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Microbiology - New set- Final Exam
Terms in this set (330)
Chapters 21, 22, and 23
Exam for these Chapters
A microbiologist is reading the plateterm-13s from a sputum culture. The culture is from a patient with cystic fibrosis. One organism dominates the blood agar, chocolate, and MacConkey plates. The MacConkey plate shows an organism with a green pigment and a metallic sheen. The probable identification for this organism is
A microbiologist is reading the plates from a sputum culture. On the sheep blood agar (SBA), the microbiologist sees flat spreading colonies with a metallic sheen. On cetrimideterm-104 agar, a fluorescent green color is seen in the medium with clear colonies. On MacConkey, medium clear colonies are seen that have a fruity or grapelike odor. What is the most likely organism?
A vaginal swab is recieved for anaerobic culture. How should this request be handled or processed?
d. Contact physician, this is an unacceptabe specimen
A young woman notices a red bruiselike lesion that looks like a target on her lower leg. She cannot remember getting bruised, even though she went hiking through the woods last weekend. The bruise goes away in about a week and she thinks nothing more about it. About 2 weeks later, she develops joint and bone pain, extreme fatigue, and her heart just "doesn't feel right." What disease does she have, and what antimicrobial agent is used to treat it?
Lyme disease and doxycycline
Acceptable specimens during the first week of leptospirosis include which of the following?
d. A and B
After 24-hour incubation, an SBA from a vaginal culture reveals heavy growth of α-hemolytic, pinpoint, rough colonies. A catalase test is performed, and it is negative. What organism should you suspect?
All of the following are approches to treating anaerobic infections, except
d. enayme inactivators
All the following are categories of bacterial growth requirements for oxygen and carbon dioxide, except
a. ambient air (95% O2 and 5% CO2).
All of the following are poor prognostic factors associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa bacteremia, except
All of the following are non-spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacilli, except
All of the following are characteristics of pseudomonads, except
All of the following organisms are found in the GI tract, except
All of the following organisms are found on the skin under normal conditions, except
All of the following symptoms are characteristic of Weil disease, except
All of the following procedures should be performed on clinical specimens to recover anaerobic bacteria, except
All of the following reasons are cited for performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing on anaerobes by the Clinical and CLSI, except
to determine the resistance mechanisms in anaerobes.
Anaerobes outnumber aerobes in all of the following locations except:
An anaerobic culture reveals colonies with a double zone of hemolysis on SBA plate. There was no growth on plates incubated aerobically. The Gram stain of that organism was a boxcar-shaped, gram-positive bacillus. What organism is this?
a. Clostridium perfringens
An animal attendant at the zoo developed symptoms that included fever, chills, headache, severe myalgia, and malaise. His urinalysis revealed the presence of protein and blood. A couple of weeks earlier, the attendant was handling the chimpanzees, and one of the chimps urinated on him. What is the most likely cause of illness?
An immunosuppressed patient notices sinus tracts that are draining pus. He also notices that there appear to be small, hard "nuggets" in the pus. What disease is he most likely suffering from?
What diseases do Borrelia spp. cause?
Lyme disease and relapsing fever
An Older adult patient in a nursing home is recovering from bacterial pneumonia. The patient has been on a lengthy regimen of antimicrobial agents. Subsequently, the patient is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. What organism is the most likely cause?
a. Clostridium difficile
An oxidase-positive, non fermentative gram-negative bacillus that characteristically produces dry, wrinkled colonies describes
Bacterial vaginosis is a synergistic infectious process involving all the following bacteria, except
Characteristics of Moraxella include
d. All of the above
Characteristics of most members of the family Flavobacteriaceae
d. All of the above
Early-onset congenital syphilis is characterized by all the following symptoms, except
Elizabethkingia meningosepticum causes all the following diseases, except
Factors that can play a role in pathogenicity of Leptospira include all the following, except
c. pancytopenia in host
Gram stains of specimens for anaerobic cultures should be examined for all the following reasons, except
the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend Gram stains on all anaerobic specimens.
How are Borrelia organisms transmitted to the host?
How are suspected colonies of anaerobes processed?
All of the above.
How does Clostridium difficile produce pseudomembranous colitis and antibiotic-associated diarrhea?
Toxin A and toxin B (exotoxins)
How long are anaerobic cultures routinely held in the laboratory?
5 to 7 days
How is true Gram stain reaction of an anaerobe determined?
a. Special potency disks
In what single setting does Stenotrophomonas maltophilia typically produce disease?
