning
d. Coping planning
a. Self-monitoring
Which option is an inaccurate description of the Valsalva maneuver?

a. It increases intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability.
b. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
c. It can raise an individual's heart rate and blood pressure.
d. It involves expiring against a closed glottis.
b. It is a recommended technique for those with hypertension.
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?

a. Pectoralis major
b. Multifidus
c. Iliopsoas
d. Latissimus dorsi
b. Multifidus
How is heart rate collected during the YMCA 3-minute step test to evaluate the cardiorespiratory fitness level of an individual?

a. It is measured over a 10-second count during the last 30 seconds of the test.
b. It is measured over a 30-second count during the last minute of the test.
c. It is measured over a 20-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
d. It is measured over a 60-second count immediately following the test.
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?

a. Pro shuttle
b. 40-yard dash
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP?

a. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain
b. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
c. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
d. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation
What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion?

a. 140 beats per minute
b. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate
c. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise
d. 120 beats per minute
a. 140 beats per minute
What is defined as a consistently elevated blood pressure?

a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypotension
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypertension
d. Hypertension
A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?

a. Suggest that she avoid eating carbohydrates during the week to promote fat loss.
b. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.
c. Suggest that she avoid eating any fat during the week to promote fat loss.
d. Explain that fat loss occurs in a caloric deficit and she should cut her caloric intake drastically over the next week to drop fat fast.
b. Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.
What is another term for the annual training plan that outlines the entire year's worth of programming?

a. Macrocycle
b. Microcycle
c. Megacycle
d. Mesocycle
a. Macrocycle
Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?

a. Caffeine
b. Creatine
c. Hordenine
d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)
d. Dimethylamylamine (DMAA)
The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally?

a. Laterally
b. Medially
c. Inferiorly
d. Superiorly
c. Inferiorly
Regarding free-weight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement?

a. Free weights are less intimidating than machines for those new to exercise.
b. Free-weight training is often safer for a new user when compared to machines.
c. Training with free weights always requires the fitness professional to be a spotter.
d. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
d. Free weights may improve dynamic joint stabilization and proprioception.
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?

a. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors
b. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius
c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius
d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
d. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of activities of daily living separate from planned exercise?
a. Weightlifting
b. Cycling
c. Yardwork
d. Running
c. Yardwork
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?

a. Osteopenia
b. Bone density
c. Sarcopenia
d. Osteoporosis
b. Bone density
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?

a. Squatting
b. Pushing
c. Pulling
d. Hip hinge
a. Squatting
When compared to machines, free weights provide which of the following benefits to users?

a. Increased multiplanar movement
b. Decreased opportunities to perform full-body movements
c. Increased user safety
d. Decreased challenges to balance and stability
a. Increased multiplanar movement
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action?

a. Coping plan
b. Implementation intention
c. Self-monitoring
d. Guided practice
b. Implementation intention
Which common cause of death is the most preventable?

a. Stroke
b. Dementia
c. Cancer
d. Obesity
d. Obesity
Maintaining one's balance while on a skateboard that is moving while the feet remain in a fixed position can be described as what type of balance?

a. Stationary balance
b. Dynamic balance
c. Static balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
d. Semi-dynamic balance
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?

a. Environmental temperature
b. Duration of each stage
c. Talk test
d. Exercise modality
a. Environmental temperature
What is the primary adaptation for the Muscular Development phase of the OPT model?

a. Power
b. Speed
c. Hypertrophy
d. Stabilization
c. Hypertrophy
What are the building blocks of body proteins?

a. Ketone bodies
b. Glucose
c. Triglycerides
d. Amino acids
d. Amino acids
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?

a. Vision
b. Somatosensory
c. Digestive
d. Vestibular
b. Somatosensory
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?

a. Irregular
b. Long
c. Flat
d. Short
b. Long
What best describes the all-or-nothing principle?

a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
b. The switch from type I to type II muscle fibers
c. The switch from type IIa to type IIx muscle fibers
d. All muscle fibers contract, or none at all do.
a. A motor unit will either contract maximally or not at all.
What is defined as the state of elevated glucose in the bloodstream?

a. Hypotension
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hypertension
b. Hyperglycemia
The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?

a. Excitation-contraction coupling
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Homeostasis
d. Fight-or-flight response
c. Homeostasis
What are the three levels of the OPT model?

a. Stabilization, Strength, and Maximal Strength
b. Stabilization, Muscular Development, and Power
c. Strength Endurance, Maximal Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
d. Stabilization, Strength, and Power
What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling?

a. Autogenic inhibition
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
a. Autogenic inhibition
What statement best describes a premium health club?

a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
b. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
c. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
d. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
a. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?

a. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
b. Being motivated by a fear of failure
c. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors
d. A drive to be good at something
a. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises?

