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Anatomy Test Answers Chapters 1-4
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Terms in this set (186)
Any disruption or change in a controlled condition or environment
Control Center
Effector
Stimulus
Receptor
Stimulus
A structure within the body such as a cell, tissue, organ, or system that provides the means for carrying out the response.
Effector
Receptor
Stimulus
Control Center
Effector
In the anatomical position your big toes are inferior to your knees and ventral to your ankles.
True or False
False
Sweat glands and finger nails are part of which of the following organ systems of the body?
Nervous System
Digestive System
Endocrine System
Skeletal System
Integumentary System
Integumentary System
The system that is responsible for releasing hormones but also plays a major role in the formation of a new life.
Nervous System
Respiratory System
Skeletal System
Reproductive System
Circulatory System
Reproductive System
A plane that divides the body into anterior and posterior parts is the....
Frontal Plane
Sagittal Plane
Midsagittal plane
Transverse Plane
Proximal Plane
Frontal Plane
In the anatomical position, the little finger is lateral to the index finger
True or false
False
The urinary bladder is located in the...
Abdominal cavity
Pelvic cavity
Spinal cavity
Dorsal cavity
Thoracic cavity
Pelvic cavity
Anabolism produces:
Carbon dioxide
Energy
Simple compounds from more complex compounds
Digested food
Complex materials needed for body function
Complex materials needed for body function
The term ventral means:
Father from the origin of a structure
Toward the belly surface
Nearer to the back
In the dorsal body cavity
Posterior
Toward the belly surface
The cavity below the abdominal cavity is....
Thoracic cavity
Pelvic cavity
Dorsal cavity
Frontal cavity
Cranial cavity
Pelvic cavity
The existence and maintenance of relatively stable conditions inside the body despite the influence of dynamic and unpredictable internal and external environments is called...
Negative feedback system
Metabolism
Homeostasis
Positive feedback system
Homeostasis
The word medial indicates nearness to the midsagittal plane
True or false
True
..... is another name for the navel
Diaphragm
Umbilicus
Epigastric
Thoracic
Umbilicus
The term caudal means toward the head.
True or false
False
Which level of organization can be described as "related organs working for a common function"?
Cellular
Chemical
Organism
Tissue
System
System
Together with the ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra, which ONE of the following organs makes up the urinary system?
Spleen
Kidney
Gallbladder
Heart
Pancreas
Kidney
Which ONE of the following is a component of the integumentary system?
Lungs
Skin
Eye
Heart
Kidneys
Skin
Which ONE of the following organs has a major role in two different body systems?
Lungs
Bladder
Pancreas
Skin
Stomach
Pancreas
Which ONE of the following is NOT one of the four basic tissue types?
Muscular
Epithelial
Connective
Nervous
Glandular
Glandular
A cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell.
True or False
True
The ribosomes are made up of DNA.
True or false
False
If, when red blood cells are added to a solution they undergo crenation, which one of the following best describes the tonicity of that solution relative to the red blood cells?
Hypertonic
Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hypertonic
Which of the following statements is not true of mitosis?
It occurs at the same rate in all cells
It follows duplication of DNA in the nucleus
It involves the centrioles and a spindle
It results in equal division of the chromosomes
The original cell produces two identical daughter cells
It occurs at the same rate in all cells
..... are small bodies in the cell that contains digestive enzymes
Cilia
Mitochondria
Robosomes
Lysosomes
Lysosomes
..... convert energy into ATP
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
Cilia
Mitochondria
Mitochondria
Which of the following are required for active transport?
Mitosis and diffusion
Vesicles and cilia
Osmosis and lysosomes
Transporters and ATP
Osmotic pressure and centrioles
Transporters and ATP
..... is the substance that makes up the genes
DNA
Chromosome
RNA
ATP
DNA`
.... is the substance used to manufacture proteins according to the genetic code
RNA
DNA
Chromosome
ATP
RNA
A nucleotide contains a nitrogen base, a sugar unit, and a....
Protein unit
Glycerol
Monosaccharide
Phosphate group
Phosphate group
The following are stages of mitosis: 1. metaphase 2. prophase 3. telophase 4. anaphase, the correct order of these stages in mitosis is:
2,4,3,1
3,2,1,4
4,3,1,2
1,3,4,2
2,1,4,3
2,1,4,3
Which of the following is not directly involved with cell division?