An H2S-positive, oxidase-positive, nonfermenter describes
Material from an intestinal abscess produces gray colonies with a brown color in the area around the colonies on a BBE plate incubated anaerobically. There is also a dark precipitate in the medium in the areas of heavy growth. A Gram stain of the colonies reveals gram-negative coccobacilli. What is the presumptive identification of this organism?
b. B. fragilis
Members of the Alcaligenes are usually susceptible to all the following antimicrobial agents, except
On egg-yolk, Clostridium oerfringens will demonstrate:
c. off-white precipitate around colonies
The four major groups of anaerobic gram-negative bacilli include all the following, except
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to all the following antimicrobial agents, except
This bacterium is said to have a fruity or grapelike smell.
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What are two important factors that must be taken into consideration when transporting specimens for anaerobic culture?
Minimum exposure to oxygen and preventing drying out
What biochemical test will differentiate nonformenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)?
The three nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following, except
What disease does Clostridium botulinum cause?
What disease does Clostridium perfringens cause?
c. Food poisoning
What disease does Clostridium tetani cause?
What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptosreptococcus anaerobius?
c. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)
What evidence indicates the presence of anaerobes in cultures?
d. All of the above
What is anaerobe?
b. An organism that does does not utilize oxygen
What is the drug of choice for treating Borrelia infections?
What is the example of a nontreponemal test?
What is Leptospira infection called when it becomes a severe systemic disease?
d. Weil disease
What is an obligate anaerobe?
c. An organism that grows only in the absence of molecular oxygen
What organism causes relapsing fever?
a. Borrelia recurrentis
What is the causative agent of glanders?
c. B. mallei
What is the most common member of the genus Moraxella isolated in the clinical laboratory?
What is the ideal anarobic incubation system?
a. Anaerobic chamber
What is the primary method used to screen for syphilis infections?
What medium is used in the laboratory to grow leptospiral organisms?
What organism causes melioidosis?
d. B. pseudomallei
What organism mostly commonly causes gas gangrene?
c. C. perfringens
What is the most common causitive agent of gas gangrene?
c. C. perfringens
What organism causes epidemic louseborne typhus?
d. R. prowazekii
What organism causes human monocytic ehrlichiosis (HME) and uses the lone star tick (Amblyomma americanum) as its primary vector?
b. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
What organism is an opportunistic pathogen that strikes the immunocompromised patient with neutrophil deficits and produces a violet pigment on nonselective agar?
b. Chromobacterium violaceum
What nonfermenter may produce a weak, slow, positive oxidase reaction?
What organism causes endemic typhus?
a. Rickattsia typhi
What organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
d. R. rickettsii
What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
What organism is a common cause of pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis?
b .P. aeruginosa
What Pseudomonas sp. is the nonfermenter that is the leading cause of nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
What substances do nonfermenters fail to ferment in traditional media?
What substances do organisms do organisms that use oxygen have to protect themselves superoxide anions?
d. Superoxide dismutase and catalase
When does an untreated patient develop tertiary syphilis?
a. Decades after the intial infection
Which gram-negative coccobacilli can appear as gram-positive cocci in smears made from blood culture bottles?
Which of the following bacteria is most likely the cause of tooth abscesses?
Which of the following is characteristic of members of the genus Clostridium?
b. Spore-forming anaerobic bacilli
Which of the following is considered a better specimen for anaerobic than a swab?
Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
d. All of the above
Which non fermenter is considered by government agencies to be a potential bioterrorist agent?
b. Burkholderia mallei
Which plant pathogen may be mistaken for Burkholderia cepacia?
b. Burkholderia gladioli
chapters 24, 25, and 26
Exam for theses chapters
A 10B broth inoculated with vaginal material turns alkaline after overnight incubation at 35C. Which of the following organisms should you suspect?
b. M. hominis
A patient with Hodgkin disease is feeling bad, so he visits his physician. The physician's clinical examination reveals submandibular lymphadenitis, subcutaneous nodules, painful swellings, ulcers progressing to abscesses, and draining fistulas. What organism is probably producing these symptoms?
d. M. haemophilum
A 4-day-old infant shows symptoms of conjunctivitis. A Giemsa stain of the conjunctival scraping shows perinuclear cytoplasmic inclusions. This organism is most likely
C. trachomatis serovars D-K.
A 35-year-old man travels on a multi-destination vacation over a 2 month period, including lengthy stops in tropical Africa and Southeast Asia. Six weeks after returning come home to the United States, he develops a productive cough, fatigue, weight loss, low-grade fever, and night sweats. What disease should the physician consider as a result of his travel history?