a. Depth jumps
b. Dual-foot drills
c. Side-to-side hops
d. Sport skills
b. Dual-foot drills
Overactive hip flexors may lead to which of the following postural compensations?

a. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
c. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
d. Posterior tilting of the pelvis and a decreased low-back arch
b. Anterior tilting of the pelvis and an increased low-back arch
What is the concentric motion of the shoulder blades during the standing cable row exercise?

a. Retraction
b. Elevation
c. Protraction
d. Upward rotation
a. Retraction
What phase of the OPT model aims to maximize prime-mover strength through the lifting of heavy loads?

a. Strength Endurance Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Muscular Development Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
What activity is especially beneficial for combating the loss of muscle mass, power, and strength for aging adults?

a. Resistance training
b. Walking
c. Aerobics
d. Cardio
a. Resistance training
Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?

a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
b. When someone has anxiety about social situations
c. When someone has anxiety about how their physique looks in the mirror
d. When someone has general anxiety about physical activity
a. When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body
Recently, what has become an effective way to deliver customized exercise solutions to clients based on their individual needs?

a. Offering online coaching programs
b. Teaching group fitness workouts
c. Offering customized meal plans for each client
d. Creating exercise programs to heal injured body parts
a. Offering online coaching programs
With type 1 diabetes, what hormone does the pancreas fall short in making?

a. Insulin
b. Testosterone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
a. Insulin
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?

a. Exercise can help control body weight, but it cannot improve blood flow.
b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
c. There is no direct evidence that exercise will result in lower blood pressure.
d. Reducing excessive alcohol use will not have an impact on high blood pressure.
b. Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

a. As exhaled carbon dioxide
b. As exhaled oxygen
c. As water
d. As ATP
a. As exhaled carbon dioxide
For the kinetic chain checkpoints during core exercises, what is the appropriate position of the shoulders?

a. Elevated and slightly retracted
b. Depressed and slightly retracted
c. Depressed and slightly protracted
d. Elevated and slightly protracted
b. Depressed and slightly retracted
Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during an eccentric muscle action?

a. As the contraction velocity decreases, the ability to develop force increases.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
c. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force decreases.
d. As the contraction velocity decreases, the force remains constant.
b. As the contraction velocity increases, the ability to develop force also increases.
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?

a. Acidosis
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Ketosis
d. Glycolysis
b. Beta-oxidation
To increase the metabolic demand of SAQ exercises among weight-loss clients, which of the following adjustments to a workout session could be implemented?

a. Increased complexity of exercises
b. Decreased rest periods
c. Decreased intensity
d. Fewer exercises
b. Decreased rest periods
What is a metabolic disorder in which the body does not produce enough insulin or cannot respond normally to the insulin that is made?

a. Dyspnea
b. Hypertension
c. Diabetes
d. Intermittent claudication
c. Diabetes
Carbohydrate intake prior to intense or long-duration exercise serves which of the following functions?

a. It is the primary energy source for low-intensity and long-duration exercise.
b. It replenishes depleted amino acid stores prior to high-intensity training.
c. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
d. It provides adequate energy for muscle protein synthesis during training.
c. It replenishes glycogen stores and provides adequate fuel for performance.
What best describes triple flexion when referring to frontside mechanics?

a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
b. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the rear leg
c. Ankle dorsiflexion, hip flexion of the lead leg, and elbow flexion
d. Ankle plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension of the rear leg
a. Ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion of the lead leg
Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?

a. Dairy foods
b. Grains
c. Legumes
d. Beans
a. Dairy foods
Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance?

a. Weight training
b. Aqua therapy
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
d. Stable floor environment
c. Biomechanical ankle platform system
What is sarcopenia?

a. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
b. Lower than normal bone mineral density
c. Chronic inflammation of the joints
d. Age-related loss in bone mineral density
a. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?

a. 6 to 10 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
b. 6 to 8 drills allowing greater horizontal inertia but limited unpredictability, such as 5-10-5, T-drill, box drill, and stand-up to figure 8
c. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
d. 10 to 12 drills allowing maximal inertia and unpredictability, such as modified box drill, partner mirror drill, and timed drills
c. 4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following?

a. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling.
b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
c. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.
d. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching.
b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

a. What might you want to change?
b. What might work for you?
c. Why don't you want to change?
d. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
c. Why don't you want to change?
Flexibility is defined as the following:

a. A muscle's capability to be elongated or stretched
b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
c. Optimal flexibility, joint range of motion, and the ability to move freely
d. The degree to which specific joints or body segments can move, often measured in degrees
b. Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Which essential component of an OPT workout is beneficial for developing stability, muscular endurance, hypertrophy, strength, power, and athleticism?

a. Skill development
b. Activation
c. Resistance training
d. Warm-up
c. Resistance training
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Somatic nervous system
c. Central nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
d. Parasympathetic nervous system
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?

a. Gluteus medius
b. Quadriceps
c. Adductor longus
d. Biceps brachii
b. Quadriceps
What is defined as the ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time?