Spindle
Centriole
Nucleus
Golgi apparatus
Chromosomes
Gogli apparatus
Which ONE of the following processes is an example of a receptor-mediated endocytosis?
A macrophage engulfing debris within the respiratory tract
Uptake of a small amount of extracellular fluid by an intestinal epithelial cell
Osmosis
Secretion of a neurotransmitter by a neuron
Uptake of transferrin into an erythrocyte precursor cell
Uptake of transferrin into an erythrocyte cell
The term proliferation describes which ONE of the following processes?
Cell specialization
Cell contraction
Cellular metabolism
Cell division
Cell transport
Cell division
Droplets of extracellular fluid are taken in the cell by the process of....
Hemolysis
Carcinogenesis
Diffusion
Dilution
Pinocytosis
Pinocytosis
Which ONE of the following best describes the total number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell?
66
22
23
64
46
46
A desmosome is best described as a type of which ONE of the following?
Channel protein
Enzyme
Transporter protein
Cell-adhesion molecule
Receptor protein
Cell-adhesion molecule
Ribose, nitrogenous base, and phosphate group make up a single nucleotide from a DNA molecule.
True or false
True
Which one of the following best describes the process of translation?
An mRNA strand is used as a template for the production of a protein
An mRNA strand us cleaved to remove introns
An mRNA strand is used a template for the synthesis of a replacement strand of DNA
An mRNA strand is produced by polymerase enzyme from a template of DNA
An mRNA strand is exported out of the cell
An mRNA strand is used as a template for the production of a protein
Which ONE of the following is part of the interphase during which the DNA of the cell is replicated?
G2 phase
G1 phase
S phase
G0 phase
S phase
.... is found covering and lining the surfaces of the body and organs.
Nervous tissue
Epithelium tissue
Connective tissue
Muscle Tissue
Epithelium tissue
Adipose tissue store....
Cartilage
Saliva
Fat
Bone
Mucus
Fat
The study of tissues is...
Histology
Pharmacology
Endocrinology
Microbiology
Cytology
Histology
Term that describes flat, irregular epithelial cells is...
Cartilage
Stratified
Squamous
Adipose
Squamous
Tissue that forms when cartilage gradually becomes impregnated with calcium salt is....
Cili
Tissue
Adipose
Bone
Bone
Endocrine glands produce...
Digestive juices
Hormones
Tears
External secretions
Sweat
Hormones
.... consist of a glandular portion, lined with secretory glandular epithelium, and a duct portion, lines with simple cuboidal or columnar epithelial cells.
Paracrine glands
Endocrine glands
Exocrine glands
No answer text provided
Exocrine glands
These type of glands secrete their product by shedding whole cells
Holocrine
Merocrine
Apocrine
Sweat glands
Holocrine
The fibers of a neuron are....
Transporters and vesicles
Dendrites and fibrils
Nuclei and ribosomes
Axons and dendrites
Fibrils and endoplasmic reticulum
Axons and dendrites
Specialized cells that function to secrete products either onto a body surface, or into the blood either directly or via a duct.
Glands
Myocytes
Osteoblasts
Keratinocytes
Red blood cells
Red blood cells
A specialized tissue with both contractile and conducting properties
Epithelium
Connective
Bone tissue
Muscle tissue
Nervous tissue
Muscle tissue
The supportive cells in the nervous system are collectively known as...
Neuroglia
Dendrites
Periosteum
Neurilemmas
Myelin
Neuroglia
Arrange the following steps in the preparation of a photomicrograph in the correct order:
1. staining 2. sectioning 3. embedding 4. fixation 5. orientation
2,3,1,4,5,
5,3,2,4,1
No answer text provided
5,4,3,2,1
1,2,3,4,5
5,4,3,2,1
Which one of the following stains is commonly used to differentiate between nucleic acids within the nucleic acids within the nucelus and basic cytoplasmic proteins?
