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662 terms

A & P Test 1 materials- Ch 1 & 2

A & P Test 1 materials
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Polar covalent bond
A bond in which electrons are shared unequally.
Ionic bond
A bond in which electrons are completely lost or gained by the atoms involved.
Nonpolar covalent bond
A bond in which electrons are shared equally.
Hydrogen bond
A type of bond important in tying different parts of the same molecule together into a three-dimensional structure.
Cation
Electrically charged particle due to loss of an electron.
Neutron
Neutral subatomic particle.
Atom
Smallest particle of an element that retains its properties; composed of protons, neutrons, and electrons.
Molecule
Smallest particle of a compound that still retains its properties.
Acid
A substance that releases hydrogen ions when in solution (compare with Base); a proton donor.
Acidosis
State of abnormally high hydrogen ion concentration in the extracellular fluid.
Activation energy
The amount of energy required to push a reactant to the level necessary for action.
Active site
Region on the surface of a functional (globular) protein where it binds and interacts chemically with other molecules of complementary shape and charge.
Adenine (A)
One of the two major purines found in both RNA and DNA; also found in various free nucleotides of importance to the body, such as ATP.
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
Organic molecule that stores and releases chemical energy for use in body cells.
Alkalosis
State of abnormally low hydrogen ion concentration in the extracellular fluid.
Alpha-helix
The most common type of secondary structure of the amino acid chain in proteins; resembles the coils of a telephone cord.
Amino acid
Organic compound containing nitrogen, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; building block of protein.
Ammonia (NH3)
Common waste product of protein breakdown in the body; a colorless volatile gas, very soluble in water and capable of forming a weak base; a proton acceptor.
Anion
An ion carrying one or more negative charges and therefore attracted to a positive pole.
Apoenzyme
The protein portion of an enzyme.
Atomic number
The number of protons in an atom.
Atomic symbol
The one- or two-letter symbol used to indicate an element; usually the first letter(s) of the element's name.
Atomic weight
The average of the mass numbers of all the isotopes of an element.
ATP (sdenosine triphosphate)
Organic molecule that stores and releases chemical energy for use in body cells.
Avogadro's number
The number of molecules in one mole of any substance, 6.02 x 1023.
Base
A substance capable of binding with hydrogen ions; a proton acceptor.
Buffer
Chemical substance or system that minimizes changes in pH by releasing or binding hydrogen ions.
Carbohydrate
Organic compound composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; includes starches, sugars, cellulose.
Catalyst
Substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without itself becoming chemically changed or part of the product.
Cation
An ion with a positive charge.
Cellulose
A fibrous carbohydrate that is the main structural component of plant tissues.
Chemical bond
An energy relationship holding atoms together; involves the interaction of electrons.
Chemical energy
Energy stored in the bonds of chemical substances.
Chemical equilibrium
A state of apparent repose created by two reactions proceeding in opposite directions at equal speed.
Chemical reaction
Process in which molecules are formed, changed, or broken down.
Coenzyme
Nonprotein substance associated with and activating an enzyme, typically a vitamin.
Cofactor
Metal ion or organic molecule that is required for enzyme activity.
Colloid
(1) A mixture in which the solute particles (usually proteins) do not settle out readily. (2) Substance in the thyroid gland containing thyroglobulin protein.
Combination (synthesis) reaction
Chemical reaction in which larger, more complex atoms or molecules are formed from simpler ones.
Complementary base
Refers to how a given nitrogenous base of DNA or RNA bonds to another nitrogenous base. For example, adenine (A) is the complementary base of thymine (T). The result is base pairing.
Compound
Substance composed of two or more different elements, the atoms of which are chemically united.
Covalent bond
Chemical bond created by electron sharing between atoms.
Cytosine (C)
Nitrogen-containing base that is part of a nucleotide structure.
Decomposition reaction
Chemical reaction in which a molecule is broken down into smaller molecules or its constituent atoms.
Dehydration synthesis
Process by which a large molecule is synthesized by removing water and covalently bonding smaller molecules together.
Dipeptide
A combination of two amino acids united by means of a peptide bond.
Dipole (polar molecule)
Nonsymmetrical molecules that contain electrically unbalanced atoms.
Disaccharide
Literally, double sugar; e.g., sucrose, lactose.
Displacement (exchange) reaction
Chemical reaction in which bonds are both made and broken; atoms become combined with different atoms.
DNA
A nucleic acid found in all living cells; it carries the organism's hereditary information.
Double helix
The secondary structure assumed by two strands of DNA, held together throughout their length by hydrogen bonds between bases on opposite strands.
Electrical energy
Energy formed by the movement of charged particles across cell membranes.
Electron
Negatively charged subatomic particle; orbits the atom's nucleus.
electron shells (energy level)
Regions of space that consecutively surround the nucleus of an atom.
Element
One of a limited number of unique varieties of matter that composes substances of all kinds; e.g., carbon, hydrogen, oxygen.
Endergonic reaction
Chemical reaction that absorbs energy, e.g., an anabolic reaction.
Energy
The capacity to do work; may be stored (potential energy) or in action (kinetic energy).
Enzyme
A protein that acts as a biological catalyst to speed up a chemical reaction.
Exchange (displacement) reaction
Chemical reaction in which bonds are both made and broken; atoms become combined with different atoms.
Exergonic reaction
Chemical reaction that releases energy, e.g., a catabolic or oxidative reaction.
Fatty acids
Linear chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms (hydrocarbon chains) with an organic acid group at one end. A constituent of fat.
Glycerol
...
Glycogen
Main carbohydrate stored in animal cells; a polysaccharide.
Hydrogen bond
Weak bond in which a hydrogen atom forms a bridge between two electron-hungry atoms. An important intramolecular bond.
Hydrogen ion
A hydrogen atom minus its electron and therefore carrying a positive charge (i.e., a proton).
Hydrolysis
Process in which water is used to split a substance into smaller particles.
Hydroxyl ion (OH)
An ion liberated when a hydroxide (a common inorganic base) is dissolved in water.
Inorganic compound
Chemical substances that do not contain carbon, including water, salts, and many acids and bases.
Ion
Atom with a positive or negative electric charge.
Ionic bond
Chemical bond formed by electron transfer between atoms.
Isomer
One of two or more substances that has the same molecular formula but with its atoms arranged differently.
Isotopes
Different atomic forms of the same element, vary only in the number of neutrons they contain; the heavier species tend to be radioactive.
Ketosis
Excess levels of ketone bodies in blood. Called ketoacidosis if blood pH is low.
Kinetic energy
The energy of motion or movement, e.g., the constant movement of atoms, or the push given to a swinging door that sets it into motion.
Lipid
Organic compound formed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; examples are fats and cholesterol.
Macromolecules
Large, complex molecules containing from 100 to over 10,000 subunits.
Mass number
Sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom.
Mechanical energy
The energy directly involved in moving matter; e.g., in bicycle riding, the legs provide the mechanical energy that moves the pedals.
Molarity
A way to express the concentration of a solution; moles per liter of solution.
Mole
A mole of any element or compound is equal to its atomic weight or its molecular weight (sum of atomic weights) measured in grams.
Molecule
Particle consisting of two or more atoms joined together by chemical bonds.
Neutral fats
Consist of fatty acid chains and glycerol; also called triglycerides or triacylglycerols. Commonly known as oils when liquid.
Neutralization reaction
Displacement reaction in which mixing an acid and a base forms water and a salt.
Neutron
Uncharged subatomic particle; found in the atomic nucleus.
Nonpolar molecules
Electrically balanced molecules.
Nucleic acid
Class of organic molecules that includes DNA and RNA.
Nucleotide
Building block of nucleic acids; consists of a sugar, a nitrogen-containing base, and a phosphate group.
Octet rule (rule of eights)
The tendency of atoms to interact in such a way that they have eight electrons in their valence shell.
Organic compound
Any compound composed of atoms (some of which are carbon) held together by covalent (shared electron) bonds.
Oxidation
Process of substances combining with oxygen or the removal of hydrogen.
Oxidation-reduction (redox) reaction
Process of substances combining with oxygen or the removal of hydrogen.
Peptide bond
Bond joining the amine group of one amino acid to the acid carboxyl group of a second amino acid with the loss of a water molecule.
pH unit
The measure of the relative acidity or alkalinity of a solution.
Phospholipid
Modified lipid, contains phosphorus.
Polar molecules
Nonsymmetrical molecules that contain electrically unbalanced atoms.
Polymer
A substance of high molecular weight with long, chainlike molecules consisting of many similar (repeated) units.
Polypeptide
A chain of amino acids.
Polysaccharide
Literally, many sugars, a polymer of linked monosaccharides; e.g., starch, glycogen.
Potential energy
Stored or inactive energy.
Protein
Complex substance containing carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen; composes 10-30% of cell mass.
Proton
Subatomic particle that bears a positive charge; located in the atomic nucleus.
Proton acceptor
A substance that takes up hydrogen ions in detectable amounts. Commonly referred to as a base.
Proton donor
A substance that releases hydrogen ions in detectable amounts; an acid.
Radioactivity
The process of spontaneous decay seen in some of the heavier isotopes, during which particles or energy is emitted from the atomic nucleus; results in the atom becoming more stable.
Radioisotope
Isotope that exhibits radioactive behavior.
Reactant
A substance taking part in a chemical reaction.
Reduction
Chemical reaction in which electrons and energy are gained by a molecule (often accompanied by gain of hydrogen ions) or oxygen is lost.
RNA
Nucleic acid that contains ribose and the bases A, G, C, and U. Carries out DNA's instructions for protein synthesis.
Sol-gel transformation
Reversible change of a colloid from a fluid (sol) to a more solid (gel) state.
Solute
The substance that is dissolved in a solution.
Steriods
Group of chemical substances including certain hormones and cholesterol; they are fat soluble and contain little oxygen.