a. Muscular endurance
b. Muscular hypertrophy
c. Rate of force production
d. Stabilization
a. Muscular endurance
Which of the following is the most effective type of exercise to increase proprioceptive demands in training?

a. Exercises using selectorized machines
b. Standing exercises on a gym floor
c. Exercises with free weights
d. Seated exercises
c. Exercises with free weights
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?

a. Isokinetic
b. Eccentric
c. Concentric
d. Isometric
d. Isometric
Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality?

a. Strength machines
b. Suspended bodyweight training
c. Dumbbells
d. ViPR
d. ViPR
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?

a. Provide them with education and knowledge
b. Tell them to exercise with a friend
c. Encourage them to make plans to exercise
d. Help them identify barriers to exercise
a. Provide them with education and knowledge
Which of the following variations of a hop exercise would be the most difficult from a deceleration and balance standpoint?

a. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Multiplanar hop with stabilization
c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
d. Single-leg hop forward
c. Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
You have a youth client. What training frequency is most recommended for a young athlete performing SAQ?

a. 5 to 7 times per week
b. 0 times per week
c. 1 to 3 times per week
d. 4 or 5 times per week
c. 1 to 3 times per week
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate?

a. Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms.
b. It is an acute disease.
c. It is typically a stress-induced condition.
d. It is not a curable disease
d. It is not a curable disease
What types of foods contain carbohydrates?

a. Animal and plant foods
b. Proteins
c. Plant foods and dairy
d. All foods
c. Plant foods and dairy
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?

a. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 pound of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
b. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is equal to 1,000 food calories.
c. Unlike 1 food calorie, this is the amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius.
d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
d. The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?

a. Dynamic stretching
b. Self-myofascial techniques
c. Active stretching
d. Static stretching
b. Self-myofascial techniques
How many skinfold sites are measured when determining body composition using the Durnin-Womersley protocol?

a. Four
b. Three
c. Six
d. Seven
a. Four
Which of the following statements is true about proprietary blends?

a. Proprietary blends never contain efficacious doses of ingredients.
b. Proprietary blends are featured on all supplements.
c. Proprietary blends are used by companies so they can add illegal ingredients.
d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
d. Proprietary blends should typically be avoided, as the precise amount of each ingredient is not disclosed.
What is the best description of a steady-state heart rate?
Select one:
a. The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources
b. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
c. The point at which the body's energy system converts glycogen to glucose without the use of oxygen
d. The point at which glucose provides nearly all the energy for the activity.
b. Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed
Why is the arching quadriceps stretch considered a controversial lower-body stretch?

a.This stretch is too advanced for the average person.
b. The stretch is too complicated for the older client.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the quadriceps muscles.
c. The stretch provides excessive stress on the kneecap and other tissues in the front knee.
What step height is used for the YMCA 3-minute step test?

a. 12 inches
b. 10 inches
c. 14 inches
d. 16 inches
a. 12 inches
In order to balance, someone must maintain what point within their base of support? (Choose the best answer.)

a. Center of gravity
b. Vestibular
c. Somatosensation
d. Sensorimotor
a. Center of gravity
What is the term for a postural disturbance being added to a task in order to make the task more difficult?

a. Sensorimotor function
b. Perturbation
c. Somatosensation
d. Neuromuscular control
b. Perturbation
Which of the following tests is used to measure lower-extremity power?

a. 40-yard dash
b. Pro shuttle
c. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
d. Vertical jump
d. Vertical jump
Which type of training would most likely lead to increased levels of testosterone, insulin-like growth factors, and growth hormone?

a. Overload training that is of a high intensity with prolonged rest periods
b. Overload training that is of low intensity with prolonged rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
d. Overload training that is of a low intensity with limited rest periods
c. Overload training that is of a high intensity with limited rest periods
What type of resistance training exercise best describes a kettlebell bottoms-up movement?

a. Strength-focused exercise
b. Stabilization-focused exercise
c. Plyometric exercise
d. Balance exercise
b. Stabilization-focused exercise
This term describes an unstable-but-controlled environment used to improve someone's static, semi-dynamic, and dynamic balance.

a. Proprioceptively enriched
b. Seated weight-training exercises
c. Static balance
d. Flat floor
a. Proprioceptively enriched
When developing a safe and effective warm-up for Phase 1, what is an important consideration for flexibility?

a. Active stretches
b. Self-myofascial techniques
c. Dynamic stretches
d. Sports drills
b. Self-myofascial techniques
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?

a. Flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips
b. Excessive forward lean and arms fall forward
c. Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
d. Forward head and protracted shoulders
A client reports that he was recently told by his doctor that he has high blood sugar and that he should try to reduce it through dietary changes before considering medication. He asks you for advice. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

a. Give him a diabetic meal plan that you find on the internet.
b. Agree to review his diet and provide him with specific dietary guidelines on what foods to eat and what to avoid.
c. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
d. Say that you cannot help him because this is a medical issue, and tell him he needs to follow up with his doctor again.
c. Explain that medical nutrition therapy is outside your scope of practice, then refer him to a registered dietitian for nutrition counseling.
Which disease is caused by a degeneration of cartilage within joints?