Silver nitrate
Methyl blue
Hematoxylin and eosin
Trichrome
Van Gieson
Hematoxylin and eosin
Which one of the following types of epithelium lines the heart, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
Pseuodostratified columnar epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple squamous epithelium
Which one of the following best describes the structure of the exocrine gland shown in the image?
Compound acinar
Simple branched tubular
Compound tubuloacinar
Simple acinar
Simple branched acinar
Simple branched acinar
..... and ..... make up the extracellular matrix of connective tissue
Adipocytes and fibroblasts
Fibrillar proteins and fibroblasts
Ground substance and fibrillar proteins
Ground substance and adipocytes
Elastic cartilage and fibrillary proteins
Ground substance and fibrillar proteins
Which one of the following types of muscle often contains individual cells several centimeters long?
Skeletal muscle
No answer provided
Cardiac muscle
Smooth muscle
Skeletal muscle
Neuroglia are neuronal cells. They consist of a small cell body containing a nucleus and branching cytoplasmic processes.
True or false
False
Which one of the following is one type of membrane that does not exhibit epithelial cells?
Serous membrane
Cutaneous membrane
Synovial membrane
Mucous membrane
Epithelial membrane
Synovial membrane
Stomach, and trachea are lined by a mucous membrane.
True or false
True
Gliosis is a special type of scar tissue that forms in response to damage to which of the following structures?
Stomach
Bone
Muscle
Brain
Cartilage
Brain
..... is a process when damaged tissue is replaced with scar tissue.
Granulation
Regeneration
Differentiation
Fibrosis
Fibrosis
Mast cells (mastocytes) store and secrete histamine and heparin in response to various stimuli and are involved in inflammatory processes and allergic response.
True or false
True
Skeletal muscle features cells linked by gap junctions.
True or false
False
Which one of the following cell types produce scar tissue?
Reticular cells
Fibroblasts
Phagocytes
Macrophages
Adipocytes
Fibroblasts
Cells involved in the healing of the epidermis are produced by the cell division occurring in which ONE of the following epidermal strata?
Stratum spinosum
Stratum basale
Stratum corneum
Stratum lucidum
Straum granulsum
Stratum basale
Which one of the following is the MOST significant determinant of skin color?
Geographic origin
Location of the melanocytes
Number of melanocytes
Amount of melanin produced
Amount of melanin produced
Which one of the following best approximates the proportion of total body weight that is accounted for by the skin?
10
15
35
45
5
15
Which one of the following is an immune cell routinely found in the epidermis?
T cells
Langerhans cells
Plasma cells
B cells
Merkel cells
Langerhans cells
The second phase in skin wound healing is called....
Injury phase
Proliferation and migratory phase
Maturation and remodeling phase
Inflammatory phase
Proliferation and migratory phase
Sweat or sudoriferous glands come in two types: merocrine and apocrine
True or false
True
The body system that is composed of skin and its associated structures is...
Nervous system
Cardiovascular system
Integumentary system
Endocrine system
Integumentary system
Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
Protection
Cutaneous sensation
Breathing
Thermoregulation
Excretion
Breathing
What is the function of the structure indicated by the red arrow in the illustration below?
Produce pigment
Produce oil
Convey blood
Sense pressure
Produce sweat
Sense pressure
The thickened outermost layer of the epidermis is the...
Sheath
Appendage
Stratum melanosis
Corium
Stratum corneum
Stratum corneum
What is the protein in the epidermis that thickens and protects the skin?
Melatonin
Chitin
Melanin
Keratin
Keratin
A modified apocrine sweat gland that produces wax is the....
Ceruminous gland
Ciliary gland
Corneal gland
Stasis gland
Sudiferous gland
Ceruminous gland
The stratum lucidum is only found in the hairless, thick skin of the fingertips, palms and soles of the feet.
True or false?
True
..... produces sebum.
Eccerine gland
Sebaceous gland
Sudoriferous gland
Apocrine gland
Sebaceous gland
A precursor form of which one of the following vitamins is produced in the skin?
Vitamin C
Vitamin D
Vitamin A
Vitamin B
Vitamin E
Vitamin D
In addition to melanin and carotene, what other molecule contributes towards the skin color of an individual?
Hemoglobin
Myoglobin
Keratin
Melatonin
Hemoglobin
Arrange these layers of the epidermis in the correct order, from superficial to deep.