A sputum culture from a patient in Texas has buff-colored colonies growing in approximately 4 weeks. After exposure to light, the colonies turn intense yellow. This isolate is most likely
b. M. kansasii.
A young man goes to his physician complaining of a discharge from his penis. The physician collects a slide for Gram stain and a swab for culture and sends them to the laboratory. The Gram stain reveals greater than 25 white blood cells/high-power field, no bacteria seen. The culture results after 48 hours show no growth. What are the most probable diagnosis and the organism responsible?
d. Nongonococcal urethritis, Chlamydia trachomatis
All the following antimicrobial agents are used to treat mycoplasma infections, except
All the following are biochemical tests for the identification of Mycobacterium spp,. except
a. gelatin liquefaction
All of these stains are commonly used to visualize mycobacteria on a smear except:
d. acridine orange
All of the following disease are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis, except
a. undulant fever
All of the following are traditional characteristics used to identify mycobacteria, except
c. Gram stain results.
All the following are urogenital infections in men, produced by Chlamydia trachomatis, except
At-risk groups for contracting walking pneumonia include all the following, except
d .preschool children.
An invasive genital disease associated with buboes in the groin describes an infection caused by
d. Chlamydia trachomatis
Chlamydia trachomatis is the infectious agent in all of the following conditions in humans, except
Chlamydia trachomatis infectionns have been implicated in:
a. LGV and conjunctivitis
Chlamydia trachomatis produces all the following conditions in adult women, except
c. bacterial vaginosis
Cultures for Mycoplasma pneumoniae should be incubated for _____.
d. 21 days or more
Diseases caused by rickettsial organisms are typically transmitted to humans by
b. an arthropod vector
Fifty years after his release from a concentration camp, a man develops signs and symptoms of typhus. He currently has no known contacts or source of disease exposure; however, he may have had it in 1945 when he experienced similar symptoms. What is the most likely current diagnosis?
d .Brill-Zinsser syndrome
How are mycobacterial infections typically transmitted?
d. By air
If a newborn has symptoms of meningitis but the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is negative for both Gram stain and a routine culture, what organisms should be suspected?
c. Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
If a person has had TB during his or her lifetime, how likely is it that the person will get the disease again?
a, 5% to 15%
Infants can contact all the following chlamydial infections when passing through the birth canal, except
Media used to culture Mycobacterium tuberculosis include:
c. Lowenstein-Jensen agar and Middlebrook 7H11 agar
Middlebrook 7H10 and 7H11 media are enriched with all the following, except
Why are antibody detection methods for Chlamydia trachomatis infection severely limited in the knowledge they provide the physician?
c. Many people have antibodies from previous infections, and local infections do not cause great increases in antibody levels.
Mycoplasma spp. from patient samples are visible by which staining technique?
Mycoplasma organisms will grow in which of the following atmospheres?
d. All of the above
Mycoplasmas are different from most other bacteria because they do not have a _____.
a. cell wall
Organisms that are part of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTBC) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis:
a. M africanum and M bovis
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends all the following drugs for the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis,except
The most common nontuberculosis mycobacterium (NTM) infecting humans
d. M. avium-intracellulare complex.
One of the factors that allows Mycoplasma to infect the respiratory tract and the urogenital tract is that
c. they adhere to the epithelium of mucosal surfaces and are not eliminated by mucus secretions.
This disease is slowly progressive, malignant, and, if untreated, life threatening. It is characterized by skin lesions and progressive, symmetric nerve damage. Lesions of the mucous membranes of the nose may lead to destruction of the cartilaginous septum, resulting in nasal and facial deformities. What disease is this?
a. Hansen disease
What disease, caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, is considered a sexually transmitted disease where the organisms enter the lymph nodes near the genital tract, resulting in bubo formation and ultimately rupturing the lymph node?
What diesease does Chlamydophila psittaci cause in humans?
c. Parrot fever
The mycobacteria that produce pigment only after exposure to light are classified as:
What is the antigen used in the purified protein derivative (PPD) skin test?
c. A purified protein from the cell wall of M. tuberculosis
What is the optimum culture incubation time for most mycobacteria associated with human disease?
a. 2 to 6 weeks
What is the preferred technique to rapidly detect Chlamydia trachomatis in clinical specimens?
d. Nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
What has an outer membrane similar to that of many gram-negative bacteria, with the most prominent feature being the major outer membrane protein?