a. Osteopenia
b. Osteoarthritis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis
A client asks you to provide her with a meal plan specifying how many calories and grams of protein, carbohydrates, and fat she should eat for weight loss. What is the best way to respond to her request to stay within scope of practice?

a. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, then suggest that she look up weight-loss meal plans on the internet.
b. Provide her with an online 1,200-calorie meal plan for weight loss.
c. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.
d. Agree to review her diet and provide her with a meal plan with specific recommendations for calories and macronutrients.
c. Explain that providing specific nutrient recommendations is outside your scope of practice, and then refer the client to a registered dietitian or licensed nutritionist for nutrition counseling.
Which of the following is characterized as a local muscle of the core?

a. Erector spinae
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Transverse abdominis
d. Rectus abdominis
c. Transverse abdominis
Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise?

a. Exercising because it is fun
b. Exercising because they feel guilty
c. Exercising because they value the health benefits
d. Exercising because a doctor tells them to
a. Exercising because it is fun
Where is it most common to take an individual's circumference measurement to assess health risk?

a. Hips
b. Thigh
c. Waist
d. Arm
c. Waist
Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate?

a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals.
c. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort.
d. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals.
a. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.

a. Closed-ended questions
b. Open-ended questions
c. Active listening
d. Reflections
d. Reflections
Which of the following is an example of an exercise modality to enrich the proprioceptive nature of an exercise?

a. Medicine ball
b. Wobble board
c. Cables
d. Tubing
b. Wobble board
Which type of exercise accommodates effort whereby the harder the individual pushes or pulls, the more resistance they feel, despite the movement speed remaining constant?

a. Isokinetic
b. Concentric
c. Eccentric
d. Isometric
a. Isokinetic
For which movement impairment would you see the knees bow outward?

a. Knee varus
b. Knee valgus
c. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt
d. Knee dominance
a. Knee varus
In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal?

a. Phases 1 and 3
b. Phases 1 and 2
c. Phases 4 and 5
d. Phases 3 and 4
b. Phases 1 and 2
How often is it recommended to reassess clientele?

a. Every 6 months
b. Every month
c. Every week
d. Every year
b. Every month
What phase of the OPT model aims to increase maximal strength and rate of force production?

a. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Muscular Development Training
c. Power Training
d. Strength Endurance Training
c. Power Training
Which of the following is an open-ended question?

a. What do you currently weigh?
b. Have you experienced barriers to reaching your goals?
c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
d. Did you exercise this week?
c. What has prevented you from reaching your goals in the past?
Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)?

a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
b. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT)
c. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF)
d. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT)
a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
Circuit training is best described as what?

a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
b. A system of handing straps that allows the user to use their own body weight to load exercise movements
c. Exercises that are performed back-to-back with no rest between each movement
d. Taking two modalities and combining them into one exercise movement, such as placing the hands on a balance tool while performing a suspended crunch
a. A full-body program that incorporates high-intensity aerobic conditioning, muscular strength, and endurance training movements
Bridget, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, is looking for ways to satisfy her CEU requirement. Which of the following would be an accepted means to fulfill this requirement?

a. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
b. Reading a textbook on a related fitness topic
c. Attending an 8-hour fitness seminar
d. Completing an approved CEU course for 0.9 CEUs, along with the CPR/AED for 0.1 CEUs
a. Completing an NASM specialization worth 1.9 CEUs, along with a CPR/AED course for 0.1 CEUs
Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most demands on explosive power?

a. Sandbag step-up
b. Barbell squat
c. Medicine ball chest pass
d. Terra-Core push-up
c. Medicine ball chest pass
Which of the following exercises and modalities would require the use of a spotter?

a. Terra-Core push-up
b. Barbell chest press
c. Selectorized machine lat pull down
d. Stability ball wall squat
b. Barbell chest press
What is pertinent information for the fitness professional to consider before prescribing flexibility exercises?

a. Cardiovascular testing and overhead squat assessment results
b. PAR-Q and overhead squat assessment results
c. Client lifestyle and PAR-Q results
d. Any medical precautions or contraindications
d. Any medical precautions or contraindications
You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session?

a. 6 to 8 drills
b. 2 to 4 drills
c. 4 to 5 drills
d. 9 or 10 drills
a. 6 to 8 drills
What is the name of the stored form of glucose?

a. Triglycerides
b. Glycogen
c. Pyruvate
d. Glycolysis
b. Glycogen
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?

a. Linear
b. Undulating
c. Mesocycle
d. Macrocycle
b. Undulating
What is the recommended recovery time between bouts of plyometric training for novice clients?