1. stratum basale, 2. stratum corneum, 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum lucidum 5. stratum spinosum
2,4,3,5,1
1,2,3,4,5
2,3,1,4,5
5,4,3,2,1
4,2,1,5,3
2,4,3,5,1
Which one of the following epidermal strata contains the most live cells?
Stratum corneum
Stratum basale
Stratum spinosum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum lucidum
Stratum basale
Arrector pili muscle causes a hair to stand on end.
True or false
True
Which one of the following is the term used for the white, half-moon shaped area at the proximal end of the nail?
Hyponychium
Bed
Matrix
Plate
Lunule
Lunule
The active form of vitamin D is associated with the regulation of which one of the following ions?
Sodium
Calcium
Iron
Magnesium
Potassium
Calcium
What is the chief purpose of melanin in the skin?
Aid in thermoregulation
Strengthen the structural integrity of the skin
Protect the nucleus of the skin cell against UV radiation
Prevent excess fluid loss
Protect the nucleus of the skin cell against UV radiation
Which one of the following best describes an injury requiring deep wound healing?
Injury reaching into the dermis
Injury reaching to the epidermal/dermal boundary
Injury reaching the stratum corneum
injury to the epidermis
Injury reaching the stratum basale
Injury reaching into the dermis
The hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) is classified as a skin layer
True or false
False
Muscles have insufficient oxygen when they are functioning anaerobically.
True or false
True
Yellow bone marrow is principally responsible for storing which ONE of the following substances?
False triglycerides
Glycerol
Proteins and phospholipids
Glucose
False triglycerides
What is a type of ion that is needed for muscle contraction?
Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Calcium
Calcium
What is the main muscle of the calf?
Quadriceps femoris
Gastrocnemius
Trapezius
Latissimus dorsi
Gastrocnemius
All of the following are muscles of mastication except:
Temporalis
Extensor digit minimi
Lateral pterygoid
Masseter
Medial pterygoid
Extensor digiti minimi
The subscapularis muscle is classified as one of the rotator cuff muscles.
True or false
False
the contractile protein that forms the thin filaments in muscle is the myosin.
True or false
False
Cytoplasm of a muscle is referred to as sarcolemma.
True or false
False
Abduction moves a part of the body towards the midline.
True or false
False
Which one of the following is NOT one of the common properties associated with all muscles?
Convertibility
Electrical excitability
Contractility
Elasticity
Extensibility
Convertibility
Which ONE of the following terms describes the sheet of thick connective tissue that surrounds the entirety of a skeletal muscle?
Hypomysium
Automysium
Perimysium
Epimysium
Endomysium
Epimysium
Which ONE of the following neurotransmitters is released by somatic motor neurons where they synapse with skeletal muscle fibers?
Glutamate
Acetylcholine
Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin
Acetylcholine
In which ONE of the following stages of a twitch contraction does crossbridge formation occur?
Latent period
Contraction period
Relaxation period
Contraction period
A straight muscle best fits into which ONE of the following categories?
Parallel
Convergent
Fusiform
Orbicular
Pennate
Parallel
A muscle that works against the principle motion being considered is best described by which ONE of the following terms?
Agonist
Antagonist
Synergist
Prime mover
Fixator
Antagonist
"Circumduction" is the movement that is unique to humans
True or false
False
During muscle contraction, aerobic respiration can generate 36 ATP molecules per glucose molecule
True or false
True
What is a substance that strengthens the plasma membrane?
Collagen
Glycerol
Cholesterol
Glucose
Cholesterol
Which of the following are required for active transport?
Transporters and ATP
Osmotic pressure and centrioles
Osmosis and lysosomes
Mitosis and diffusion
Vesicles and cilia
Transporters and ATP
In the anatomical position the palms of the hands are facing posterior.
True or false
False
A plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is called....
Frontal plane
Superior plane
Transverse plane
Sagittal plane
Midsagittal plane
Transverse plane
Any disruption or change in a controlled condition or environment is called...
Effector
Control center
Receptor
Stimulus
Stimulus
Using the description of anatomical structures as described in your course materials, the esophagus would be most appropriately be classified as which of the following?