What methods is used to confirm a positive Chlamydia trachomatis EIA?
What is the name of the test used to detect rickettsial agents?
What infectious agent causes the condition primary atypical pneumonia?
d. M. pneumoniae
What organisms are considered obligate intracellular parasites?
What test method is the most commonly used to detect antibodies to Mycoplasma spp.?
b. Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)
What test method is the method of choice for detecting antibodies to Chlamydophilia pneumonia?
What Mycobacterium does not usually fluoresce when stained with a fluorochrome stain?
b. Mycobacterium fortuitum
What time frame is suitable for blood draws for serologic testing to diagnose Mycoplasma infections?
a. Onset of symtoms and 2 to 3 weeks later
What organism's unique life cycle contains an elementary body (EB) and a reticulate body (RB)?
When designing a mycobacterial laboratory, the designers should include all the following engineering controls to keep the workers safe, except
Positive air pressure
When transporting specimens for Mycoplasma culture to the laboratory, extreme care must be taken so that the specimen does not
d.All of the above
When Mycoplasma hominis invades the upper genitourinary tract, it can cause the following:
d.All of the above
What two organisms are associated with urogenital tract infections but have also been isolated from asymptomatic individuals?
a .Mycoplasma hominis and Ureaplasma urealyticum
Which factor is added to media to provide cholesterol for mycoplasma-like organisms?
d. 20% fetal calf serum
What organism fails to grow on artificial media or in cell cultures?
c. Treponema pallidum
Which of the following methods is used to determine the presence of growth in mycoplasma broth media?
c. Change in phenol red pH indicator
What is the purpose of the digestion-decontamination processing of specimens submitted for mycobacterial culture?
c. To allow chemical decontaminants to kill nonmycobacterial organisms
What organism has been recovered in normal, sexually active females but is also associated with chorioamnionitis, congenital pneumonia, and development of chronic lung disease in premature infants?
b. Ureaplasma ureolyticus
Which of the following organisms was once called "T-strain mycoplasma"?
a. Ureaplasma spp
Which of the following stains is used to enhance the visability of mycoplasma-like colonies?
c. Dienes stain
Chapter 27- Mycoses
A Seattle woman with HIV complains of headaches and also displays some memory loss. Because of her history, the physician collects cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and sends it to the laboratory for analysis. The following image is seen using India ink stain. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
c. Cryptococcus gattii
The following organism was isolated from an immunocompetent patient with chronic sinusitis. This organism is most likely
A bone marrow transplant patient develops an abrupt fever with respiratory distress. Despite treatment with antifungal medications, the patient dies on the fifth day. The following organism was isolated from both sputum and blood cultures. Identify the organism seen in the image below.
This organism was isolated from a sinus aspirate of a patient with chronic sinusitis and respiratory allergies. Identify the organism from the following:
A graduate student returning from a month-long fieldwork experience in South America develops a dark nodular lesion on his left hand. Microscopic examination of the nodule reveals dark, coinlike inclusions. The following organism grows in culture. This organism is most likely
A young boy develops itchy, dry scaly lesions on his leg with a raised, red, outer edge. A culture of the lesion reveals the following organism in a lactophenol cotton blue stain. This organism is most likely
The following organism was isolated from the sputum culture of a cancer chemotherapy patient. This organism is most likely
A student working for the summer at a plant nursery has a nodular lesion on his forearm that develops a draining tract. The following organism is isolated from the culture at 22° C. Identify the organism from the following:
What is the causative agent of tinea nigra?
d. Hortaea werneckii
A patient who wears long-term contact lenses comes to her physician after noting a small spot on her cornea. Collection of the lesion for culture produced a fast-growing mold with a slight pink color on the surface. Microscopic review showed the following organism. This organism is most likely
b .Fusarium spp.
ID the following:
What is the causative agent of black piedra?
c. Piedraia hortae
What organism is one of the primary opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
a. Pneumocystis jirovecii
Chromoblastomycosis is caused by all of the following organisms, except
b. Penicillium marneffei
This organism was isolated from a diabetic patient with a sinus infection. The mold was extremely fast-growing with a dirty white surface. Microscopic observation revealed wide sparsely septate (aseptate) hyphae without rhizoids. This organism is most likely
a. Mucor spp.