a. 12 hours
b. 1 week
c. 48 to 72 hours
d. 24 hours
c. 48 to 72 hours
Which statement best describes the neurophysiological effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?

a. The direct roller compression increases eccentric contraction to enhance muscle hypertrophy after the session.
b. The direct roller compression leads to endocrine release of growth hormones, which leads to enhanced physical performance.
c. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
d. The direct roller compression leads to delayed onset of muscle soreness 72 to 96 hours after rolling.
c. The direct roller compression may create tissue relaxation and pain reduction in tissues by stimulating nerve receptors.
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Hip flexor complex
b. Lumbar extensors
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Latissimus dorsi
c. Gluteus maximus
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months?

a. Contemplation
b. Maintenance
c. Precontemplation
d. Action
d. Action
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?

a. Arterioles
b. Capillaries
c. Veins
d. Arteries
c. Veins
Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?

a. I want to lose weight.
b. I want to lose 20 pounds.
c. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month.
d. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
d. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

a. To transmit nervous impulses from neuron to neuron
b. To coordinate the activity of all parts of the body
c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
d. To transmit impulses between afferent and efferent neurons
c. To connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?

a. Fourth class
b. First class
c. Third class
d. Second class
c. Third class
Apart from energy intake and physical activity, which of the following factors also influence weight management?

a. Vitamin and mineral supplements
b. Hormones and medications
c. Body temperature
d. Blood flow
b. Hormones and medications
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?

a. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases
b. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading
c. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases
d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
d. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
What types of foods provide all the essential amino acids?

a. Fortified foods
b. Animal proteins
c. Plant proteins
d. Legumes
b. Animal proteins
Implementing exercise concepts like core, balance, and agility training with resistance training methods indicates what style of training?

a. Integrated training
b. Circuit training
c. Isolated training
d. Hypertrophy training
a. Integrated training
Which is involved in frontside mechanics?

a. Ankle plantar flexion
b. Lead leg
c. Knee extension
d. Rear leg
b. Lead leg
Which benefit will positively affect the body through integrated training?

a. Improved sleep
b. Increased rate of power decline
c. Decreased fat loss
d. Decreased hormonal function
a. Improved sleep
How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?

a. The questions are easy for the customer to answer, as they can be answered with a simple yes or no.
b. The questions help a personal trainer learn about a customer's family medical history.
c. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.
d. The questions help a personal trainer learn if the customer's workout schedule fits within the personal trainer's availability.
c. The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?

a. Ligament
b. Tendon
c. Elastin
d. Collagen
a. Ligament
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?

a. 10% per week
b. 25% per week
c. <15% per week
d. 20% per week
a. 10% per week
What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise?

a. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
b. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion
c. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
d. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra
What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?

a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Amortization phase
c. Loading phase
d. Unloading phase
a. Stretch-shortening cycle
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

a. Sagittal
b. Frontal
c. Dorsal
d. Transverse
d. Transverse
Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood and pumps it to the body?

a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Left ventricle
d. Right ventricle
c. Left ventricle
What is defined as the ability to generate force as quickly as possible?

a. Core stabilization
b. Integrated performance paradigm
c. Rate of force production
d. Stretch-shortening cycle
c. Rate of force production
Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months?

a. Power Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
c. Maximal Strength Training
d. Stabilization Endurance Training
b. Strength Endurance Training
Which of the following is considered a deep muscle of the core?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Rectus abdominis
c. Iliopsoas
d. Rotatores
d. Rotatores
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?

a. Muscular development
b. Strength endurance
c. Power
d. Stabilization endurance
c. Power
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?

a. 0.22
b. 0.62
c. 0.92
d. 0.72
d. 0.72
What are two contraindications for self-myofascial techniques?

a. Pregnancy and diabetes
b. Young children and older adults
c. Hypertension that is controlled and varicose veins
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders
d. Cancer and bleeding disorders
From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity?

a. Muscular fitness
b. Body composition
c. Flexibility
d. Cardiorespiratory fitness
b. Body composition
What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?

a. Timely
b. Attainable
c. Specific
d. Measurable
d. Measurable
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?

a. Business practice
b. Confidentiality
c. Legal and ethical
d. Professionalism
d. Professionalism
Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?

a. Rehabilitation
b. Injury resistance
c. Improved posture
d. Performance
b. Injury resistance
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?

a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises
b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions
c. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
d. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
What is the ideal landing position when performing the squat jump exercise?

a. Knees over second and third toes
b. Knee varus
c. Knee valgus
d. Knees inside the first toe
a. Knees over second and third toes
What is the primary muscle type of the heart?

a. Smooth
b. Skeletal
c. Myofibril
d. Cardiac
d. Cardiac
Which type of cholesterol tends to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease?

a. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
b. HDL (high-density lipoprotein)
c. MDL (medium-density lipoprotein)
d. EDL (elevated-density lipoprotein)
a. LDL (low-density lipoprotein)
What is glycogen?
Select one:
a. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate breakdown in humans
b. The storage form of carbohydrate in plants
c. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
d. The enzyme that promotes carbohydrate storage in humans and animals
c. The storage form of carbohydrate in animals and humans
Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:

a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
c. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches
d. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
b. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?

a. Pes planus distortion syndrome, knees cave inward, and arms fall forward
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
c. Knee dominance, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome
d. Low-back arches, shoulders elevate, and head juts forward
b. Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
What is the most important thing for a client to focus on when they are new to plyometric training?

a. Proper technique
b. Amortization speed
c. Explosive power
d. Jump height
a. Proper technique
What is the function of the neuromuscular junction?

a. The sliding filament theory
b. Exposing actin-binding sites
c. The site of muscular contractions
d. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
d. The site where the nervous system and muscle fibers communicate
A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform?

a. Standing cobra
b. Reverse crunch
c. Floor bridge
d. Knee-up
a. Standing cobra
What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn?

a. A twist
b. A pull
c. A strain
d. A sprain
d. A sprain
Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?

a. Outcome expectations
b. Action self-efficacy
c. Planning
d. Subjective norms
c. Planning
Which of the following is considered one of the Four Horsemen of Fitness?

a. Kettlebell
b. Sandbag
c. Medicine ball
d. ViPR
c. Medicine ball
Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action?

a. Lengthening reaction
b. Synergistic dominance
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Length-tension relationships
c. Reciprocal inhibition
Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?

a. Stability ball push-up
b. Dumbbell shoulder press
c. Lat pulldown
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw
Why are plyometrics best performed on grass playing fields, basketball courts, or tartan tracks?

a. The surfaces are unstable and proprioceptively enriched.
b. Only athletes need plyometric training.
c. They protect the exerciser from real-world movement.
d. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
d. The surfaces are more stable, which helps reduce injury risk.
How should the back be positioned when performing a bird dog exercise?

a. In a neutral position
b. Anterior pelvic tilt
c. Kyphotic positioning
d. Excessive lordotic position
a. In a neutral position
Posture of the spine is primarily controlled by which muscles of the core?

a. Local and global muscles
b. Back muscles only
c. Local muscles
d. Global muscles
c. Local muscles
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating?

a. Ambivalence
b. Confusion
c. Unequivocal
d. Ambiguity
a. Ambivalence
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?

a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
b. Structural (non-functional) scoliosis
c. Permanent scoliosis
d. Bony scoliosis
a. Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Which of the following would be an appropriate Phase 2 superset?

a. Power step-ups and ice skaters
b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
c. Deadlifts and squats
d. Single-leg hops and ball push-ups
b. Bench press and stability ball push-ups
A hypertensive client is taking a beta-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate method to monitor exercise intensity?

a. Haskell's 220-minus-age formula
b. The Tanaka formula
c. Metabolic Equivalent (MET)
d. The talk test
d. The talk test
Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis?

a. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity.
b. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms.
c. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.
d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
d. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).
What type of listening involves making a best guess as to what the speaker means, then stating it back to the speaker?

a. Motivational interviewing
b. Affirming
c. Reflective listening
d. Active listening
c. Reflective listening
Which of the following is not an appropriate expectation for a CPT?

a. Teaching healthy portion sizes
b. Offering general advice on supplementation
c. Prescribing a supplement
d. Referring out to a dietitian
c. Prescribing a supplement
What is osteoporosis?

a. Lower than normal bone density
b. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
c. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults
d. Chronic inflammation of the joints
b. A disease in which the density and quality of bone tissue is reduced, causing bones to become weak and fragile
During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is "cutting out all carbs" from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?

a. Carbohydrates contribute excess calories in our diet, and avoiding them is an effective weight-loss strategy during training.
b. Carbohydrates are not required unless training for long periods of time; so, as long as sessions are kept short, this strategy should be fine.
c. Carbohydrates provide more calories per gram than protein and fat, so they should be limited for effective weight loss.
d. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
d. Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.
Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)?

a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible
b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult
c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
d. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable
c. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging
Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility?

a. Ability to stretch in small increments
b. Ability to stretch only one muscle
c. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods
d. Altered movement patterns
d. Altered movement patterns
How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout?

a. Inability to speak at all
b. Only a few words can be produced between breaths
c. Normal conversation is maintained.
d. Continuous talking becomes challenging
d. Continuous talking becomes challenging
The hamstring complex compensating for weakened hip extensors, which cannot produce force effectively, is an example of what key term?