Tissue
Organ
Cell
Organ system
Organ
A force that draws water into a solution is...
Acidity
pH
Osmotic pressure
Filtration pressure
Osmotic pressure
The plasma membrane is composed of...
Carbohydrates and proteins
Proteins and phospholipids
Calcium salts and phospholipids
Cholesterol and fats
Proteins and phospholipids
A layer of fibrous connective tissue around a bone is called periosteum.
True or false
True
In connective tissue, these types of fibers are very fine, and they branch to form strong, supportive frameworks.
Collagen fibers
Elastic fibers
Reticular fibers
Lymphocytes
Ground substance
Reticular fibers
Which ONE of the following is the most common type of cell in the epidermis?
Langerhans cell
Merkel cell
Keratinocyte
No answer text provided
Melanocyte
Keratinocyte
The stratum lucidum is only found in the hairless, thick skin of the fingertips, palms and soles of the feet.
True or false
True
The protein in the epidermis that thickens and protects the skin is melanin.
True or false
False
The primary function of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is as a fuel source for the cells of the body.
True or false
True
A substance that contains more hydrogen ions compared to hydroxide ions is an acid.
True or false
True
.... is a type of protein that acts as a catalyst in metabolic reactions
Carbon
Lipid
Enzyme
Carbohydrate
Enzyme
A mixture that contains larger particles that are heterogeneous and appear translucent or cloudy.
True solution
Suspension
Enzyme
Colloid
Solvent
Colloid
Which one of the following is not an organic compound?
Carbohydrate
Amino acid
Fat
Water
Glycerol
Water
Which of the following is not a compound?
Water
Phosphorous
Hydrochloric acid
Sodium hydroxide
Table salt
Phosphorous
The element that makes up the greatest % by weight un the body is....
Sodium
Oxygen
Sulfur
Nitrogen
Potassium
Oxygen
Which ONE of the following best describes how to calculate the mass number of an element?
Multiply the group number by the number of proteins
Double the atomic number
Add the number of protons to the number of neutrons
Divide the number of protons by two
Add the number of proteins to the number of electrons
Add the number of protons to the number of neutrons
Covalent bond is a type of bond formed between two atoms that share electrons to gain stability
True or false
True
Which ONE of the following terms better describes most catabolic reactions?
Endergonic
Exergonic
Exergonic
Nitrogen is found in all organic compounds
True or false
False
Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of which two of the following molecules?
Pentose and fructose
Fructose and triose
Ribose and pentose
Fructose and glucose
Glucose and pentose
Fructose and glucose
Three fatty acids are linked to which ONE of the following molecules to form a triglyceride molecule?
Glycerol
Glucose
Glycerine
Glycogen
Glycyrrhizin
Glycerol
Which ONE of the following has the highest catalytic activity?
Apoenzyme
Holoenzyme
Cofactor
Denatured enzyme
Coenzyme
Holoenzyme
Which ONE of the following statements comparing human DNA and RNA is NOT correct?
RNA contains ribose, DNA does not
All chromosomal DNA is duplicated prior to cell division; RNA duplication is not required for cell division
DNA is double stranded; RNA is single stranded
DNA is found in the nucleus during telephase; RNA is both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus
DNA contains uracil, RNA does not
DNA contains uracil, RNA does not
In an ATP molecule, which ONE of the following types of bonds are often described as "high energy" bonds?
Peptide bonds
Phosphate bonds
Phosphodiester bonds
Hydrogen bonds
Glycosidic bonds
Phosphate bonds
Which ONE of the following types of neuroglial cells are widespread throughout the peripheral nervous system?
Astrocytes
Microglia
Schwann cells
Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells
Which ONE of the following regions is most closely associated with the primary sensory cortex?
Longitudinal fissure
Postcentral gyrus
Lateral sucus
Central gyrus
Precentral gyrus
Postcentral gyrus
Which ONE of the following drains the majority of the dural venous sinus system and exits the skull via the jugular foramen?
Petrosal sinus
Transverse sinus
Superior sagittal sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Cavernous sinus
Sigmoid sinus
Which ONE of the following categories of nerve fiber usually conducts action potentials at the fastest speeds?
