115 terms


Which of the following have an effect on recorded detail?
1. Focal spot size
2. Type of rectification
3. SID
1 and 3 only
Better resolution is obtained with
A. high SNR.
B. low SNR.
C. windowing.
D. smaller matrix
high SNR.
Which of the following articulates with the base of the fifth metatarsal?
A. First cuneiform
B. Third cuneiform
C. Navicular
D. Cuboid
A patient is usually required to drink barium sulfate suspension to demonstrate which of the following structures?
1. Esophagus
2. Pylorus
3. Ilium
1,2 the sp of ilium is the wrong one
Which of the following terms describes the amount of electric charge flowing per second?
A. Voltage
B. Current
C. Resistance
D. Capacitance
Although the stated focal spot size is measured directly under the actual focal spot, focal spot size in fact varies along the length of the x-ray beam. At which portion of the x-ray beam is the effective focal spot the largest?
A. At its outer edge
B. Along the path of the central ray
C. At the cathode end
D. At the anode end
At the cathode end
If the primary coil of the high-voltage transformer is supplied by 220 V and has 200 turns, and the secondary coil has 100,000 turns, what is the voltage induced in the secondary coil?
A. 40 kV
B. 110 kV
C. 40 V
D. 110 V
110 kV
The function of the developer solution chemicals is to
A reduce manifest image to a latent image.
B.increase production of silver halide crystals.
C.reduce latent image to a manifest image.
D. remove unexposed crystals from the film
reduce the latent image to a manifest image.
Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?
1 sternoclavicular jts should be symmetrical.
2. sternum is seen lateral without rotation.
3.10 ant ribs demo above diaphragm.
1 only
An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04-second exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to decrease the radiographic density by one half except change to
1/50-second exposure.
72 kVp.
18 mAs.
300 mA.
18 mAs.
Types of shape distortion include
1. magnification.
2. elongation.
3. foreshortening.
2 and 3 only
The auditory, or eustachian, tube extends from the nasopharynx to the
A. external ear.
B. middle ear.
C. inner ear.
D. oropharynx
middle ear.
Which of the following is the most likely site for a lumbar puncture?
A. S1-2
B. L3-4
C. L1-2
D. C6-7
The decision as to whether to deliver ionic or nonionic contrast media should include a preliminary patient history including, but not limited to,
1. patient age.
2. history of respiratory disease.
3. history of cardiac disease.
The sensitometric curve may be used to
1. identify automatic processing problems.
2. determine film sensitivity.
3. illustrate screen speed.
1 and 2 only
The advantages of capacitor discharge mobile x-ray equipment include
1. compact size.
2. light weight.
3. high kVp capability.
1 and 2 only
An accurately positioned oblique projection of the first through fourth lumbar vertebrae will demonstrate the classic "scotty dog." What bony structure does the scotty dog's neck represent?
A. Superior articular process
B. Pedicle
C. Transverse process
D. Pars interarticularis
D. Pars interarticularis
Hardener is added to the developer solution of automatic processors to
1. keep emulsion swelling to a minimum.
2. decrease the possibility of a processor jam-up.
3. remove unexposed silver halide crystals.
What effect will a stained intensifying screen have on the finished radiograph?
A. Blurring
B. Magnification
C. Decreased density
D. Increased density
Decreased density
What is the device that directs the light emitted from the image intensifier to various viewing and imaging apparatus?
A. Output phosphor
B. Beam splitter
C. Spot film changer
D. Automatic brightness control
Beam splitter
The automatic exposure device that is located immediately under the x-ray table is the
A. ionization chamber.
B. scintillation camera.
C. photomultiplier.
D. photocathode.
ionization chamber.
The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for
A. alpha, beta, and x-radiations.
B. x- and gamma radiations only.
C. beta, x-, and gamma radiations.
D. all ionizing radiations
The answer is C.
EXPLANATION: The occupational dose limit is valid for beta, x-, and gamma radiations. Because alpha radiation is so rapidly ionizing, traditional personnel monitors will not record alpha radiation. Because alpha particles are capable of penetrating only a few centimeters of air, they are practically harmless as an external source
If 600 rad or more is received as a whole-body dose in a short period of time, certain symptoms will occur; these are referred to as
A. short-term effects.
B. long-term effects.
C. lethal dose.
D. acute radiation syndrome
acute radiation syndrome
All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except 1
A. right to participate in proposed research studies.
B. the right to continuity of care.
C. right to considerate and respectful care.
D. right to review any institutional records
the right to review any institutional records
Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip?