Structural (fibrous) proteins
Consist of extended, strandlike polypeptide chains forming a strong, ropelike structure that is linear, insoluble in water, and very stable; e.g., collagen.
Substrate
A reactant on which an enzyme acts to cause a chemical action to proceed.
Suspension
Heterogeneous mixtures with large, often visible solutes that tend to settle out.
Synthesis (combination) reaction
A chemical reaction in which larger, more complex atoms or molecules are formed from simpler ones.
Thymine (T)
Single-ring base (a pyrimidine) in DNA.
Triglycerides
Fats and oils composed of fatty acids and glycerol; are the body's most concentrated source of energy fuel; also known as neutral fats.
Uracil (U)
A smaller, single-ring base (a pyrimidine) found in RNA.
Valance shell
Outermost electron shell (energy level) of an atom that contains electrons
Hydrogen bonds are comparatively strong bonds.
F
The fact that no chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture is the chief difference between mixtures and compounds.
T
Alpha particles, although relatively weak energy particles, are second only to smoking as a cause of lung cancer.
T
No chemical bonding occurs between the components of a mixture.
T
All organic compounds contain carbon.
T
A dipeptide can be broken into two amino acids by dehydration synthesis.
F
The pH of body fluids must remain fairly constant for the body to maintain homeostasis.
T
Mixtures are combinations of elements or compounds that are physically blended together but are not bound by chemical bonds.
T
Buffers resist abrupt and large changes in the pH of the body by releasing or binding ions.
T
Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nervous impulses?
A) Na B) Fe C) I D) P
A
59) Choose the statement that is false or incorrect.
A) In chemical reactions, breaking old bonds requires energy and forming new bonds releases
energy.
B) Exergonic reactions release more energy than they absorb.
C) A key feature of the body's metabolism is the almost exclusive use of exergonic reactions by
the body.
D) Endergonic reactions absorb more energy than they release.
C
In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.
A) a high degree of saturated bonds
B) a high water content
C) a high degree of unsaturated bonds
D) long fatty acid chains
C
The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.
A) sequence of the nucleotides
B) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
C) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules
D) arrangement of the histones
A
Which of the following is not true of proteins?
A) They appear to be the molecular carriers of the coded hereditary information.
B) Their function depends on the three-dimensional shape.
C) Some types are called enzymes.
D) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.
A
The single most abundant protein in the body is ________. A) collagen
B) glucose
C) DNA
D) hemoglobin
A
Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and muscles in the form of ________.
A) triglycerides
B) glycogen
C) cholesterol
D) glucose
B
Which of the following describes coenzymes?
A) organic molecules derived from vitamins
B) enzymes that work together
C) metal ions
D) two enzymes that perform the same function
A
Which of the following is not a role of molecular chaperonins?
A) aid the desired folding and association process of polypeptides
B) promote the breakdown of damaged or denatured proteins
C) prevent accidental, premature, or incorrect folding of polypeptide chains
D) act as a biological catalyst
E) help to translocate proteins and certain metal ions across cell membranes
D
A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.
A) the consumption of energy
B) the release of energy
C) a synthesis
D) forming a larger molecule
B
Salts are always ________.
A) double covalent compounds B) single covalent compounds
C) ionic compounds D) hydrogen bonded
C
The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?
A) 2
B) 2, 8, 1
C) 2, 8
D) 2, 8, 8
B
A solution that has a pH of 2 could best be described as being ________.
A) basic
B) slightly acidic
C) neutral
D) acidic
D
Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?
A) potassium
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) sodium
D
Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?
A) CH4
B) NaOH
C) H2O
D) NaCl
A
What is a chain of 25 amino acids called?
A) protein
B) polypeptide
C) starch
D) nucleotide
B
Which of the following constitutes a long chain of simple sugars?
A) polysaccharide
B) protein
C) monosaccharide
D) nucleic acid
A
What level of protein synthesis is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?
A) primary structure
B) quaternary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) secondary structure
D
Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.
A) addition of a water molecule between each two units
B) removal of a nitrogen atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units
D) addition of a carbon atom between each two units
C
Which statement about enzymes is false?
A) Enzymes are composed mostly of protein.
B) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.
C) Enzymes raise the activation energy needed to start a reaction.
D) Enzymes are organic catalysts.
C
Which of the following statements is false?
A) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more
forcefully.
B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher
numbers.
C) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions.
D) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
A
Which of the following is true regarding the concentration of solutions?
A) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic number of the solute.
B) Molarity is one mole of solute per 1000 ml of solution.
C) Percent solutions are parts per 1000 parts.
D) To calculate molarity, one must know the atomic weight of the solvent.
B
Select the statement about mixtures that is correct.
A) Suspensions are homogeneous mixtures of two or more components.
B) A solution contains solvent in large amounts and solute in smaller quantities.
C) Suspensions can change reversibly from liquid to solid.
D) Solutions contain particles that settle out in time.
B
Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-.
A) a bicarbonate ion
B) common in the liver
C) a proton donor
D) a weak acid
A
Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in living systems.
A) H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen
D) glucose to CO2 and H2O
D
What happens in redox reactions?
A) the electron acceptor is oxidized
B) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
C) the electron donor is reduced
D) the reaction is always easily reversible
B
Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins.
A) are very stable and insoluble in water
B) rarely exhibit secondary structure
C) are cellular catalysts
D) are usually called enzymes
A
Which of the following does not describe the ATP molecule?
A) pigments
B) transport
C) chemical work
D) mechanical work
A
Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.
A) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
B) TDNA is considered a molecular slave of DNA.
C) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.
D) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.
A
Which of the following is an example of a suspension?
A) cytoplasm
B) rubbing alcohol
C) salt water
D) blood
D
Select the correct statement about isotopes.
A) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.
B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons.
C) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their atomic masses.
D) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.
C
The four elements that make up about 96% of body matter are ________.
A) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
B) sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
D) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
C
An example of a coenzyme is ________.
A) copper
B) zinc
C) iron
D) riboflavin (vitamin B2)
D
________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
A) Vitamin D
B) Vitamin K
C) Cortisol
D) Vitamin A
A
In liquid XYZ, you notice that light is scattered as it passes through. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days. What type of liquid is this?
A) solution
B) mixture
C) suspension
D) colloid
D
Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell?
A) 7
B) 10
C) 5
D) 3
A
Which protein types are vitally important to cell function in all types of stressful circumstances?
A) regulatory proteins
B) structural proteins
C) catalytic proteins
D) molecular chaperones
D
If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?
A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons B) 74 protons
C) 37 electrons
D) 37 protons and 37 electrons
D
What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?
A) There are 12 hydrogen, 6 carbon, and 6 oxygen atoms.
B) The substance is a colloid.
C) The molecular weight is 24.
D) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
A
Two good examples of a colloid would be Jell-O® and ________.
A) urine
B) cytosol
C) blood
D) toenails
B
An atom with a valence of 3 may have a total of ________ electrons.
A) 8
B) 3
C) 17
D) 13
D
Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?
A) NaOH --> Na+ + OH-
B) HCl --> H+ + Cl-
C) NH3 + H+ --> NH4+2
D) HCl + NaOH --> NaCl + H2O
D
The chemical symbol O=O means ________.
A) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons
B) zero equals zero
C) the atoms are double bonded
D) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
C
What is a dipole?
A) a type of reaction
B) a polar molecule
C) an organic molecule
D) a type of bond
B
What does CH4 mean?
A) This is an inorganic molecule.
B) This was involved in a redox reaction.
C) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
D) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
D
Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.
A) exchange
B) reversible
C) synthesis
D) decomposition
C
Which of the following is not considered a factor in influencing a reaction?
A) time
B) particle size
C) temperature
D) concentration
A
Which of the following is not an electrolyte?
A) HCl
B) H2O
C) Ca2CO3
D) NaOH
B
Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat?
A) cushioning
B) high heat of vaporization
C) high heat capacity
D) reactivity
E) polar solvent properties
B
Sucrose is a ________.
A) disaccharide
B) triglyceride
C) polysaccharide
D) monosaccharide
A
What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in neutral fats?
A) 1:1
B) 2:1
C) 4:1
D) 3:1
D
In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________.
A) to hold the molecular backbone together
B) as nucleotides
C) as a code
D) to bind the sugars to their bases
A
Heat shock proteins (hsp) are a type of protein called ________.
A) coenzymes
B) chaperonins
C) eicosanoids
D) cofactors
B
Which bonds often bind different parts of a molecule into a specific three-dimensional shape?
A) Carbon
B) Amino acid
C) Oxygen
D) Hydrogen
D
The atomic number is equal to the number of ________.
protons (and electrons)
Molecules such as methane that are made of atoms that share electrons have ________ bonds.
covalent
An atom with three electrons would have a valence of ________.
one
AB--> A + B is an example of a(n) ________ reaction.
decomposition
________ have a bitter taste, feel slippery, and are proton acceptors.
Bases
A holoenzyme is composed of an apoenzyme and a(n) ________.
cofactor
In a DNA molecule, guanine would connect to ________.
cytosine
The ________ molecule directly provides energy for cellular work.
ATP
Hydrogen bonds are more like a type of weak ________ than true bonds.
attraction
Weak acids and bases make good ________.
buffers
Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals.
glycogen
How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it?
one
Which metals have a toxic effect on the body?
heavy
What does the polar end of a phospholipid contain?
a phosphorus-containing group
What type of chemical bond can form between an element with 11 protons and an element with 17 protons?
ionic
What happens when globular proteins are denatured?
The active sites are destroyed.
Explain the difference between potential and kinetic energy.
Potential energy is inactive stored energy that has potential to do work. Kinetic energy is energy in action.
How can phospholipids form a film when mixed in water?
Phospholipids have both polar and nonpolar ends. The polar end interacts with water, leaving the nonpolar end oriented in the opposite direction.
What properties does water have that make it a very versatile fluid?
High heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polarity and solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning.
What advantages does ATP have in being the energy currency molecule?
Its energy is easy to capture and store; it releases just the right amount of energy for the cell's needs so it is protected from excessive energy release. A universal energy currency is efficient because a single system can be used by all the cells in the body.
Explain why chemical reactions in the body are often irreversible.
Chemical reactions that release energy cannot be reversed unless energy is put back into the system. Also, the body may use the chemicals solely for its energy, such as glucose, or some reactions produce molecules in excessive quantities (like CO2 and
NH4) that the body needs to discard.
When a set of electrodes connected to a lightbulb is placed in a solution of dextrose and a current is applied, the lightbulb does not light up. When the same unit is placed in HCl, it does. Why?
HCl ionizes to form current-conducting electrolytes. Dextrose does not ionize, and therefore does not conduct current.
Describe the factors that affect chemical reaction rates.
Temperature increases kinetic energy and therefore the force of molecular collisions. Particle size: smaller particles move faster at the same temperature and therefore collide more frequently; also, smaller particles have more surface area given the same concentration of reactants. Concentration: the higher the concentration, the greater the chance of particles colliding. Catalysts increase the rate of the reaction at a given temperature. Enzymes are biological catalysts.
Protons and electrons exist in every atom nucleus except hydrogen. Is this statement true or false and why?
False_Hydrogen has one proton and one electron. It is the neutron that hydrogen does not have.
Why does a chemical bond never occurs in a mixture?
Mixtures come in three forms: solutions, colloids, and suspensions. Components of these mixtures always retain their original makeup and can be separated into their individual components; therefore no chemical bonding has taken place.
Are all chemical reactions theoretically reversible?
It is possible to reverse any reaction if the products are still present. Those that are only slightly exergonic are easily reversible. Some would require an enormous amount of energy to reverse. In the simple reaction Na + Cl NaCl the amount of energy it takes to reverse table salt to chlorine gas and sodium metal is enormous. The reversing of the covalently bonded sugar molecule once it is reduced to ATP
molecules is even harder or next to impossible.
What is the major difference between polar and nonpolar covalent bonds?
Polar bonds have an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in a slight negative charge at one end of the molecule and a slight positive charge at the other end. Nonpolar bonds have an equal sharing of electrons, resulting in a balanced charge among the atoms.
Does an amino acid act as a proton acceptor or donor?
Amino acids have two components_a base group (proton acceptor) and an organic acid part (a proton donor).
Name at least four things you know about enzymes.
1. They are proteins.
2. They have specific binding sites for specific substrates.
3. They lower the activation barrier for a specific reaction.
4. The names end in "ase."
5. They can be denatured.
6. They can be used again and again.
In the compound H2CO3, what do the numbers 2 and 3 represent?
The 2 indicates that there are two hydrogen atoms in the compound and the 3 indicates that there are three oxygen atoms in the compound.
Are all chemical reactions reversible? If not, why aren't they all reversible?
All chemical reactions are theoretically reversible, but only if the products are not consumed.
Mrs. Mulligan goes to her dentist and, after having a couple of cavities filled, her dentist strongly suggests that she reduce her intake of sodas and increase her intake of calcium phosphates in the foods she eats. Why?
Sodas are strong acids that can reduce bone and tooth salts. Calcium phosphate makes teeth hard and therefore more resistant to tooth decay.
Although his cholesterol levels were not high, Mr. Martinez read that cholesterol was bad for his health, so he eliminated all foods and food products containing this molecule. He later found that his cholesterol level dropped only 20%. Why did it not drop more?
Cholesterol is produced by the liver, in addition to being ingested in foods.
How can DNA be used to "fingerprint" a suspect in a crime?
The DNA of a person is unique to that individual. By obtaining the DNA from nucleated cells from the crime scene (e.g., tissue, sperm), enzymes may be used to break up the DNA into fragments. Because
nearly everyone's DNA is different, it also breaks up into fragments differently. When the fragments are separated, they form patterns even more unique than fingerprint patterns. A match of suspect and crime
scene DNA is strong evidence.
Why is it possible for us to drink a solution that contains a mixture of equal concentration of a strong acid and a strong base, either of which, separately, would be very caustic?
When an acid and base of equal strength are mixed, they undergo a displacement reaction to form a water and a salt.
A 65-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints of severe heartburn unrelieved by taking a "large handful" of antacids. Would you expect the pH to be high or low? Explain why
You would expect a high pH. Taking antacids will neutralize the acidic stomach. Taking a "handful" of antacids can cause an alkaloid state. Certain drugs, such as corticosteroids and antacids that contain
baking soda, will lead to metabolic alkalosis.
A 23-year-old male was riding his road bike in 100-degree heat, when he suddenly became nauseated and weak. He called 911 from his cell phone. When the ambulance came, the paramedics started intravenous
therapy for severe dehydration. Explain the critical role of water to maintain homeostasis.
Water is the most abundant and important inorganic compound in living material. It makes up 60% to 80% of the volume of most living cells. The properties of water are: high heat capacity, high heat of vaporization, polar solvent properties, reactivity, and cushioning. In this case the bicyclist lost a large amount of water through perspiration in an effort to cool his body. This caused a disruption in homeostasis.
Brenda is a 26-year-old female who is being discharged from the hospital after a vaginal delivery of an 8-pound healthy infant. Brenda is instructed by the nurse to eat a diet high in fiber and to drink 8 glasses of
water per day to prevent constipation. Explain the role of fiber and water to promote defecation.
Cellulose is a polysaccharide found in all plant products that adds bulk to the diet to promote feces through the colon. Water acts as a lubricating liquid within the colon, which eases feces through the
bowel.
A 64-year-old man is admitted to the hospital for nonhealing pressure ulcers to his heels. He has been bedridden for 10 years because of a degenerative muscle disease. Explain why protein would be an important
part of his diet to promote wound healing.
Protein composes 10% to 30% of cell mass and is the basic structural material of the body. Proteins regulate body processes. Skin, hair, and eyes are made of protein, as are the enzymes needed for
digestion and absorption. Protein is essential for growth, maintenance, and repair of tissue.
Which of the following statements about kinetic energy is INCORRECT?
A) It is a type of stored energy.
B) It is energy in action.
C) It is based on moving one object to start a series of objects moving that eventually perform work.
D) It works by moving objects.
A
This is a characteristic of potential energy.
Which of the following types of energy moves in waves?
A) Mechanical energy
B) Radiant energy
C) Electrical energy
D) Chemical energy
B
Radiant energy moves in waves.
Ninety-six percent of body weight is made up of:
A) 92 elements.
B) 4 elements.
C) 20 elements.
D) 112 elements.
B:
Only four elements (oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen) make up 96% of the human body.
Each known element is designated with a one- or two-letter chemical shorthand known as the:
A) atomic symbol.
B) atomic weight.
C) atomic number.
D) atomic mass unit.
A
The atomic symbol is the one- or two-letter chemical shorthand designated to a chemical.
A homogenous mixture of gases, liquids, or solids is referred to as a:
A) solution.
B) mixture.
C) solute.
D) solvent.
A
A solution is a homogenous mixture of gases, liquids, or solids.
Chemical bonds:
A) are energy relationships between the protons of the reacting atoms.
B) are physical structures that hold atoms together.
C) take a long time to break.
D) are energy relationships between the electrons of the reacting atoms.
D
The outermost energy shell of an atom is known as its:
A) electron shell.
B) valence shell.
C) energy level.
D) orbital model.
B
The valance shell is the outermost energy shell of an atom.
An ionic bond is:
A) formed when electrons shared between two or more electrons is unequally shared.
B) a chemical bond where two atoms share the electrons in the outer shell.
C) is a chemical bond formed by the transfer of one or more electrons from the outermost energy level (the valance shell) of one atom to that of the other.
D) is formed when the a hydrogen bond already covalently linked to one electronegative atom binds with another electron hungry atom to form a bridge.
C:
An ionic bond is formed when a chemical bond formed by the transfer of one or more electrons from the outermost energy level (the valance shell) of one atom to that of the other.
When atoms or molecules combine to form larger more complex molecules, the process is known as:
A) exchange.
B) decomposition.
C) catabolism.
D) anabolism.
D:
Anabolism is the process by which atoms or molecules combine to form larger more complex molecules
Reactions which release energy are:
A) exchange reactions.
B) exergonic reactions.
C) catabolic reactions.
D) anabolic reactions.
B:
Exergonic reactions are reactions that release energy.
Which of the following factors would speed up the rate of a chemical reaction?
A) High concentration of reagents
B) Lower temperature
C) Removing the biological catalysts
D) Large particles
A
Chemical reactions take place faster if the reacting particles are present in a high number.
Which of the following is considered the universal solvent?
A) Plasma
B) Water
C) Blood
D) Intracellular fluid
B:
Water is an unparallel solvent and thus known as the universal solvent.
pH is a concentration unit used to measure the concentration of:
A) cations in a solution.
B) hydroxyl ions in a solution.
C) anions in a solution.
D) hydrogen ions in a solution.
D
pH specifically measures the concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution.
Chaperonins aid in the desired folding of:
A) nucleic acids.
B) lipid molecules.
C) carbohydrate molecules.
D) proteins.
D:
Chaperonins are enzymes that aid in the desired folding of proteins.
Prostaglandins are:
A) carbohydrates.
B) enzymes.
C) lipids.
D) proteins.
C
Prostaglandins are a type of eicosanoids, which are diverse lipids found in the cell membrane.
Which of the following lipids are thought to decrease heart disease?
A) Steroids
B) Trans fats
C) Phospholipids
D) Omega-3 fatty acids
D
Omega-3 fatty acids appear to decrease heart disease.
Sugars contain all of the following, except:
A) oxygen.
B) hydrogen.
C) calcium.
D) carbon.
C
Sugars contain CHO.