D type
C type
B type
A type
A type
What is the nerve that controls tongue muscles?
Hypoglossal nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Facial nerve
Vagus nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebrum?
Temporal
Frontal
Occipital
Ventricular
Ventricular
The elevated portions of the cerebral cortex isare called the gyri
True or false
True
The portion of the brain that contains the thalamus and the hypothalamus is called the medulla oblongata
True or false
False
The femoral nerve is the largest nerve of the lumbar plexus
True or false
True
The auditory area is in the temporal lobe
True or false
True
Which of the following cranial nerves innervate muscles that move the neck?
Abducens nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Hypoglossal nerve
Accessory nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Accessory nerve
What is the type of reflex that produces a reflex action on the opposite side of the body to where the stimulus was perceived?
Contralateral
Singular
Geometric
Unilateral
Uniform
Contralateral
At what point does the absolute refractory period begin?
After hyperpolarization
During repolarization
During hyperpolarization
As the action potential is triggered
As the action potential is triggered
Which of the following can be described as the resting membrane potential?
The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane
The difference in charge between two points
Voltage between two points
Voltage on one side of the plasma membrane
The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane
What is the difference between continuous conduction and salutatory conduction?
Action potential
Nodes of Ranvier
Myelination axons
Lack of voltage-gated sodium channels
Myelination axons
Which phase of the action potential is described by the following "voltage-gated sodium channels are with the activation gate closed and the inactivation gate open and the voltage-gated potassium channels are closed"
After-hyperpolarizing phase
Depolarizing phase
Resting phase
Repolarizing phase
Resting phase
The parasympathetic nervous system increases heart rate and stimulates digestion
True or false
False
Mechanoreceptor function to detect the sensations of taste and olfaction.
False
the pia mater is the outermost layer of the meninges.
True or false
False
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are located in the diencephalon.
True or false
True
Brain and cranial nerves are the components of the central nervous system.
True or false
False
Bipolar neurons are most likely to be found in the spinal cord
True or false
False
Which ONE of the following is not part of the peripheral nervous system?
Spinal nerves
Autonomic sensory nerve fibers
Enteric nervous system
Somatic sensory nerve fibers
Spinal cord
Spinal cord
Which ONE of the following numerals represents the cranial nerve that controls the muscles that regulate the aperture of the pupil and the shape of the lens?
V
I
II
III
IV
III
Which ONE of the following nerves is the sixth cranial nerve?
Trigeminal nerve
Vagus nerve
Optic nerve
Oculomotor nerve
Abducens nerve
Abducens nerve
What is the name of the fluid of the inner ear contained with the bony labyrinth and surrounding the membranes labyrinth?
Endolymph
Perilymph
Aqueous humor
Vitreous humor
Perilymph
What is the jellylike material located behind the crystalline lens that maintains the spherical shape of the eyeball?
Vitreous humor
Perilymph
Endolymph
Aqueous humor
Vitreous humor
The organ of corti is the receptor for:
Taste
Pressure
Equilibrium
Hearing
Smell
Hearing
When the eyes are exposed to a bright light, the pupils contract.
True or false
True
Sclera is the blind spot of the eye.
True or false
False
Salty, sweet, sour, bitter, and umami are the five primary tastes.
True or false
True
The receptors for vision are the...
Humors and media
Rods and cones
Spindles and cilia
Buds and fissures
Rods and cones
All of the following are a form of lingual papillae except...
Vallate papillae
Malate papillae
Foliate papillae
Filiform papillae
Fungiform papillae
Malate papillae
Which neural layer of the eye is responsible for the most accurate vision?
Cornea
Macula lutae
Fovea centralis
Retina
Fovea centralis
Please identify the correct pathway involved in determining whether a smell has been experienced before?
Olfactory bulb > olfactory nerves > brain > limbic system
Olfactory bulb > olfactory nerves > limbic system > brain
Olfactory nerves > olfactory bulb > brain > limbic system
Olfactory nerves > olfactory bulb > limbic system > brain
Olfactory nerves > olfactory bulb > brain > limbic system
.... are responsible for black and white vision, ... are responsible for color vision.
Rod cells, cone cells
Cone cells, rod cells
Rod cells, cone cells
The tip of the tongue is most sensitive to sweet tastes.