1. 2" med to (ASIS)
2. Prominence of the greater trochanter
3.Midway between iliac crest & PS
B. 1 and 2 only
A point midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis is too superior and medial to coincide with the hip articulation
The total brightness gain of an image intensifier is a result of
1. flux gain.
2. minification gain.
3. focusing gain.
An increase in exposure factors is usually required in which of the following circumstances?
1. Edema
2. Ascites
3. Acromegaly
The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is:
A. age.
B. gender.
C. family history.
D. personal history.
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate
1. a fracture.
2. a foreign body.
3. soft tissue.
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?
1. Transverse fracture of the radial head
2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid
3. Posterior or backward displacement
2 and 3 only
With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15° to 20° caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to
A. 10° to 15° caudal.
B. 25° to 30° caudal.
C. 15° to 20° cephalic.
D. 3° to 5° caudal.
A. 10° to 15° caudal.
Conditions in which there is a lack of normal bone calcification include
1. rickets.
2. osteomalacia.
3. osteoarthritis
The type of shock associated with pooling of blood in the peripheral vessels is classified as
A. neurogenic.
B. cardiogenic.
C. hypovolemic.
Which of the following conditions require(s) a decrease in technical factors?
1. Emphysema
2. Osteomalacia
3. Atelectasis
If 85 kVp, 400 mA, and 1/8 second was used for a particular exposure using single-phase equipment, which of the following milliamperage or time values would be required, all other factors being constant, to produce a similar density using 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?
A. 200 mA
B. 600 mA
C. 0.125 second
D. 0.25 second
200 mA
Knee arthrography may be performed to demonstrate a
1. torn meniscus.
2. Baker's cyst.
3. torn rotator cuff.
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?
A. Patient AP with 30° to 35° angle cephalad
B. Patient AP with 30° to 35° angle caudad
C. Patient AP with 0° angle
D. Patient lateral, coned to L5
Patient AP with 30° to 35° angle cephalad
Which of the following will best demonstrate the lumbosacral junction in the AP position?
A. CR perpendicular to L3
B. CR perpendicular to L5-S1
C. CR caudad 30° to 35°
D. CR cephalad 30° to 35°
CR cephalad 30° to 35°
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?
A. Moving mandible position
B. AP open-mouth projection
C. Flexion and extension laterals
D. AP right and left bending
Flexion and extension laterals
A patient is being positioned for a particular radiographic examination. The x-ray tube, image recorder, and grid are properly aligned, but the body part is angled. Which of the following will result?
A. Grid cutoff at the periphery of the image
B. Grid cutoff along the center of the image
C. Increased density at the periphery
D. Image distortion
Image distortion
How will x-ray photon intensity be affected if the SID is doubled?
A. Its intensity increases two times.
B. Its intensity increases four times.
C. Its intensity decreases two times.
D. Its intensity decreases four times.
Its intensity decreases four times.
The medical term used to describe the expectoration of blood is
A. hematemesis.
B. hemoptysis.
C. hematuria.
D. epistaxis.
All of the following rules regarding proper hand washing technique are correct except
A.keep hands & forearms lower than elbows.
B. use paper towels to turn water on.
C. avoid using hand lotions whenever possible.
D. carefully wash all surfaces and between fingers.
avoid using hand lotions whenever possible
Which of the following radiographic procedures requires an intrathecal injection?
A. IV pyelogram
B. Myelogram
C. Lymphangiogram
D. Computed tomography (CT)
All the following positions may be used to demonstrate the sternoclavicular articulations except
A. weight bearing.
D. PA.
weight bearing.
In the AP projection of an asthenic patient whose knee measures less than 19 cm from ASIS to tabletop, the central ray should be directed
A. perpendicularly.
B. 5° medially.
C. 5° cephalad.
D. 5° caudad.
5° caudad.
The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image is dependent on
1. milliamperage.
2. kilovoltage.
3. patient thickness.
The brightness level of the fluoroscopic image is dependent on
1. milliamperage.
2. kilovoltage.
3. patient thickness.
1, 2, and 3
The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and
A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image receptor.