An organic compound is analyzed, and it has twice as many hydrogen atoms as oxygen atoms. This compound is most likely a:
A) protein.
B) lipid.
C) carbohydrate.
D) nucleic acid.
D
Carbohydrates have CHO with a 1:2:1 ratio.
Catabolic reactions involve:
A) formation of chemical bonds.
B) synthesis.
C) release of energy.
D) input of energy.
C
Catabolic reactions involve a release of energy.
Chemical reactions that release energy are:
A) exergonic.
B) in chemical equilibrium.
C) homeostatic.
D) endergonic.
A
Chemical reactions that release energy are exergonic.
The building blocks of RNA and DNA are:
A) uracil.
B) nucleotides.
C) thymine.
D) ribose sugars.
B
The building blocks of RNA and DNA are nucleotides.
The most important steroid molecule is:
A) protein.
B) fatty acid.
C) cholesterol.
D) phospholipid.
C
Cholesterol is the most important steroid molecule.
The sequence of amino acids in a protein constitutes the ________ structure of the protein.
A) tertiary
B) primary
C) quaternary
D) secondary
B
Primary structure is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.
The difference between a colloid and a suspension is:
A) A colloid is a homogenous solution, while a suspension is a heterogeneous solution.
B) In a colloid, particles settle out in time, whereas this does not take place in a suspension.
C) A suspension causes light to scatter, while a beam of light passing through a colloid does not scatter.
D) A colloid can undergo sol-gel transformation, whereas a suspension cannot.
D
Which of the following statements about a dipole is INCORRECT?
A) The dipole molecules are electrically balanced.
B) They are essential for chemical reactions of body cells to take place.
C) An example of a dipole molecule is water.
D) They orient themselves towards other dipole molecules.
A
Feedback:
Non-polar molecules are electrically balanced
In hydrolysis:
A) a molecule of water is removed when proteins are synthesized from smaller molecules.
B) a molecule of water is added for each bond broken.
C) a reactant accepts electrons.
D) electrons are lost from a reactant.
B
This reaction is known as hydrolysis.
All electrolytes are:
A) ions.
B) polar molecules.
C) nonpolar molecules.
D) acids.
A
Electrolytes are ions, which are capable of conducting an electrical current.
The function of microRNA (miRNA) is to:
A) serve as part of the structure of the ribosome.
B) controls genetic expression by turning some genes on and others off, thus controlling genetic expression.
C) transfer genetic code to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
D) transfer amino acids from the cellular fluid to the ribosome for protein synthesis.
B
MicroRNA (miRNA) controls genetic expression by turning some genes on and others off, thus controlling genetic expression.
Buffers tend to prevent dramatic changes in the pH when ________ are added to a solution.
A) proton donors
B) glucose molecules
C) oxygen molecules
D) hydrogen gas molecules
A
Ionic bonds form between two atoms when:
A) protons are exchanged.
B) the two atoms share electrons.
C) neutrons are exchanged.
D) one atom donates an electron to the other atom.
D
Anatomy
study of structure and shape of the body and its parts and their relationships with one another
Gross Anatomy
study of large, easily observable structures
Microscopic Anatomy
study of body structures that are too small to be seen with the naked eye
Regional Anatomy
all the structures (muscles, bones, blood vessels, nerves, etc.) in particular region of the body, such as the abdomen or leg, are examined at the same time
Systematic Anatomy
body structure is studied system by system
Surface Anatomy
the study of internal structures as they relate to the overlying skin surface
Physiology
concerns the function of the body, how body works
Cytology
study of the cells of the body
Histology
the study of tissues
Developmental Anatomy
traces structural changes that occur in the body throughout the lifespan
Embryology
a subdivision of developmental anatomy, concerns developmental changes that occur before birth
Renal Physiology
concerns kidney function and urine production
Neurophysiology
explains the workings of the nervous system
Cardiovascular Physiology
examines the operation of the heart and blood vessels
Levels of Structural Organization
1. Chemical Level: Atoms combine to form molecules
2. Cellular Level: Cells are made up of molecules.
3. Tissue Level: Tissues consist of similar types of cells.
4. Organ Level: Organs are made up of different types of tissues.
5. Organ System Level: Organ systems consist of different organs that work together closely.
6. Organism Level: Human organisms are made up of many organ systems.
Atoms
tiny building blocks of matter, combine to form molecules such as water, sugar, and proteins
Cells
molecules are associated; the smallest units of all living things
Tissue
consist of groups of similar cells that have a common function
Organ
a structure composed of two or more tissue types that performs a specific function for the body
Organ System
a group of organs that work together to accomplish a common purpose
Organism
the living body composed of all 11 organ systems; highest level of structural organization
Integumentary System
This system includes the skin, sweat glands, oil glands, hair, and nails.
Functions: waterproofs the body, protects deeper tissue, helps regulate body temperature.
Skeletal System
This system includes bones, cartilages, ligaments, and joints

Functions: protects and supports the body organs, provides framework for muscles, causes movement, site of blood cell formation, and stores minerals, especially calcium.
Muscular System
This system includes the muscles and tendons of the body.
Functions: allows manipulation of the environment, locomotion, and facial expression, maintains posture, used to produce heat. Muscles contract or shorten for movement to occur.
Nervous System
This system consists of the brain, spinal cord, nerves, and sensory receptors

Functions: the body's fast-acting control system, responds to stimuli by activating appropriate muscles and glands, sensory receptors detect stimuli from outside and inside the body, and send these messages to the central nervous system (brain, spinal cord) so that it is informed about what is going on.
Endocrine System
This system includes: the thymus, thyroid gland, pineal gland, pituitary gland, adrenal gland, pancreas, and the ovary, and testis.
Functions: control body activities; endocrine glands produce chemical molecules called hormones and release them into the blood to travel to relatively distant target organs.
Cardiovascular System
This system includes: the heart and blood vessels.

Functions: the heart pumps blood, the blood vessels carries oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and other substances throughout the body to and from the tissue cells where exchanges are made.
Lymphatic System
This system includes: the thymus, lymphatic vessels, spleen, lymph nodes, thoracic duct, and red bone marrow.
Functions: picks up fluid leaked from blood vessels and returns it to blood, disposes of debris in the lymphatic stream, houses white blood cells, complements that of the cardiovascular system, and involved in immunity.
Respiratory System
This system includes: the lungs, bronchus, trachea, larynx, pharynx, and nasal cavity.
Functions: to keep the body supplied with oxygen and to remove carbon dioxide.
Digestive System
This system includes: the oral cavity, esophagus, liver, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum, and anus. It is a tube running through the body from mouth to anus.
Functions: breaks down food into absorbable units that enter the blood, delivers the products to the blood for dispersal to the body cells, and eliminates indigestible foodstuffs as feces.
Urinary System
This system includes: the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra.
Functions: removes the nitrogen containing wastes from the blood and flushes them from the body in urine, maintains body's water, pH and salt (electrolyte) balance, and regulating the acid-base balance of the blood.
Reproductive System
This system includes: (males) Scrotum, penis, accessory glands, and the duct system.
This system includes: (females): the mammary glands, uterine tubes, uterus, ovary, and vagina.
Functions: exists primarily to produce offspring. The female reproductive system produce eggs and female sex hormones in the ovaries. Mammary glands produce milk to nourish the newborn. The remaining structures serve as sites for fertilization and development of the fetus. In the male reproductive system, the testes produce sperm and male sex hormones.
Homeostasis
the body's ability to maintain relatively stable internal conditions even though the outside world changes continuously; dynamic state of Equilibrium
Variable
all homeostatic control mechanism are processes involving at least 3 components that work together

receptor, control center, effector
Receptor
some type of sensor that monitors the environment and responds to changes called stimuli, by sending information (input) to the control center along the afferent pathway
Control Center
determines the set point, which is the level or range at which a variable is to be maintained, and information (output) then flows from the control center to the effector along the efferent pathway
Effector
provides the means for the control center's response (output) to the stimulus
Negative Feedback Mechanism
the output shuts off the original effect of the stimulus or reduces its intensity
Positive Feedback Mechanism
the result or response enhances the original stimulus so that the response is accelerated
Homeostatic Imbalance
Disturbance of Homeostasis
Superior (cranial)
toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above
Inferior (caudal)
Pertaining to a position toward the lower or tail end of the long axis of the body; away from the head end or toward the tail or lower part of a structure or the body; below; in humans the inferior portion of the anatomy
Ventral (anterior)
toward or at the front of the body; in front of
Dorsal (posterior)
Toward or at the back of the body; behind
Medial
toward the midline of the body; on the inner side of
Lateral
away from the midline of the body; on the outer side of
Intermediate
between a more medial and a more lateral structure
Proximal
closer to the origin of the body part or the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk
Distal
farther from the point of attachment of a limb to the body trunk or from the attached end
Superficial
toward or at the body surface
Deep (internal)
away from the body surface; more internal
Anatomical Position
erect, feet forward, arms at side with palms facing forward, head facing forward, internationally know
Directional Terms
allow us to explain where one body structure is in relation to another
Axial
fundamental division of our body. Makes up the main axis of our body, includes the head, neck, and trunk.
Appendicular
fundamental division of our body. relating to the limbs and their attachments to the axis.