A recreational cave explorer develops a productive cough and fever. A sputum culture is sent to the laboratory for bacterial, fungal, and mycobacterial cultures. A white mold colony develops on Sabouraud's agar after 5 days at 22° C. Identify the organism shown below.
a. Histoplasma capsulatum
A patient with thickened and discolored nails was diagnosed with onychomycosis. A scraping of the nail was sent for culture. Microscopic analysis of the mold colony growth revealed the following morphology. The most likely identity of this organism is
d. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
ID the following species:
b. Aspergillus spp.
All of the following are examples of dimorphic fungi, except
a. Candida albicans
For KOH to work properly, what is done to speed up the dissolution of the keratin and skin layers?
c. Heat gently, then cool.
A young man notices a darkened area of skin on the palm of his hand. It seems to be increasing in size over the past 2 weeks. His health care provider collects a skin scraping for microscopic examination, which shows septate hyphal elements and budding cells. This organism is most likely
c. Hortaea werneckii.
A patient with very pale patches on his arms and legs is examined at his physician's office. His physician orders a fungal culture. The fungus shows a "spaghetti-and-meatball" appearance on the direct smear. What organism is it?
b. Malassezia furfur
What organism is found in the San Joaquin Valley region of California?
c. Coccidiodes immitis
After returning from a vacation trip to the Amazon River delta in Brazil, a man notices a white dirtlike substance on his axilla hair that does not wash off in the shower. His health care provider samples the hairs and sends them to the laboratory for culture. Straw-colored yeastlike colonies show the following microscopic morphology. This is most consistent with an identification of
The following organism is isolated from a case of tinea capitis. The organism grew rapidly producing tan mold colonies. This organism is most likely
ID the following:
A patient returning from a trip to tropical Africa comes to his physician noting scaly patches of skin along the waistband, which are lighter in color than his normal skin. A skin scraping reveals budding yeast and short septate hyphal elements, with some branching present. This organism, shown below, is most likely
a. Malassezia furfur.
What organism frequently presents in fungus balls?
d. Aspergillus fumigatus
All of the following organism s causes cutaneous mycoses, except
a. Sporpthrix schenckii
What is pictured below?
Chapter 28 - Parasitology
Identify the following:
b. Enterobius vermicularis
Identigy the following Nematodes:
a. Ascaris lumbricoises
Identify the organism found in a peripheral blood thick smear at 1000x:
c. Wuchereria bancrofti
Identify the following Nematodes:
a. Trichinella spiralis
Several children at a daycare center are having trouble sleeping and are showing increasing signs of restlessness. Because one child was recently diagnosed with an intestinal parasite, the parents are informed that other children should be tested. The organism below is found at 400× during examination. This organism is
A housewife from the Great Lakes area presents to her family physician with fatigue and malaise. Blood tests show that she has enlarged but pale RBCs (megaloblastic anemia) along with a vitamin B12 deficiency. Her history includes a dietary habit of making pickled fish, a family favorite. Because of this, an ova and parasites examination is also requested and reveals the following at 400×. What is the identity of this parasite?
identity the following.
c. Ancylostoma duodenale
identity the following Cestode:
a. Diphyllobthrium latum
A woman who just returned from a trip to Southeast Asia has signs of biliary obstruction, which is confirmed by CT scan. Due to her recent travel history, the physician orders an ova and parasites examination before considering surgical intervention. The following element is found in her fecal sample at 400×. The most likely identity of this organism is
A 15-year-old boy spent most of the summer at the northern Minnesota family cabin on a lake in a densely wooded area. After returning to school in the fall, he was frequently tired and listless with periods of fever and chills. A blood sample revealed the following organism at 1000×. The most likely identification is
identity the following parasite:
d. Giardia lambia trophozoite
Five members of a family develop a sudden onset of watery diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, headache, and cramps. The family physician orders fecal cultures and complete ova and parasites analysis. Each sample reveals the presence of organisms seen below at 1000×. The most likely cause of the infection is
A 4-year-old child has been complaining of a stomachache and has had intermittent episodes of diarrhea. Physical examination reveals an apparently healthy child with a mildly distended abdomen. Because of the diarrhea, a fecal sample is sent for culture and for ova and parasites examination. What is the identity of that found at 400× in the child's fecal sample?
a. Ascaris lumbricoides
identify the following:
a. Schistosoma mansoni
The following organism was found at 1000×in the fecal sample of a patient with fever and diarrhea. This organism is most likely:
A young man from rural Brazil is visiting family in the United States when he becomes ill with muscle pains, high fever, and hepatosplenomegaly. A blood sample taken in the emergency department reveals the following organism at 1000×. The most likely identification of this organism is
ID the following:
b. Trichuris trichiura
A patient who has traveled to Puerto Rico comes to a clinic with a history of diarrhea for the past 2 weeks. A fecal sample collected for O&P shows the following parasite at 400×. This organism is most likely
a. Schistosoma mansoni.