True or false
True
Which ONE of the following is no considered to be a special sense?
Hearing
Gustation
Touch
Balance
Olfaction
Touch
Which ONE of the following types of tissue best describes the olfactory mucosa located on the roof of the nasal cavity?
Muscular tissue
Glandular tissue
Nervous tissue
Connective tissue
Epithelia tissue
Epithelial tissue
Which ONE of the following best describes the type of epithelium found on the surface of the tongue?
Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Non-ciliated columnar epithelium
Pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium
Ciliated columnar epithelium
Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Humans have the lowest taste threshold to which one of the following categories of taste?
Salty
Umami
Bitter
Sour
Sweet
Umami
Tears are secreted onto which of the following structures?
Conjunctiva
Sclera
Cornea
Pupil
Eyebrow
Conjunctiva
Contraction of which one of the following structures causes the lends to become more convex?
Suspensory ligaments
Conjunctiva
Ciliary muscles
Pupil
Zonular fibers
Ciliary mucles
Which ONE of the following structures are directly linked by the pharyngotympanic tube?
Middle ear; laryngopharynx
Inner ear; laryngopharynx
Inner ear; nasopharynx
Middle ear, nasopharynx
External ear, nso[harynx
Middle ear; nasopharynx
Ceruminous glands are modified sweat glands binding the auditory canal that secretes ear wax
True or false
True
Arrange the following structures in the order that vibrations pass through them:
1. External acoustic membrane
2. Stapes
3. Scala vestibule
4. Tympanic membrane
5. Incus
6. Malleus
1,4,6,5,2,3
1,3,2,4,5,6,
1,2,3,4,5,6
1,5,4,6,2,3
1,4,6,5,2,3
Which one of the following cell types are primarily responsible for the process of sound transduction?
Outer hair cells
Inner hair cells
Supporting cells
Inner hair cells
Which one of the following is the term for the small calcium carbonate crystals that sit on top of the gelatinous part of the otolithic membrane?
Otoliths
Perilymph
Kinocilia
Maculae
Striola
Otoliths
Which one of the following cranial nerves carries information regarding balance and equilibrium to the brain?
Glossopharyngeal nerve
Abducens nerve
Vestibulocochlear nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Vagus nerve
Vestibulocochlaer nerve
Which one of the following best describes the types of receptors in the inner ear associated with balance and equilibrium?
Stretch receptors
Mechanoreceptors
Chemoreceptors
Osmoreceptors
Proprioceptors
Mechanoreceptors
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Verified questions
chemistry
An octahedral complex with three different ligands (A, B, and $C$ ) can have formulas with three different ratios of the ligands: $\left[\mathrm{MA}_4 \mathrm{BC}\right]^{n+}, \quad$ such as $\left[\mathrm{Co}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_4\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right) \mathrm{Cl}\right]^{2+}$ $\left[\mathrm{MA}_3 \mathrm{~B}_2 \mathrm{C}\right]^{n+}$, such as $\left[\mathrm{Cr}\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_3 \mathrm{Br}_2 \mathrm{Cl}\right]$ $\left[\mathrm{MA}_2 \mathrm{~B}_2 \mathrm{C}_2\right]^{n+}$, such as $\left[\mathrm{Cr}\left(\mathrm{NH}_3\right)_2\left(\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}\right)_2 \mathrm{Br}_2\right]^{+}$ For each example, give the name, state the type(s) of isomerism present, and draw all isomers.
anatomy
Arrange the following terms in order of increasing specialization: oligopotency, pleuripotency, unipotency, multipotency. a. multipotency, pleuripotency, oligopotency, unipotency b. pleuripotency, oligopotency, multipotency unipotency c. oligopotency, pleuripotency, unipotency, multipotency d. pleuripotency, multipotency, oligopotency, unipotency
physics
Find the kinetic energy of a proton whose wavelength is $1.00 \mathrm{~nm}$.
chemistry
What stereochemistry would you expect for the product of the Diels–Alder reaction between (2E,4E)-2,4-hexadiene and ethylene? What stereochemistry would you expect if (2E,4Z)-2,4-hexadiene were used instead?
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