Regional Terms
used to designate specific areas within major body divisions
Abdominal
pertaining to the anterior body trunk region inferior to the ribs
Acromial
pertaining to the point of the shoulder
Antebrachial
pertaining to the forearm
Antecubital
pertaining to the anterior surface of the elbow
Axillary
pertaining to the armpit
Brachial
pertaining to the arm
Buccal
pertaining to the cheek
Carpal
Pertaining to the wrist
Cephalic
pertaining to the head
Cervical
pertaining to the neck region
Coxal
pertaining to the hip
Crural
pertaining to the leg
Digital
pertaining to the fingers or toes
Femoral
pertaining to the thigh
Fibular (peroneal)
pertaining to the side of the leg
Frontal
pertaining to the forehead
Hallux
pertaining to the great toe
Inguinal
pertaining to the groin
Mammary
pertaining to the breast
Manus
pertaining to the hand
Mental
pertaining to the chin
Nasal
pertaining to the nose
Oral
pertaining to the mouth
Orbital
pertaining to the eye socket (orbit)
Palmar
pertaining to the palm of the hand
Patellar
pertaining to the anterior knee (kneecap) region
Pedal
pertaining to the foot
Pelvic
pertaining to the pelvis region
Pollex
pertaining to the thumb
Pubic
pertaining to the genital region
Sternal
pertaining to the region of the breastbone
Tarsal
pertaining to the ankle
Thoracic
pertaining to the chest
Umbilical
pertaining to the navel
Acromial
pertaining to the point of the shoulder
Calcaneal
pertaining to the heel of the foot
Dorsum
pertaining to the back
Gluteal
pertaining to the buttocks or rump
Lumbar
the portion of the back between the thorax and the pelvis; pertaining to the area of the back between the ribs and hips; the loin
Occipital
pertaining to the posterior aspect of the elbow
Otic
pertaining to the ear
Perineal
pertaining to the region between the anus and external genitalia
Plantar
pertaining to the sole of the foot
Popliteal
pertaining to the back of the knee
Sacral
pertaining to the region between the hips (overlying the sacrum)
Scapular
pertaining to the scapula or shoulder blade area
Sural
pertaining to the calf or posterior surface of the leg
Vertebral
pertaining to the area of the spinal column
Anterior/Ventral Body
Posterior/Dorsal Body
Sagittal
a longitudinal (vertical) plane that divides the body or any of its parts into right and left parts
Median Plane (midsagittal plane)
sagittal plane that lies exactly in the midline
Parasagittal Planes
all sagittal planes offset from the midline
Frontal Planes (Coronal Plane)
Longitudinal (vertical) plane that divides the body or an organ into anterior and posterior parts
Transverse/Horizontal Plane
A plane that runs horizontally from right to left, dividing the body or an organ into superior and inferior parts
Oblique Sections
cuts made diagonally between the horizontal and the vertical planes of the body or an organ
Dorsal Body Cavity
protects the fragile nervous system organs, has 2 subdivisions
Cranial Cavity
in the skull, encases the brain
Vertebral Cavity (Spinal Cavity)
runs within the bony vertebral column, encloses the delicate spinal cord
Ventral Body Cavity
the more anterior and larger of the closed body cavities, has 2 major subdivisions, houses internal organs called Viscera
Thoracic Cavity
surrounded by the ribs and muscles of the chest
Pleural Cavities
lateral subdivision of Thoracic Cavity, enveloping a lung, and the Medial Mediastinum
Medial Mediastinum
contains the pericardial cavity
Pericardial Cavity
encloses the heart and also surrounds the the remaining thoracic organs (esophagus, trachea, and others)
Abdominopelvic Cavity
seperated from thoracic cavity by the diaphram, a dome shaped muscle important in breathing. Has abdominal and pelvic cavities
Abdominal Cavity
Contains stomach, intestines, spleen, and liver, and other organs
Pelvic Cavity
Contains urinary bladder, reproductive organs, and rectum
Serosa (Serous Membrane)
The moist membrane found in closed ventral body cavities.
Parietal Serosa
The part of the double-layered membrane that lines the walls of the ventral body cavity.
Visceral Serosa
the part of the double-layered membrane that lines the outer surfaces of organs with the ventral body cavity.
Abdominopelvic Quadrants
Divisions used primarily by medical personnel
Abdominopelvic Regions
Nine divisions used primarily by anatomists
This system directly causes mechanical motion.
Muscular
This system responds to environmental changes
by transmitting electrical impulses.
Nervous
This system provides support and levers for muscles to work on.
Skeletal
This system protects underlying organs from mechanical damage and synthesizes vitamin D.
Integumentary
This system controls the body with chemical molecules called hormones.
Endocrine
This system delivers oxygen and nutrients to the tissues.
Cardiovascular
This system produces antibodies that neutralize foreign substances.
Immune
This system removes and filters excess fluid from tissues.
Lymphatic
What type of feedback is blood glucose levels?
Negative feedback
What type of feedback is blood pressure?
Negative feedback
What type of feedback is blood clotting?
Positive feedback
What type of feedback is delivering a baby?
Positive feedback
This system includes Arteries, veins, heart.
Cardiovascular
This system includes Trachea, bronchi, alveoli.
Respiratory
This system includes Adrenal glands, pancreas, pituitary.
Endocrine
This system includes Esophagus, large intestine, rectum.
Digestive
This system includes Kidneys, bladder, ureters.
Urinary
In what cavity is the brain found?
Cranial
In what cavity are the lungs found?
Thoracic
In what cavity is the Stomach found?
Abdominopelvic
In what cavity is the heart found?
A) Cranial
B) Thoracic
C) Abdominopelvic
B
In what cavity is the uterus found?
A) Cranial
B) Thoracic
C) Abdominopelvic
C
The bridge of the nose is ________ to
the left eye.
A) Proximal
B) Anterior
C) Distal
D) Superior
E) Medial
E
The upper arm is ________ to the
forearm.
A) Proximal
B) Anterior
C) Distal
D) Superior
E) Medial
A
The heart is ________ to the stomach.
A) Proximal
B) Anterior
C) Distal
D) Superior
E) Medial
D
The fingers are ________ to the wrist.
A) Proximal
B) Anterior
C) Distal
D) Superior
E) Medial
C
The stomach is ________ to the spine.
A) Proximal
B) Anterior
C) Distal
D) Superior
E) Medial
B
Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
True
Imaging is useful in discovering obstructed blood supplies in organs and tissues.
True
The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body.
True
The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.
False
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.
False
A major function of serous membranes is to decrease friction.
True
The right hypochondriac region contains the majority of the stomach.
False
Lungs carry out an excretory function.
True
Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age.
False
A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.
True
It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it.
True
Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance.
True
Regardless of the variable being regulated, all homeostatic control mechanisms have at least three
interdependent components.
True
The epigastric region is located superior to the umbilical region.
True
Histology would be best defined as a study of ________.
A) cells
B) the gross structures of the body
C) tissues
D) cell chemistry
C
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is __________ anatomy.
A) developmental
B) systemic
C) gross
D) microscopic
C
An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the
bloodstream would be best described as an example of ________.
A) metabolism
B) maintaining boundaries
C) responsiveness
D) excretion of metabolic waste
D
Average body temperature is ________ degrees centigrade.
A) 98
B) 47
C) 68
D) 37
D
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would 60)
be the ________.
A) receptor
B) variable
C) effector
D) control center
D
What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?
A) to keep the body's sugar high
B) to regulate excretion
C) to control all body system tissues D) to maintain homeostasis
D
What is the specific name for the hip region?
A) inguinal
B) manus
C) coxal
D) pedal
C
An oblique cut is one that is cut ________.
A) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
B) horizontal right and left
C) vertical right and left
D) perpendicular to vertical and horizontal
A
The heart lies in the ________ cavity.
A) pericardial
B) superior mediastinal
C) dorsal
D) pleural
A
The cavities housing the eyes are called __________ cavities.
orbital
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a(n) ________.
A) organ
B) complex cell
C) organ system
D) complex tissue A
________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) Orbital
B) Oral
C) Nasal
D) Synovial
D
Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life?
A) decay
B) maintenance of boundaries
C) movement
D) responsiveness to external stimuli
A
Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
A) anterior
B) distal
C) lateral
D) dorsal
D
The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is ________.
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) water
D) protein
C
What is the posterior side of the patella called?
A) antecubital
B) sural
C) popliteal
D) crural
C
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanisms?
A) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
B) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
D) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
C
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ________.
A) body erect
B) arms at sides
C) thumbs pointed laterally
D) palms turned posteriorly
D
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ________.
A) regulating glucose levels in the blood B) blood calcium level regulation
C) body temperature regulation D) enhancement of labor contractions
D
Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
A) a transverse cut just above the knees
B) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior
C) any sagittal plane except the median
D) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
C
The parietal pleural would represent a serous membrane ________.
A) covering the heart
B) covering individual lungs
C) lining the thoracic cavity
D) lining the abdominal cavity
C
Which of the following statements is the most correct regarding homeostatic imbalance?
A) Positive feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed.
B) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
C) The internal environment is becoming more stable.
D) Negative feedback mechanisms are functioning normally.
B) It is considered the cause of most diseases.
One of the functional characteristics of life is irritability. This refers to ________.
A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
B) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce
C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger
D) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system
A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them
Which of the following are survival needs of the body?
A) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement
B) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction
C) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
D) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction
C) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen
The anatomical position is used ________.
A) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position
B) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen
C) only when a body is lying down
D) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
D) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into left and right, called?
A) sagittal
B) regional
C) transverse
D) frontal
A) sagittal
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
A) transverse
B) median
C) frontal
D) sagittal
C) frontal
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) vertebral
B) dorsal
C) cranial
D) thoracic
B) dorsal
Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels?
A) systemic anatomy
B) cardiovascular anatomy
C) cardiovascular physiology
D) systemic physiology
B) cardiovascular anatomy
Similar cells that have a common function are called ________.
Answer: tissues
What does the "principle of complementarity of structures and function" mean?
The relationship between a structure and its function. What a structure can do depends on its specific form, or "structure determines function."
The term that describes the back of the elbow is ________.
olecranal
The term that describes the heel region is ________.
calcaneal
The elbow is ________ to the wrist.
proximal
The ________ cavity contains tiny bones that transmit sound vibrations to the organ of hearing in the inner ear.
middle ear;
The term pollex refers to the ________.
A) great toe
B) fingers
C) thumb
D) calf
Answer: C
Select the most correct statement.
A) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.
B) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system.
C) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.
Answer: C
________ is the study of the function of living organsims. It also can be explained by chemical and physical principles and is concerned with the function of specific organs or organic systems.
Answer: Physiology
What is a dynamic equilibrium of your internal environment termed?
Answer: homeostasis
Which cavity contains the bladder some reproductive organs, and the rectum?
Answer: pelvic
What is the serous membrane that covers the intestines called?
visceral
________ physiology concerns urine production and kidney function.
Answer: Renal
What is the broad term covers all chemical reactions that occur within the body cells or the sum total of the chemical reactions occuring in the body cells?
metabolism
What is the function of the serous membranes?
Answer: They act to reduce friction and allow the organs to slide across cavity walls.
Fully describe the anatomical position for the human body.
Answer: The body is erect, arms hanging at the sides, palms forward, and thumbs pointed away from the midline.
What does gross anatomy study?
Larger structures of the body that can be seen with the naked eye.
Can lungs carry out excretory functions?
Yes, carbon dioxide is a metabolic waste the lungs excrete.
At higher elevations there is greater atmospheric pressure which causes a loss of oxygen.
Answer: False, the higher we go, the less atmospheric pressure, therefore less oxygen.
Why is anatomical terminology necessary?
Anatomical terms are precise words that have limited usage, which prevents confusion when describing the location of body parts.
What are the five cavities of the head:
cranial, oral, nasal, middle ear, and orbital.
The ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is called ________.
responsiveness or irritability
What is the single most abundant chemical substance in the body?
water
Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?
If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function.
What is the pathway between the receptor and the control center in the reflex pathway called?
afferent pathway
What type of homeostatic feedback reflex is the withdrawal reflex?
negative
Why are the abdominopelvic cavity organs the most vulnerable in an automobile accident?
The walls of the abdominal cavity are formed only by trunk muscles and are not reinforced by bone. The pelvic organs receive a somewhat greater degree of protection from the bony pelvis.
What is the goal of all of the negative feedback mechanisms of the body?
The goal is to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
Which feedback mechanism causes the variable to deviate further and further from its original value or range?
positive feedback
What can happen when the usual negative feedback mechanisms are overwhelmed and destructive positive feedback mechanisms take over?
Homeostatic imbalances increase our risk for illness and produce the changes we associate with aging.
Which body system would be most affected by a lower than normal atmospheric pressure?
respiratory system
carrying to or toward a center
afferent
Energy-requiring building phase of metabolism in which simpler substances are combined to form more complex substances.
anabolism
Study of the structure of living organisms.
anatomy
Relating to the limbs; one of the two major divisions of the body.
appendicular
Force that air exerts on the surface of the body (760 mm Hg at sea level).
atmospheric pressure
This organ system distributes the blood to deliver nutrients and remove wastes.
cardiovascular system
A muscle cell's ability to move by shortening.
contractility
Relating to the opposite side.
contralateral
The outer surface layer of an organ.
cortex
A cut running horizonatally from right to left, dividing the body or an organ into superior and inferior parts.
cross section
The system that processes food into absorbable units and eliminates indigestible wastes.
digestive system
Pertaining to the back; posterior
dorsal
Orga, gland, or muscle capable of being activated by nerve endings.
effector
Elimination of waste products from the body.
excretion
Of external origin.
extrinsic
Branch of anatomy dealing with the microscopic structure of tissues.
histology
A state of body equilibrium or stable internal environment of the body.
homeostasis
The organ system consisting of the skeletal muscles of the body and their connective tissue attachments.
muscular system
This is the most common homeostatic control mechanism. The net effect is that the output of the system shifts off the original stimulus or reduces its intensity.
Negative feedback mechanisms
A part of the body formed of two or more tissues and adapted to carry out a specific function; e.g., the stomach.
organ
A group of organs that work together to perform a vital body function; ex., the nervous system.
Organ system
The living animal (or plant), which represents the sum total of all its organ systems working together to maintain life.
Organism
Pertaining to the walls of a cavity.
parietal
The feedback that tends to cause the level of a variable to change in the same direction as an initial change.
Positive feedback mechanims
A cell or nerve ending of a sensory neuron specialized to respond to particular types of stimuli; protein that binds specifically with other molecules.
receptor
A cut through the body (or an organ) that is made along a particular plane; a thin slice of tissue prepared for microscopic study.
section
Clear, watery fluid secreted by cells of a serous membrane.
serous fluid
Pertaining to the whole body.
systemic
Pertaining to the front; anterior
ventral
Pertaining to an internal organ of the body or the inner part of a structure.
visceral
A group of internal organs housed in the ventral body cavity.
Visceral organs
A person with appendicitis will most often present with pain in the:
A) epigastric region.
B) right upper quadrant.
C) left upper quadrant.
D) right lower quadrant.
E) left lower quadrant.
D
The plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is called the:
A) oblique plane.
B) sagittal plane.
C) frontal plane.
D) midsagittal plane.
E) transverse plane.
C
Homeostatic imbalance has occurred when a:
A) person's breathing rate increases as a result of exercise.
B) person sweats as a result of being hot.
C) person shivers as a result of being cold.
D) person becomes ill.
E) person's heart rate increases as a result of exercise.
D
Select the option that shows increasing complexity levels.
A) Cellular, tissue, organ system, organ
B) Organ, tissue, cellular, organ system
C) Cellular, tissue, organ, organ system
D) Tissue, organ, organ system, cellular
E) Organ system, organ, tissue, cellular
C
Approximately what percentage of the air we breathe is made of oxygen?
A) 20%
B) 60%
C) 80%
D) 100%
E) 40%
A
The cranial cavity is housed in:
A) the abdominopelvic cavity.
B) the dorsal body cavity.
C) the thoracic cavity.
D) the vertebral cavity.
E) the ventral body cavity.
B
Which choice below is NOT one of the three components of homeostatic control systems?
A) The effector
B) Receptor (senses the change)
C) The control center
D) Stimulus (cause of the initial change)
D
The respiratory system contains the:
A) pituitary, pineal, and thyroid glands.
B) trachea, bronchi, and lungs.
C) kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
D) uterus, vagina, and uterine tube.
E) liver, small intestine, and colon.
B
The spleen is the largest organ in the:
A) nervous system.
B) respiratory system.
C) endocrine system
D) lymphatic system.
E) reproductive system.
D
Which of the following would be an example of positive feedback?
A) Release of oxytocin to increase the strength of labor contractions
B) Release of glucagon to increase a below normal level of glucose in the blood
C) Release of insulin to decrease a high level of glucose in the blood
D) Shivering to generate heat in a situation where body temperature is below normal
A
Which internal organ is NOT housed in the ventral body cavity?
A) Heart
B) Lung
C) Stomach
D) Spinal cord
D
Which of the following body systems acts as a fast-acting control system for the body?
A) Respiratory
B) Skeletal
C) Endocrine
D) Nervous
E) Reproductive
D
Which of the following is NOT a necessary human life function?
A) Excretion
B) Intelligence
C) Movement
D) Metabolism
E) Responsiveness
B
Which one of the following requires magnification to study?
A) Gross anatomy
B) Microscopic anatomy
C) Surface anatomy
D) Regional anatomy
B
Which one of the following covers an organ?
A) Visceral pericardium
B) Parietal pleura
C) Parietal pericardium
D) Parietal peritoneum
A
The branch of anatomy that traces structural changes that occur in the body throughout the life span is referred to as:
A) regional anatomy.
B) developmental anatomy.
C) microscopic anatomy.
D) surface anatomy.
B
The ability to sense changes in the environment and respond to them is a physiological ability known as:
A) excretion.
B) digestion.
C) metabolism.
D) responsiveness.
D
If the human body temperature drops slightly below 37° C (98.6° F), the following occurs:
A) Death takes place
B) Chemical reactions continue at life sustaining rates
C) Metabolic reactions become slower
D) Metabolic reactions become faster
C
All of the following are correct positioning when placing the body in the anatomical position, except:
A) The body is "standing to attention"
B) The feet are slightly apart
C) The palms are facing forward
D) The thumbs are pointing medially
D
Which of the following is/are not included in axial part of the body?
A) The head
B) The trunk
C) The upper limbs
D) The neck
C
The midsagittal plane:
A) cuts the body diagonally between the horizontal and the vertical planes.
B) divides the body in two equal but non-identical left and right parts along the midline.
C) divides the body into left and right parts that are parallel to the midline.
D) divides the body into an upper and lower portion in the horizontal plane.
B
Which of the following organs lies in the dorsal cavity?
A) The kidney
B) The stomach
C) The spinal cord
D) The lungs
C
Which of the following organs lies in the dorsal cavity?
A) The kidney
B) The stomach
C) The spinal cord
D) The lungs
C
The body cavity which houses the lung is known as the:
A) pericardial cavity.
B) the cranial cavity.
C) the pleural cavity.
D) the pelvic cavity.
C
If you know that the appendix lies in the right lower part of the trunk, you could also say it lies in the:
A) the right hypochondriac region.
B) right inguinal region.
C) hypogastric region.
D) umbilical region.
B
The visceral serosa membrane:
A) Divides the ventral cavity into an upper thoracic cavity and a lower abdominal pelvic cavity.
B) lines the inner surface of hollow organs.
C) covers the outer surface of organs in a body cavity.
D) lines the wall of a body cavity.
C
All the following are true about serous fluid, except that:
A) it allows freedom of movement between the two layers of serosa.
B) it increases the friction produced by the movement of the organs with which it is associated.
C) it is secreted by both visceral and parietal serosa.
D) it fills the potential space between the visceral and parietal serosa.
B
The cavity between bones at the joint is known as ____________________.
A) the synovial cavity.
B) the orbital cavity.
C) the pleural cavity.
D) the retroperitoneal cavity.
A
Which of the following events is not the result of a negative feedback mechanism?