A patient with recent history of travel to the Philippines has bloody diarrhea. An ova and parasites examination of the stool shows the following at 400×.
b. S. japonicum
A patient finds a small ribbonlike object in his stool and reports this to his physician. The physician orders a fecal ova and parasite analysis that reveals the following egg in the sample at 400×. The most likely identity of this parasite is
b. Taenia spp.
A patient with a history of eating wild game comes to the physician with a history of diarrhea over the past 3 weeks. In addition, he complains of fever, muscular pain and tenderness, headache, and general weakness. The patient also has a significant eosinophilia. A biopsy of a nodular area on his forearm is seen in the image below. This is consistent with a diagnosis of infection caused by
c. Trichinella spiralis.
Some pathogens will not grow in culture and are usually unsuspected. This pathogen can be seen in the sputum and bronchoalveolar fluid of patients with a hyperinfestation syndrome. The name of this pathogen is
a. Strongyloides stercoralis.
The causative agent of cysticercosis is?
c. Taenia solium
A woman patient with history of travel to tropical Africa was noncompliant with her antimalarial medications. She now has a cyclical fever and paroxysm every 72 hours. The following organism is seen in her peripheral blood smear at 1000×is consistent with an infection caused by
d. P. malariae.
A farmer who raises sheep and cattle shows signs of jaundice. Along with elevated liver enzymes, he also has an elevated eosinophil count. A fecal sample for ova and parasites shows the parasite form seen below at 400×. The organism causing this infection is
When a request is submitted to examine a blood sample for malaria, which of the following procedures should be performed?
c. A Giemsa thick blood smear preparation for maximum detection and a thin smear for speciation
A patient comes to the emergency department stating that he has fever and chills every 48 hours. The patient has a history of travel to Central America in the past month and did not take any preventative measures against malaria. A complete blood count shows the following RBC inclusions at 1000×. This organism is most likely
d. P. vivax.
A young man who returned a week ago from a family vacation to Kenya develops a high fever and delirium. Although he was compliant with his antimalarial medications, a blood sample is taken to rule out malaria. The laboratory scientist sees the following on the blood smear at 1000×. This organism is most likely
primary amoebic encephalitis is caused by:
d. Naegleria fowleri
An international male student from Egypt comes to the campus clinic complaining of blood in his urine. A urinalysis reveals the parasite seen below at 400×. This organism is
c. S. haematobium.
a formed stool is received in the lab at 10:30 pm for ova and parasite exam. the night shift tech is certain that the workload will prevent examination of the specimen until 7 am when the next shift arrives.
The technologist should:
d. Preserve the specimen in formalin until it can be examined
A recent emigrant from Somalia develops high fever, chills, and severe headache. Blood work on admission to the hospital reveals the following in his blood smear at 1000×. This patient is most likely infected with
c .P. falciparum.
The term "internal autoinfection" is generally used in referring to infections with that parasite?
b. Strongyloides stercoralis
identify the following parasite:
d. Entamoeba coli
Chapter - 29 -Virology*****
Adenoviruses produce all the following types of infections EXCEPT
All of the following viral agents of gastroenteritis, except
All the following methods are used by the laboratory to diagnose viral infections, except
c. growth on artificial media
Complications of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection include all the following, except
a. acute glomerulonephritis
How is hepatitis B transmitted?
b. blood and body fluids
Infection with CMV in nonimmune pregnant women can cause
In-person vaccinated against hepatitis B virus several years prior, which serological marker would be expected?
Presence of this HBV serologic marker indicates a person is highly infectious.
a. HBs antigen
Poliovirus is transmitted primarily by
Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is caused by a
Symptomatic congenital infection with CMV includes all the following symptoms, except
The classic example od a bite-wound infection is
The cytopathic effect demonstrating intranuclear inclusions is associated with
c. cytomegalovirus (CMV).