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Altered length-tension relationship
c. Reciprocal inhibition
d. Altered reciprocal inhibition
a. Synergistic dominance
You are working with a new client who recently started a low-carbohydrate diet for weight loss. However, she complains of being tired and lacking energy for her training sessions. What might be the reason for her low energy?

a. Inadequate protein intake
b. Excess fat intake
c. Inadequate fat intake
d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake
d. Inadequate carbohydrate intake
Weight-bearing exercise helps strengthen bones through what process?

a. Osteoporosis
b. Neuroplasticity
c. Remodeling
d. Lengthening
c. Remodeling
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?

a. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
c. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood.
d. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus.
b. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?

a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
b. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
c. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities like towels and complimentary personal hygiene products, cafes, pools, sports courts, and childcare services
d. A health club that offers complimentary memberships and free childcare services for low-income families
a. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?

a. 90 minutes per week
b. 120 minutes per week
c. 75 minutes per week
d. 60 minutes per week
c. 75 minutes per week
How is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) best defined?

a. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
b. Energy expenditure through structured exercise alone, such as strength training and cardiorespiratory exercise
c. The amount of energy required to maintain the body at rest
d. The rate at which the body expends energy (calories) when fasted and at complete rest, such as asleep or lying quietly
a. Energy expenditure through daily activities outside of structured exercise, such as walking, completing household chores, and taking the stairs
What is the primary function of the large intestine?

a. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
b. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the small intestine
c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
d. Digestion of food and passage of waste into the rectum
c. Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine?

a. Anterior cervical curve
b. Anterior lumbar curve
c. Posterior thoracic curve
d. Posterior lumbar curve
d. Posterior lumbar curve
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment?

a. Gluteus medius
b. Hip flexors
c. Gluteus maximus
d. Hamstrings complex
b. Hip flexors
Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?

a. Lack of convenience
b. Lack of willpower
c. Lack of social support
d. Lack of motivation
c. Lack of social support
Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pushing assessment?

a. Lower trapezius
b. Infraspinatus
c. Latissimus dorsi
d. Upper trapezius
d. Upper trapezius
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?

a. PERT estimate
b. Statement of work (SOW)
c. SWOT analysis
d. Unique selling proposition (USP)
d. Unique selling proposition (USP)
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?

a. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
b. Frontside mechanics align the rear leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
c. Triple extension involved in frontside mechanics is essential to keep the pelvis in a neutral position and facilitate force production.
d. Frontside mechanics are associated with a stronger push phase, including hip-knee extension, gluteal contraction, and backside arm drive.
a. Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?

a. Pushing assessment
b. Overhead press assessment
c. Pulling assessment
d. Bench press strength assessment
d. Bench press strength assessment
What resistance training system involves a progressive or regressive step approach that either increases or decreases weight with each set?

a. Multiple-set system
b. Pyramid system
c. Superset system
d. Complex training
b. Pyramid system
The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?

a. Core power
b. Core stability
c. Core strength
d. Core endurance
b. Core stability
What term is used to describe the concept of how the functioning of one body segment can impact other areas of the body?

a. Regional interdependence
b. Kinesiology
c. Osteokinematics
d. Biomechanics
a. Regional interdependence
What rate of oxygen utilization defines one metabolic equivalent (MET), a value representing the amount of oxygen utilized at true rest?

a. 7.0 mL/kg/min
b. 2.5 mL/kg/min
c. 5.0 mL/kg/min
d. 3.5 mL/kg/min
d. 3.5 mL/kg/min
Which joints are most associated with human movement?

a. Nonsynovial
b. Saddle
c. Synovial
d. Nonaxial
c. Synovial
What is cardiac output?

a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per beat or contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
c. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction
d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction
b. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Which surface would be the easiest for a new client starting a balance training program?

a. Foam pad
b. Wobble board
c. Firm surface
d. BOSU ball
c. Firm surface
Compared to water-soluble vitamins, which of the following is true about fat-soluble vitamins?

a. Fat-soluble vitamins are not as healthy because fat is unhealthy.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
c. Fat-soluble vitamins accumulate in and deplete quickly from the body.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are better for improving overall health.
b. Fat-soluble vitamins take longer to accumulate in and deplete from the body.
What is the primary action of the multifidus?

a. Regulate inspiration
b. Support the contents of the pelvis
c. Stabilize and extend the spine
d. Increase intra-abdominal pressure
c. Stabilize and extend the spine
Which of the following two modalities are the most alike?

a. ViPR and sandbag
b. TRX suspension and ViPR
c. Dumbbell and medicine ball
d. TRX Rip Trainer and ViPR
a. ViPR and sandbag
What are essential amino acids?

a. Amino acids responsible for protein synthesis
b. The only type of amino acid found in protein sources
c. Amino acids that can be synthesized by the body
d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
d. Amino acids that must be consumed because they cannot be created by the body
What is the term for the higher-than-normal energy expenditure during the recovery period after exercise?

a. Thermic effect of food
b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis
d. Exercise activity thermogenesis
b. Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
If pyruvate is being created via glycolysis faster than oxygen can be delivered to the muscle, what will happen to the pyruvate?