A) Sweating to help lower elevated body temperature
B) Blood clotting when the lining of a blood vessel is injured
C) Decreased urine production when the blood pressure dropsX
D) An increased respiratory rate when blood pH is elevated
B
Which of the following body systems functions to produce blood cells?
A) Urinary
B) Skeletal
C) Circulatory
D) Reproductive
E) Respiratory
B
Positron emission tomography (PET):
A) excels in diagnosis of conditions of the brain and abdomen.
B) is the imagining technique of choice in obstetrics.
C) excels in observing metabolic processes.
D) is used to produce three-dimensional video images of body organs.
C
Which of the following best defines physiology?
A. The study of tissues.
B. The study of all chemical reactions that occur within body cells.
C. The study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.
D. The study of the structure of body parts and their relationships to one another.
C
The study of how the body parts work and carry out their life-sustaining activities.
Which of the following best describes macroscopic anatomy?
A. The study of structural changes that occur in the body throughout one's lifespan.
B. The study of structural changes caused by disease.
C. The study of structures too small to be seen with the naked eye.
D. The study of large body structures visible to the naked eye, such as the heart, lungs, and kidneys.
The study of large body structures visible to the naked eye, such as the heart, lungs, and kidneys.
Embryology is a subdivision of anatomy that deals with developmental changes that occur before birth.
T/F
True
Blood flows in one direction through the heart because the heart has valves that prevent backflow. This phenomenon exemplifies:
A. the principles of cardiovascular physiology.
B. the principle of microscopic anatomy.
C. the principle of structural organization.
D. the principle of complementarity of structure and function.
D
the principle of complementarity of structure and function.
Which of the following represents the sum total of all structural levels working together to keep us alive?
A. Cellular level
B. Molecular level
C. Chemical level
D. Organismal level
D
Organismal level
The human body as a whole is enclosed and protected by the integumentary system. This is an example of a necessary life function. Select the correct function from the list below.
A. Homeostasis
B. Maintaining Boundaries
C. Responsiveness
D. Metabolism
B
Maintaining Boundaries
Metabolism includes breaking down substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP.
T/F
True
Which of the following processes require a receptor, a control center, and an effector?
A. Maintaining Boundaries
B. Homeostatic control
C. Responsiveness
D. Movement
B
Homeostatic control
Which of the following is an example of a positive feedback mechanism?
A. The control of blood volume by ADH
B. The control of blood sugar by insulin
C. The regulation of body temperature
D. Blood clotting
D
Blood clotting
Which of the following is true of positive feedback mechanisms?
A. Their purpose is to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
B. The result or response enhances the original stimulus, and the response is accelerated.
C. The output shuts off the original stimulus or reduces its intensity.
D. The variable changes in a direction opposite to that of the initial change.
B
The result or response enhances the original stimulus, and the response is accelerated.
The knee is distal to the thigh.
T/F
True
Why are directional terms so important?
A. They allow us to accurately describe the position of a human body.
B. They allow us to explain where one body structure is in relation to another.
C. They allow us to designate specific areas within major body divisions.
D. They enable us to identify an extreme anatomical variation in a human body.
B
They allow us to explain where one body structure is in relation to another.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The breastbone is posterior to the spine.
B. The heart is posterior to the spine.
C. The heart is ventral to the breastbone.
D. The breastbone is ventral to the spine.
D
The breastbone is ventral to the spine.
Which of the following statements is correct?
A. The navel is medial to the chin.
B. The chin is cranial to the navel.
C. The navel is superior to the chin.
D. The navel is lateral to the chin.
B
The chin is cranial to the navel.
The terms cranial and superior are synonymous, meaning "toward the head end or upper part of a structure or the body; above." As such, the chin is cranial/superior to the navel.
It is possible for slight anatomical variations to occur in a human body; for example, a nerve or blood vessel may be somewhat out of place, or a small muscle may be missing.
T/F
T
Humans may differ in their external and internal anatomies. In some bodies, for example, a nerve or blood vessel may be somewhat out of place. Nonetheless, well over 90% of all structures present in any human body match the textbook descriptions. We seldom see extreme anatomical variations because they are incompatible with life.
Which of the following is the regional term designating the limbs?
A. The lateral part
B. The axial part
C. The appendicular part
D. The medial part
C
The appendicular part
The coronal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
T/F
True
Which of the following best describes a sagittal plane?
A. A vertical plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
B. A vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.
C. A horizontal plane that divides the body into superior and inferior parts.
D. A horizontal plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.
B
A vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts.
The ventral body cavity is subdivided into which of the following cavities?
A. The vertebral/spinal, abdominopelvic and thoracic cavities
B. The vertebral/spinal, cranial, and pleural cavities
C. The vertebral/spinal and cranial cavities
D. The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
The thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities
A serosa, or serous membrane, can be found within which one of the following body cavities?
A. The cranial cavity
B. The ventral body cavity
C. The spinal cavity
D. The dorsal body cavity
B
The ventral body cavity
T/F
Positive feedback mechanisms tend to increase the original stimulus.
T
T/F
Imaging is useful in discovering obstructed blood supplies in organs and tissues.
T
T/F
The anatomical position means the body is standing at attention with the palms facing forward and the thumbs pointing away from the body.
T
T/F
The elbow is proximal to the shoulder.
F
T/F
The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity wall is called visceral peritoneum.
F
T/F
A major function of serous membrans is to decrease friction.
T
T/F
The right hypochondriac region contain the majority of the stomach.
F
T/F
Lungs carry out an excretory function.
T
T/F
Embryology concerns the structural changes that occur in an individual from conception through old age.
F
T/F
A tissue consists of groups of similar cells that have a common function.
T
T/F
It is important for any organism to maintain its boundaries, so that its internal environment remains distinct from the external environment surrounding it.
T
T/F
Without some sort of negative feedback mechanism, it would be impossible to keep our body chemistry in balance.
T
T/F
Regardless of the variable being regulated, all homeostatic control mechanisms have at least three interdependent components.
T
The epigastric region is located superior to the umbilical region.
T
Histology would be best defined as a study of ___________.
A) cells
B) the gross structures of the body
C) tissues
D) cell chemistry
C
The study of the heart may incorporate many aspects of anatomy but as a whole you would say it is _____________ anatomy.
A) developmental
B) systemic
C) gross
D) microscopic
C
An increased rate of breathing as a result of an increased buildup of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream would be best described as an example of _____________.
A) metabolism
B) maintaining boundaries
C) responsiveness
D) excretion of metabolic waste
D
Average body temperature is ________ degress centigrade.
A) 98
B) 47
C) 68
D) 37
D
If you consider your home air conditioner in terms of homeostasis, then the wall thermostat would be the ___________.
A) receptor
B) variable
C) effector
D) control center
D
What is the main, general purpose of negative feedback?
A) to keep the body's sugar high
B) to regulate excretion
C) to control all body system tissues
D) to maintain homeostasis
D
What is the specific name for the hip region?
A) inguinal
B) manus
C) coxal
D) pedal
C
An oblique cut is one that is cut ________.
A) diagonally between the vertical and horizontal
B) horizontal right and left
C) vertical right and left
D) perpendicular
A
The heart lies in the ____________ cavity.
A) pericardial
B) superior mediastinal
C) dorsal
D) pleural
A
The cavities housing the eyes are called _____________ cavities.
A) nasal
B) cranial
C) orbital
D) frontal
C
A structure that is composed of two or more tissues would be a(n) _______.
A) organ
B) complex cell
C) organ system
D) complex tissue
A
___________ cavities are spaces within joints.
A) orbital
B) oral
C) nasal
D) synovial
D
Which of the following would not be a functional characteristic of life?
A) decay
B) maintenance of boundaries
C) movement
D) responsiveness to external stimuli
A
Which term means toward or at the back of the body, behind?
A) anterior
B) distal
C) lateral
D) dorsal
D
The single most abundant chemical substance of the body, accounting for 60% to 80% of body weight, is _______.
A) hydrogen
B) oxygen
C) water
D) protein
C
What is the posterior side of the patella called?
A) antecubital
B) sural
C) popliteal
D) crural
C
Which of the following statements is true concerning feedback mechanism?
A) Negative feedback mechanisms tend to increase the orgininal stimulus.
B) Blood glucose levels are regulated by positive feedback mechanisms.
C) Negative feedback mechanisms work to prevent sudden severe changes within the body.
D) Positive feedback mechanisms always result in excessive damage to the host.
C
The anatomical position is characterized by all of the following except ___________.
A) body erect
B) arms at sides
C) thumbs pointed laterally
D) palms turned posteriorly
D
A good example of a positive feedback mechanism would be ___________.
A) regulating glucose levels in the blood
B) blood calcium level regulation
C) body temperature regulation
D) enhancement of labor contractions.
D
Which of the following describes a parasagittal plane?
A) a transverse cut just above the knees
B) any cut dividing the body into anterior and posterior
C) any sagittal plane except the median
D) two cuts dividing the body into left and right halves
C
Which of the following organs or structures would be found in the left iliac region?
A) appendix
B) intestines
C) liver
D) stomach
B
Which one of the following systems responds to environmental stimuli?
A) lymphatic
B) muscular
C) immune
D) nervous
D
Choose the anatomical topic and definition that is not correctly matched.
A) Cytology: study of the structures in a particular region.
B) Microscopic anatomy: study of structures too small to be seen by the naked eye.
C) Embryology: study of the changes in an individual from conception to birth.
D) Gross anatomy: study of structures visible to the eye.
A
Homeostasis is the condition in which the body maintains ___________.
A) a static state with no deviation from preset points
B) a relatively stable internal environment, within limits
C) the lowest possible energy usuage
D) a dynamic state within an unlimited range
B
In which cavities are the lungs located?