B. in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the image receptor.
C. erect and weight bearing.
D. erect, with and without weights.
in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the image receptor
The best projection to demonstrate the articular surfaces of the femoropatellar articulation is the
A. AP knee.
B. PA knee.
C. tangential ("sunrise") projection.
D. "tunnel" view
tangential ("sunrise") projection
The ability of an x-ray unit to produce constant radiation output, at a given mA, using various combinations of mAs and time is called
A. linearity.
B. reproducibility.
C. densitometry.
D. sensitometry.
The thoracic cavity is lined by
A. parietal pleura.
B. visceral pleura.
C. parietal peritoneum.
D. visceral peritoneum
parietal pleura
Which of the following statements regarding the male pelvis is (are) true?
1.The angle formed by the pubic arch is less than that of the female.
2 pelvic outlet is wider than the female.
3.The ischial tuberosities are further apart.
1 only
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the
A. lateral projection.
B. PA axial (Caldwell method) projection.
C. parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection.
D. AP axial (Grashey/Towne method) projection
parietoacanthial (Waters' method) projection
With which of the following does the femoral head articulate?
1. Ilium
2. Ischium
3. Pubis
The microswitch for controlling the amount of replenishment used in an automatic processor is located at the
A. receiving bin.
B. crossover roller.
C. entrance roller.
D. replenishment pump
entrance roller
For which of the following examinations may the use of a grid not be necessary in the adult patient?
A. Hip
B. Knee
D. Lumbar spine
According to the NCRP, the total gestational dose equivalent limit for the pregnant radiographer is
A. 1 mSv
B. 5 mSv
C. 15 mSv
D. 50 mSv
5 mSv
The lateral aspect of the obturator foramen is formed by the
A. ilium.
B. ischium.
C. pubis.
D. sacrum.
How can the radiographer reduce the amount of scattered radiation generated during a radiographic examination?
1. Use optimum kVp.
2. Collimate closely.
3. Use a grid.
1 and 2 only
The legal doctrine res ipsa locquitur means which of the following?
A. Let the master answer.
B. The thing speaks for itself.
C. A thing or matter settled by justice.
D. A matter settled by precedent
The thing speaks for itself.
During studies of the soft tissue of the neck, the exposure can be made
1.during phonation before/after opacification.
2. during Valsalva maneuver.
3. at the height of swallowing motion with opacification.
1, 2, and 3
All of the following have an impact on radiographic contrast, except
A. photon energy.
B. grid ratio.
D. focal spot size
focal spot size
The clearing agent is found in the
A. developer.
B. fixer.
C. wash.
D. dryer.
Which type of error results in grid cutoff at the periphery of the radiographic image?
A. Off-focus
B. Off-center
C. Off-level
D. Off-angle
The answer is A.
EXPLANATION: The lead strips in a focused grid are made to parallel the x-ray beam. Therefore, scattered radiation, which radiates in directions other than that of the primary beam, will be absorbed by the grid. When the x-ray beam does not parallel the lead strips, some type of grid cutoff occurs. If the x-ray beam is not centered to the grid, or if the x-ray tube and grid surface are not parallel (level), there will be a fairly uniform decrease in radiographic density across the entire image. However, if the grid is not used within its recommended SID (focus) range (ie, if the SID is too great or too little), there will be a decrease in density at the periphery of the image
The device used to test the accuracy of the x-ray timer is the
A. densitometer.
B. sensitometer.
C. penetrometer.
D. spinning top
spinning top
How much protection is provided from a 75-kVp x-ray beam when using a 0.50-mm lead equivalent apron?
A. 51%
B. 66%
C. 88%
D. 99%
C. 88% EXPLANATION: Lead aprons are worn by occupationally exposed individuals during fluoroscopic procedures. Lead aprons are available with various lead equivalents; 0.25, 0.5, and 1.0 mm are the most common. The 1.0-mm lead equivalent apron will provide close to 100% protection at most kVp levels, but it is rarely used because it weighs anywhere from 12 to 24 lb. A 0.25-mm lead equivalent apron will attenuate about 97% of a 50-kVp x-ray beam, 66% of a 75-kVp beam, and 51% of a 100-kVp beam. A 0.5-mm apron will attenuate about 99% of a 50-kVp beam, 88% of a 75-kVp beam, and 75% of a 100-kVp beam.
If an individual receives 50 mR while standing 4' from a source of radiation for 2 min, which of the options listed below will most effectively reduce their radiation exposure to that source of radiation?