The genome of a virus is composed of?
d. Any of the above
The most common route of infection of laboratory workers with HBV and HIV is
The norovirues are most noted for producing
What are giant multinucleated cells formed from cell fusion as a result of viral infection?
What is an unsuitable storage temperature for viruses because it allows the development of ice crystals?
c. -20° C
What is the composition of viral transport media?
b. Isotonic buffered saline with protein
What is the most common flavivirus infection in the United States?
c. St. Louis encephalitis (SLE)
What is the most common virus isolated from infants with lower respiratory infections and causes croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and interstitial pneumonia?
What requirements do viruses have for replication
a. They must be inside a living cell.
What type of cancer is associated with human papilloma virus (HPV)?
What type of genome do herpesviruses have?
What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world?
b. Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus
What virus causes Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?
a. Sin Nombre virus
What virus causes immune suppression in the host targeting and destroying the host's CD4 + T cells?
What disease does the varicella zoster virus (VZV) cause?
What virus is the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in infants and children?
What viral genus causes rabies?
What virus causes measles?
d. Rubeola virus
When is the best time to collect a specimen for culture from a patient suspected of having a viral disease?
c. Less than 3 days after onset of symptoms
What is a prion?
c. an proteinaceous infectious particle
Which cancer is associated with EBV?
b. Burkitt's lymphoma
What is the reservoir of West Nile virus?
Which hepatitis virus is spead by the fecal-oral route?
b. Hepatitis A
What infectious agent causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, Kuru, and "mad cow" disease?
What virus is the major cause of the common cold?
Which of the following is the best description of a primary cell culture?
a. It is a culture where tissue is removed from an animal, arranged in a monolayer, and in which very little cell division occurs.
Which of the following describes cytopathic effects seen in viral culture?
b. The visual changes produced in an infected cell by a virus
Which of the following is the description of continuous cell cultures?
c. Cells often have variable numbers of chromosomes and can be subcultured indefinitely.
Which hepatitis virus commonly leads to chronic hepatitis and cirrhosis, often requiring a liver transplant, and causes a high risk for development of liver cancer
c. Hepatitis C
Which of the following describes a diploid cell culture that is not a primary culture?
b. It is a culture of cells that can divide, but passage is limited to about 50 generations
Which one of the following provisions a presumptive identification of a viral infection?
b. cytopathic effect on cell cultures
Which one of the following viruses causes viral hemorrhagic fever?
d. Ebola virus
Which serologic marker would be expected to be found in the serum of illy vaccinated successfully against hepatitis B virus (HBV) ?
Which of the following is true of virus that causes AIDS?
d. Human retrovirus
Which virus is a bloodborne pathogen?
c. Hepatitis C virus
Which virus has been linked to Kaposi sarcoma?
a. Human herpesvirus 8
Chapters 30, 31, and, 40.
A microbiologist examines culture plates with large nonpigmented gray colonies at 24 hours that are indole-negative, nonmotile, catalase-positive, and resistant to polymyxin B disks. The Gram stain shows this is a gram-negative coccobacillus. What is the most probable organism?
b. Brucella mallei
A microbiologist is looking at a sheep blood agar (SBA) plate from a patient who might have been exposed to a biological agent. The colonies are nonhemolytic, large, have a ground-glass appearance, and look like a Medusa's head. On Gram stain, the colonies are large gram-positive rods that seem to have central spores. What is the most probable organism?
a. Bacillus anthracis
A microbiologist is examining plates of a lymph node biopsy from a seriously ill patient. The SBA plate shows small, nonhemolytic colonies that have a fried egg appearance. On MacConkey agar, these organisms grow as a small, non-lactose fermenter. On Gram stain, this organism exhibits bipolar staining and plump gram-negative rods. What is the most probable identification?
All of the following organisms cause cat-scratch disease in humans, except
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
All of the following environmental and key cultural characteristics affect biofilms, except
a. movement of biotic surface.
All of the following symptoms are among common presentations in tularemia, except
All the following are laboratory-associated problems related to identifying biofilm-associated diseases, except
a. false-positive cultures
All of the following organizations established the Laboratory Response Network (LRN), except
c. Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
Bacillus anthracis is a natural pathogen for what types of animals?
Bacillus anthracis produces all the following virulence factors, except
Biofilms are a survival strategy for all of the following except
a. planktonic free-floating phenotypes.
Biofilms can protect its members from
d. All of the above
Cobiofilms of what two organisms are associated with serious lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients?