A) pleural, dorsal, and abdominal
B) mediastinum, thoracic, and ventral
C) pericardial, ventral, and thoracic
D) pleural, ventral, and thoracic
D
Choose the following statement that is not completely correct regarding serous membrans.
A) Visceral pericardium covers the surface of the heart, and parietal pericardium lines the walls of the heart.
B) Serosa are very thin, double-layered structures.
C) Serous membrans are divided into parietal and visceral membranes with a potential space between the two.
D) Serous membrans secrete a watery lubricating fluid.
A
Place the following in correct sequence from simplest to most complex:
1. molecules
2. atoms
3. tissues
4. cells
5. organ
A) 1-2-4-3-5
B) 2-1-4-3-5
C) 2-1-3-4-5
D) 1-2-3-4-5
B
Which of the following imaging devices would best localize a tumor in a person's brain?
A) X ray
B) MRI
C) PET
D) DSA
B
Which of these is not part of the dorsal cavity?
A) vertebral cavity
B) spinal cord
C) thoracic cavity
D) crancial cavity
C
In which adbominopelvic cavity is the stomach located?
A) left lower
B) right upper
C) left upper
D) right lower
C
Subdivisions of anatomy include which of the following?
A) regional, surface, visual, and microscopic
B) gross, regional, systemic, and surface
C) gross, macroscopic, visual, and microscopic
D) gross, regional, dissection, and surface.
B
The dorsal body cavity is the site of which of the following?
A) liver
B) lungs
C) brain
D) intestines
C
Select the most correct statement.
A) Organ systems operate independently of each other to maintain life.
B) The endocrine system is not a true structural organ system.
C) The immune system is closely associated with the lymphatic system.
D) Organ systems can be composed of cells or tissues, but not both.
C
One of the functional characteristics of life is irratibility. This refers to _______.
A) sensing changes in the environment and then reacting or responding to them.
B) the necessity for all organisms to reproduce.
C) the nervous system causing all living things to sometimes experience anger.
D) indigestible food residues stimulating the excretory system.
A
Which of the following are survival needs of the body?
A) water, atmospheric pressure, growth, and movement.
B) nutrients, water, movement, and reproduction.
C) nutrients, water, atmospheric pressure, and oxygen.
D) nutrients, water, growth, and reproduction.
C
The anatomical position is used ____________.
A) rarely, because people don't usually assume this position.
B) as the most comfortable way to stand when dissecting a specimen.
C) only when a body is lying down.
D) as a standard reference point for directional terms regardless of the actual position of the body.
D
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into the left and right, called?
A) sagittal
B) regional
C) transverse
D) frontal
A
What is a vertical section through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior regions called?
A) transverse
B) median
C) frontal
D) sagittal
C
Which body cavity protects the nervous system?
A) vertebral
B) dorsal
C) cranial
D) thoracic
B
Which of the following describes the operation of the heart and blood vessels?
A) systemic anatomy
B) cardiovascular anatomy
C) cardiovascular physiology
D) systemic physiology
B
What membrane covers the organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?
Visceral peritoneum
What membrane lines the abdominopelvic cavity?
Parietal peritoneum
What membrane covers the heart?
Visceral pericardium
What membrane lines the thoracic cavity?
Parietal pleura
What membrane lines the pericardial cavity cavity?
Parietal pericardium
The lower-middle portion of the abdomen
hypogastric
The upper-middle portion of the abdomen
epigastric region
The abdominal regions that are lateral to the hypogastric region
Right and left inguinal regions
The abdominal regions that are lateral to the umbilical region
Left and right lumbar regions
The abdominal regions that are lateral to the epigastric region
Right and left hypochondriac regions
Homeostasis is a function carried out solely by the cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
True
False
False
In order to maintain overall homeostatic balance, at least several different variables must be monitored and regulated.
True
False
T
Tissues are made up of several different but closely related organs.
True
False
F
Negative feedback mechanisms are characterized by having the output of a system cause a change in the system, and, as a result, less of the output is eventually produced.
True
False
T
Arms, legs, fingers, and toes belong to the appendicular part of the human body.
True
False
T
A homeostatic mechanism has at least three parts: receptor, control center, and effector.
True
False
T
Liver, Gall Bladder, Small Intestine, Ascending Colon, Transverse Colon, Kidney,
What organs are located in the Right Hypochondriac?
Esophagus, Stomach, Liver, Pancreas, Small Intestine, Transverse Colon, Adrenal Glands, Pancreas, Kidneys, Ureters, Spleen
What organs are located in the Epigastric Region?
Stomach, Liver, Pancreas, Small Intestine, Transverse Colon, Descending Colon, Pancreas, Kidney, Spleen
What organs are located in the Left Hypochondriac?
Liver, Gall Bladder, Small Intestine, Ascending Colon, Kidney,
What organs are located in the Right Lumbar?
Stomach, Pancreas, Small Intestine, Transverse Colon, Pancreas, kidneys, Ureters, Cisterna Chyli
What organs are located in the Umbilical?
Small intestine, Descending Colon, kidney
What organs are located in the Right Lumbar?
Small Intestine, Appendix, Cecum, ovary, fallopian tube
What organs are located in the right iliac?
Small intestine, sigmoid colon, rectum, ovaries, ureters, bladder, uterus, fallopian tubes, vas deferens, seminal vessicle, prostate
What organs are located in the Hypogastric?
Small Intestine, Descending Colon, Sigmoid Colon, ovary, fallopian tube
What organs are located in the left iliac?
The atomic number equals the number of protons in an atom.
True
Covalent bonds form when electrons are shared.
True
Polar covalent bonds form when electrons are shared equally.
False. They form when electrons are shared unequally between atoms.
Hydrogen bonding occurs within molecules.
False. It occurs between molecules, such as water.
Water is an example of a nonpolar covalent compound.
False. It is an example of a polar covalent compound.
If carbon has a mass number of 12 and an atomic number of 6 then carbon has 4 valence electrons.
True
The atomic symbol for potassium is "P".
False. It is "K".
Isotopes are atoms of an element that vary in the number of protons.
False. Isotopes are atoms of an element that vary in the number of neutrons.
An acid is a proton acceptor.
False. Acids are proton donors (they "give away" H+)
An example of a strong base is sodium bicarbonate.
False. Sodium bicarbonate is a weak base. Sodium hydroxide is an example of a strong base.
A ph of 3 is 100 times stronger than a pH of 5.
True
A ph of 5 is 10 times stronger (has 10 times as many H+) than a pH of 6.
True
What are the 5 differences between RNA and DNA?
DNA has the sugar Deoxyribose in the nucleotide, while RNA has the sugar Ribose in the nucleotide. DNA is a double strand while RNA is a single strand. The bases in the nucleotide of DNA are adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine, while the bases in the nucleotide of RNA are adenine, cytosine, guanine, and uracil. DNA is found in the nucleus, while RNA is found in the cytoplasm. DNA functions as the genetic code in cells for the proper sequence of amino acids in a protein. RNA carries the message to the ribosomes and helps assemble the amino acids to make the protein (protein synthesis).
What are the monomers of DNA and RNA?
They are nucleotides. They contain a phosphate, a sugar and a nitrogen containing base.
DNA: adenine-thymine, guanine-cytosine

RNA: adenine-uracil, guanine-cytosine
Describe the four levels of protein structure and give example of each.
Primary: It looks like a string of beads. An example is the straight chain sequence of amino acids in the protein.
Secondary: Ex: Alpha helix-primary sequence is twirled like a twisted (kinked) telephone cord. It increases the structural support of the protein.
Tertiary: Secondary structures folded over themselves, like a cord twisted over itself. An example is Myoglobin, a muscle protein.
Quaternary: Two or more polypeptide chains folded over and around each other, like two telephone cords wrapped together. An example is hemoglobin.
What is a peptide bond?
It is a single covalent bond formed when two amino acids are joined together in a dehydration synthesis reaction.
Name the monomers of proteins.
The monomers of proteins are amino acids. The polymer = polypeptide (= polypeptide chain).
What are the functions of proteins in the human body and give an example of each function?
• Transport: Ex: the protein hemoglobin transports oxygen through the blood.
• Movement: Ex: The proteins in muscle (actin and myosin) allow for muscle contractions.
• Buffers: Ex: The protein buffers in the blood prevent drastic change in pH.
• Structure: Ex: Tough protein fibers such as collagen are present in the skin and bones. Other proteins, such as keratin, waterproof the skin.
• Regulation: Ex: The protein insulin regulates blood glucose levels.
• Defense: Ex: Antibodies are proteins in the blood that defend against bacteria and viruses.
• Enzymes: Enzymes such as lactase help break down lactose (milk, sugar) by speeding up the rate of hydrolytic reactions.
Name sources of saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.
Fatty meats, egg yolks, full fat dairy products, coconut oil, and vegetable oils are saturated fatty acids.
Oily fish including salmon, walnuts, soybean, sunflower seeds, wheat germ, sesame, walnuts, and flax seed are sources of unsaturated fatty acids.
What is the difference between a saturated and unsaturated fatty acid?
A saturated fatty acid has only single covalent bonds between their carbons. An unsaturated fatty acid also contains double covalent bonds.
What are the three subclasses of lipids, their monomers and their functions?
A. Triglycerides are made of a glycerol molecule and three fatty acids. They are important for long term energy, insulating, and protecting organs.
B. Phospholipids are made of a glycerol molecule, two fatty acids, and a phosphate group. They are important because they are a major component of cell membranes.
C. Steroids have varying structures, but have cholesterol as a monomer. They are important for the formation of sex hormones (estrogen and testosterone).
What are the Monomer units for disaccharides and polysaccharides?
The three disaccharides are: Maltose- made of 2 glucose monomer units; Sucrose- made of a glucose and a fructose monomer unit; and Lactose- made of glucose and galactose monomer unit.
The names of the polysaccharides are: glycogen, starch, and cellulose, all made of glucose monomers.