A. Standing 3' from the source for 2 minutes
B. Standing 8' from the source for 2 minutes
C. Standing 5' from the source for 1 minute
D. Standing 6' from the source for 2 minutes
Standing 8 feet from the source for 2 minutes
A particular AP thoracic measurement is 25 cm. What tomographic sections are indicated if we desire one midline and one each anterior and posterior to midline?
A. 8, 9, and 10 cm
B. 10, 11, and 12 cm
C.12, 13, and 14 cm
D. 14, 15, and 16 cm
12, 13, and 14 c
All of the following statements regarding the RAO position of the sternum are true, except
A. the sternum is generally projected to the left of the vertebral column.
B. shallow breathing during the exposure can obliterate prominent pulmonary markings.
C. it's helpful to project the sternum over the heart.
D. a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax.
D. a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax.
If a high-voltage transformer has 100 primary turns and 35,000 secondary turns, and is supplied by 220 V and 75 A, what are the secondary voltage and current?
A. 200 A and 77 V
B. 200 mA and 77 kVp
C. 20 A and 77 V
D. 20 mA and 77 kVp
200 mA and 77 kVp
The amount of time that x-rays are being produced and directed toward a particular wall is referred to as the
A. workload.
B. use factor.
C. occupancy factor.
D. controlling factor
use factor
Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?
B. Lateral
C. 30° RPO
D. 45° LPO
30° RPO
Shoulder arthrography may be performed to evaluate
A. humeral dislocation.
B. complete or incomplete rotator cuff tears.
C. osteoarthritis.
D. acromioclavicular joint separation
complete or incomplete rotator cuff tear
Which of the following statement regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true?
1. It is a low-dose procedure.
2. Two x-ray photon energies are used.
3. Photon attenuation by bone is calculated
How does filtration affect the primary beam?
A. It increases the average energy of the primary beam.
B. It decreases the average energy of the primary beam.
C. It makes the primary beam more penetrating.
D. It increases the intensity of the primary beam
It increases the average energy of the primary beam.
The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high subject contrast part can be minimized by
1. using a compensating filter.
2. using high-kVp exposure factors.
3. increased collimation.
1 and 2 only
Which of the following accounts for the x-ray beam's heterogeneity?
1. Incident electrons interacting with several layers of tungsten target atoms
2. Energy differences among incident electrons
3. Electrons moving to fill different shell vacancies
What unit of measurement expresses the amount of energy deposited in tissue?
A. Roentgen (C/kg)
B. Rad (Gy)
C. Rem (Sv)
Rad (Gy)
Which of the following terms refers to the period between conception and birth?
A. Gestation
B. Congenital
C. Neonatal
D. In vitro
The x-ray beam and collimator light field must coincide to within
A. 10% of the OID.
B. 2% of the OID.
C. 10% of the SID.
D. 2% of the SID
2% of the SID
Anode angle will have an effect on the
1. severity of the heel effect.
2. focal spot size.
3. heat load capacity.
A particular radiograph was produced using 6 mAs and 110 kVp with an 8:1 ratio grid. The radiograph is to be repeated using a 16:1 ratio grid. What should be the new mAs?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12
The left sacroiliac joint is positioned perpendicular to the IR when the patient is positioned in a
A. left lateral position.
B. 25° to 30° LAO position.
C. 25° to 30° LPO position.
D. 30° to 40° LPO position
25° to 30° LAO position
Components of digital imaging include
1. computer manipulation of the image.
2. formation of an electronic image on the radiation detector.
3. formation of an x-ray image directly on the image receptor
Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include
1. loss of bone calcium.
2. loss of hearing.
3. loss of mental alertness
1. loss of bone calcium.
The effects of radiation on biologic material are dependent on several factors. If a quantity of radiation is delivered to a body over a long period of time, the effect
A. will be greater than if it were delivered all at one time.
B. will be less than if it were delivered all at one time.
C.no relation to how it is delivered in time.
D.dependent on the radiation quality
will be less than if it were delivered all at one time.
What information, located on each box of film, is important to note and has a direct relationship to image quality?
A. Number of films in the box
B. Manufacturer's name
C. Expiration date
D. Emulsion lot
Expiration date
Which of the following functions to increase the mA?
A. Increasing the speed of anode rotation
B. Increasing the transformer turns ratio
C. Using three-phase rectification
D. Increasing the heat of the filament
Increasing the heat of the filament
What is the position of the gallbladder in an asthenic patient?