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cepacia
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae normally infects all the following animals, except
Even though this organism is part of the canine and feline normal oral biota, most infections occur in patients that have had a splenectomy, have cancer, or abuse drugs. What organism is this?
b. Capnocytophaga canimorsus
How do microorganisms that live in close proximity exchange DNA?
b. Transformation and conjugation
In this level of the biofilm, the organisms downregulate very efficiently and are the least metabolically active.
In this level of the biofilm, the organisms slightly downregulate their metabolic activity, but they can still use nutrients and exchange genes.
In which step of the infectious process could biofilms help bacteria when it comes to colonization of indwelling medical devices?
How do biological weapons enter the host?
D. All of the above
How do humans often become infected with leptosirosis?
a. Directly from animal urine
If you are bitten by a dog, which of the following organisms is most likely to cause an infection at the site of the bite?
In the first phase of leptospirosis, humans exhibit all the following symptoms, except
Organisms that have the following characteristics—aerobic growth, nonhemolytic colonies 2 to 5 μm in diameter, catalase-positive, nonmotile, large gram-positive bacilli recovered from lesions, blood, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or lymph nodes—can be presumptively identified as
b. Bacillus anthracis.
One of the first recorded terror attacks occurred in 1984 in a restaurant in The Dalles, Oregon. What organism was used in this attack?
Patients who develop Weil's syndrome have all the following symptoms, except
c. congestive heart failure.
Rabbits are a reservoir for which of the following ?
a. Francisella tularensis
Rickettsial organisms, which cause disease in humans, are transmitted by which of the following methods?
a .Arthropod vectors
The classic example of a bite-wound infection is
This layer of a biofilm is exposed to the highest concentration of nutrients and oxygen, containing the most active organisms. What layer is this?
Treating infectious disease has shifted from planktonic susceptibility profiles to
c. multiple interventions
What is bioterrorism?
a. the use of bacteria, viruses, fungi, or toxins to injure people, animals, or crops to cause civil unrest
What classification system for biological weapons was developed in 1999 by academic infectious disease experts, government officials, military intelligence experts, and law enforcement.
c. A, B, C categories
What are the metabolically microorganisms present in a biofilm called?
d. Persister cells
What are the natural hosts for the plague-causing organism, Yersinia pestis?
What disease is known as the woolsorter's disease?
What do biofilms allow members of the microbial community to do?
d. All of the above
What is the common name for a dental biofilm?
What is another name for brucellosis?
d. Undulant fever
What is the role of the sentinel laboratory?
a. To rule out or refer suspicious isolates
What is a biofim?
a. Community of organisms attached to a solid surface
What is stage I of biofilm development?
d. Attachment phase
What is stage V of biofilm development?
c. Cell dispersion
What is stage III of biofims development?
b. Layering phase
What is the symtom of bubonic plaque?
a. Painful swollen lymph nodes
What is the specimen of choice for GI and inhalation anthrax?
What is the specimen of choice for cutanous anthax?
c. Vesicylar fluid from lesions
What is the most common presentation for tuaremia?
b. Ulceroglandular tularemia
What is the most common form of anthrax?
What disease, caused by biofilms, consumes more resources in the intensive care unit (ICU) than any other infectous disease?
d. Ventilator associated pneumonia
What is characteristic of smallpox?
d. ALL OF THE ABOVE
What disease is transmitted by Ixodes dammini?
b. Lyme disease
What type of anthrax is most deadly and most likely to be seen in a bioterrorism attack?
What finding is charscteristic of early Lyme disease?
c. Bull's-eye rash and flulike symtoms
What happens to dental plaque if it is allowed to remain unundisturbed for several days?
c. Pathogenic bacteria become the main baterial constituents of the biofilm.
What organism causes glanders?
d. Burkholderia mallei
What is a zoonotic infection?
a. An infection that can naturally jump from animal to humans
Which hepatitis is spead by the fecal-oral route?
b. Hepatitis A
Which of the following is the virus that causes AIDS?
d. Human retrovirus
What organism caused the disease known as the Black Death?
c. Yersinia pestis
What process allows the bacteria of biofilm to spread to body sites?
What types of cells in a biofilm are viable are viable but nonculturable?
What virus is the most common cause of arboviral encephalitis in the world?
b. Japanese encephalitis (JE) virus
Yersinia pestis causes all the following, except
d. meninggococcal plague
Zoonotic infections that spread from animal to human and then can be transmitted human to human, include all the following, except
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