a. The pyruvate will be stored in the muscle.
b. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
c. The pyruvate will be converted to acetyl CoA.
d. The pyruvate will be oxidized via oxidative phosphorylation.
b. The pyruvate will be converted to lactate.
A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal?

a. I want to deadlift after work.
b. I want to lift 3 times per week.
c. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
d. I want to deadlift once per week.
c. I want to deadlift 300 pounds.
Which muscles are typically overactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?

a. Abdominals
b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
c. Upper trapezius
d. Adductor complex
b. Hip flexors and lumbar extensors
What can Phase 1 of the OPT model best be described as?

a. Improving the rate of force production
b. Mastering basic movement patterns
c. Utilizing supersets during training
d. Focusing on improving muscular growth
b. Mastering basic movement patterns
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?

a. Mechanoreceptor
b. Neurotransmitter
c. Action potential
d. Nociceptor
d. Nociceptor
Approximately what percentage of the human body (in male and female adults) is comprised of water?

a. 0.4
b. 0.8
c. 0.5
d. 0.6
d. 0.6
The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?

a. The hormone is secreted by the bloodstream and travels to the gland to exert a particular effect.
b. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
c. The gland secretes the hormone, which bypasses the bloodstream and binds to a receptor on the target cell to exert a particular action.
d. The target cell releases the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to the gland to exert a particular action.
b. The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.
What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?

a. Energy imagery
b. Appearance imagery
c. Technique imagery
d. Cognitive fusion
c. Technique imagery
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?

a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Beta-oxidation
c. Glycolysis
d. The ATP-PC system
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?

a. Concussions
b. Ankle sprains
c. Medial collateral ligament injuries
d. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries
b. Ankle sprains
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?

a. Linear periodization
b. Direct periodization
c. Localized periodization
d. Undulating periodization
d. Undulating periodization
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

a. What might you want to change?
b. What might work for you?
c. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?
d. What makes you think you are not at risk?
d. What makes you think you are not at risk?
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?

a. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness.
b. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate.
c. NEAT can be protective against obesity.
d. NEAT can increase muscle mass.
c. NEAT can be protective against obesity.
During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what?

a. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction
b. Pull the elbows into extension
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
d. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction
c. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction
What does the standing dumbbell lateral raise primarily target?

a. Lateral triceps brachii
b. Lateral hamstrings
c. Middle deltoid
d. Medial gastrocnemius
c. Middle deltoid
A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?

a. Action
b. Maintenance
c. Preparation
d. Precontemplation
d. Precontemplation
Jane is a high school hockey goalie. Which type of SAQ training best relates to the physical skills needed at her position?

a. Quickness training
b. Olympic weightlifting
c. Powerlifting
d. Speed training
a. Quickness training
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?

a. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.
b. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile.
c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
d. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines.
c. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.
Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?

a. Referring to a colleague's practical knowledge
b. Referencing peer-reviewed research
c. Reading information presented in a blog article
d. Referencing a social media post
b. Referencing peer-reviewed research
Which division of the skeleton is made up of the arms, legs, and pelvic girdle?

a. Appendicular
b. Lateral
c. Peripheral
d. Axial
a. Appendicular
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?

a. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
b. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media
c. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club
d. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites
a. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
What is the correct order of fascia, starting with the most superficial?

a. Endomysium, perimysium, epimysium
b. Perimysium, endomysium, epimysium
c. Epimysium, endomysium, perimysium
d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
d. Epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
What tests should be performed last in the overall assessment flow?

a. Biometric data
b. Body composition
c. Performance assessments
d. Movement assessments
c. Performance assessments
What term would be used to describe the starting point of an individual's fitness level directly after an assessment has been conducted?

a. Set point
b. Action phase
c. Baseline value
d. Transformation phase
c. Baseline value
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?

a. Arthrokinematics
b. Osteokinematics
c. Osteoporosis
d. Arthropathy
b. Osteokinematics
What is the definition of anthropometry?

a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
b. The assumption that stating the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface
c. The measurement of a person's weight relative to their height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity
d. A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body
a. The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?

a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
b. Painkillers
c. Insulin
d. Inhalers
a. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin)
Which component of evidence-based practice refers to a fitness professional's accumulated education, experience, and practical skills?

a. Client values and expectations
b. Best external evidence
c. Number of continuing education units earned
d. Individual professional expertise
d. Individual professional expertise
What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise?

a. Depth jumps
b. Ice skaters
c. Squat jump
d. Proprioceptive plyometrics
b. Ice skaters
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Infraspinatus
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Lower trapezius
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
What type of movement happens during the concentric phase of plyometric exercise?

a. Stabilize
b. Gait
c. Jump
d. Land
c. Jump
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?

a. 1 or 2 sets
b. 3 or 4 sets
c. 5 or 6 sets
d. 6 to 8 sets
a. 1 or 2 sets
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