A. Superior and medial
B. Superior and lateral
C. Inferior and medial
D. Inferior and lateral
Inferior and medial
In which of the following ways can higher radiographic contrast be obtained in abdominal radiography?
1. By using lower kilovoltage
2. By using a contrast medium
3. By limiting the field size
Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?
A. Insulin
B. Cholecystokinin
C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
D. Gastrin
Which of the following will contribute to the production of longer-scale radiographic contrast?
1. An increase in kV
2. An increase in grid ratio
3. An increase in photon energy
Exposure-type artifacts include
1. motion
2. static electricity marks
3. pi lines
1 only
Which of the following formulas would the radiographer use to determine the total number of HU produced with a given exposure using three-phase, six-pulse equipment?
mA x time x kVp
mA x time x kVp x 3.0
mA x time x kVp x 1.35
mA x time x kVp x 1.41
mA x time x kVp x 1.35
Focal spot blur is greatest
A. directly along the course of the CR
B. toward the cathode end
C. toward the anode end of the x-ray beam.
D. as the SID is increased.
toward the cathode end of the x-ray beam
Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?
1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt table capabilities
2. A fiberoptic endoscope
3. Polyethylene catheters
The likelihood of adverse radiation effects to any radiographer whose dose is kept below the recommended guideline is
A. very probable.
B. possible.
C. very remote.
D. zero
very remote
Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing
1. the SID.
2. the OID.
3. motion unsharpness.
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is located at the level of the interspace between the fourth and fifth thoracic vertebrae?
A. Manubrium
B. Jugular notch
C.Sternal angle
D. Xiphoid process
C.Sternal angle
The procedure whose basic operation involves reciprocal motion of the x-ray tube and film is
A. cinefluorography.
B. spot filming.
C. tomography.
D. image intensification
Characteristics of low ratio focused grids include the following:
1. they have a greater focal range
2. they are less efficient in collecting SR
3. they can be used inverted
Diagnostic x-radiation may be correctly described as
A. low energy, low LET.
B. low energy, high LET.
C. high energy, low LET.
D. high energy, high LET
low energy, low LET
Which of the following is the approximate skin dose for 5 minutes of fluoroscopy performed at 1.5 mA?
A. 3.7 rad
B. 7.5 rad
C. 15 rad
D. 21 rad
15 rad
Which of the following can affect histogram appearance?
1. Centering accuracy
2. Positioning accuracy
3. Processing algorithm accuracy
A grid is usually employed in which of the following circumstances?
1. When radiographing a large or dense body part
2. When using high kilovoltage
3. When a lower patient dose is required
An AP axial projection of the clavicle is often helpful in demonstrating a fracture that is not visualized using a perpendicular central ray. When examining the clavicle in the AP axial projection, how is the central ray directed?
A. Cephalad
B. Caudad
C. Medially
D. Laterally
Which of the following tissues is (are) considered to be particularly radiosensitive?
1. intestinal mucous membrane
2. epidermis of extremities
3. optic nerves
1 only
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?
A. Erect
B. Recumbent
C. Fowler's
D. Sims'
Which of the following contribute to the radiographic contrast present on the finished radiograph?
1. Tissue density
2. Pathology
3. Muscle development
Blowout fractures of the orbit are best demonstrated using the
A. lateral projection of the facial bones.
B. parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method).
C. posteroanterior projection with a 15° caudal angle.
D. Sweet's localization method
parietoacanthial projection (Waters' method)
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the
A. thyroid gland.
B. thyroid cartilage.
C. vocal cords.
D. pharynx.
thyroid cartilage
An exposure was made at a 38-inch SID using 300 mA, a 0.03-second exposure, and 80 kVp with a 400 film-screen combination and an 8:1 grid. It is desired to repeat the radiograph and, in order to improve recorded detail, to use a 42-inch SID and a 200-speed film-screen combination. With all other factors remaining constant, what exposure time will be required to maintain the original radiographic density?
A. 0.03 second
B. 0.07 second
C. 0.14 second
D. 0.36 second
0.07 second
Which of the following has the greatest effect on radiographic density?
A. Aluminum filtration
B. Kilovoltage
D. Scattered radiation
The violet light emited by the photostimulable phosphor (PSP) is transformed into the image seen on the CRT by the
B. scanner-reader.
D. helium-neon laser