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micro final combined

Terms in this set (317)

Which of the following is not normal microbiota of the skin?
A) Streptococcus
B) Pityrosporum
C) Staphylococcus
D) Propionibacterium
E) Corynebacterium
A) Streptococcus
An 8-year-old female has scabs and pus-filled vesicles on her face and throat. Three weeks earlier she had visited her grandmother who had shingles. What infection does the 8 -year-old have?
A) Chickenpox
B) Measles
C) Fever blisters
D) Scabies
E) German measles
A) Chickenpox
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) S. aureus impetigo
B) S. pyogenes erysipelas
C) P. acnes acne
D) P. aeruginosa otitis externa
E) None of the above
E) None of the above
The etiologic agent of warts is
A) Papovavirus.
B) Poxvirus.
C) Herpesvirus.
D) Parvovirus
E) None of the above.
A) Papovavirus.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of P. aeruginosa?
A) Gram-positive rods
B) Oxidative metabolism
C) Oxidase positive
D) Produce pyocyanin
E) None of the above
A) Gram-positive rods
Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Pustular rash smallpox
B) Koplik spots rubella
C) Papular rash measles
D) Vesicular rash chickenpox
E) None of the above
B) Koplik spots rubella
Which of the following is not transmitted by the respiratory route?
A) Smallpox
B) Chickenpox
C) German measles
D) Cold sore
E) None of the above
D) Cold sore
Which of these is not caused by herpesvirus?
A) Chickenpox
B) Shingles
C) Keratoconjunctivitis
D) Smallpox
E) None of the above
D) Smallpox
Thrush and vaginitis are caused by
A) Herpesvirus.
B) Chlamydia trachomatis.
C) Candida albicans.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Candida albicans.
The greatest single cause of blindness in the world is
A) Neonatal gonorrheal ophthalmia.
B) Keratoconjunctivitis.
C) Trachoma.
D) Inclusion conjunctivitis.
E) Pinkeye.
C) Trachoma.
Which of the following can be treated with topical chemotherapeutic agents?
A) Herpes gladiatorium
B) Sporotrichosis
C) Dermatomycosis
D) Rubella
E) None of the above
C) Dermatomycosis
Which of the following is not a cause of ringworm?
A) Microsporum
B) Trichophyton
C) Tinea capitis
D) Epidermophyton
E) None of the above
C) Tinea capitis
Newbornsʹ eyes are treated with an antibiotic when
A) N. gonorrhoeae is isolated from the eyes.
B) The mother is blind.
C) The mother has genital herpes.
D) The mother has gonorrhea.
E) Always.
E) Always.
A possible complication of herpetic keratitis is
A) Encephalitis.
B) Fever blisters.
C) Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
D) Congenital rubella syndrome.
E) None of the above.
A) Encephalitis.
Which of the following is sensitive to penicillin?
A) Chlamydia
B) Herpesvirus
C) Candida
D) Streptococcus
E) Pseudomonas
D) Streptococcus
Which region of the skin supports the largest bacterial population?
A) Axilla
B) Scalp
C) Forearms
D) Legs
E) All are equal
A) Axilla
Which infection is caused by S. aureus?
A) Pimples
B) Sty
C) Furuncle
D) Carbuncle
E) All of the above
E) All of the above
Which of the following is not a characteristic used to identify S. pyogenes?
A) Coagulase-positive
B) Group A cell wall antigen
C) Group M proteins
D) Beta-hemolytic
E) None of the above
A) Coagulase-positive
Which of the following is not a causative agent of conjunctivitis?
A) Chlamydia trachomatis
B) Herpes simplex
C) Adenovirus
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E) Hemophilus aegyptii
D) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
In which of the following respects is measles similar to German measles?
A) Rash
B) Etiologic agent
C) Encephalitis as a complication
D) Congenital complications
E) In name only
E) In name only
Vaccination for rubella is
A) Not necessary because the disease is mild.
B) Not necessary if a person has had an infection.
C) Recommended only for pregnant women.
D) Recommended for newborns to prevent congenital disease.
E) None of the above.
E) None of the above.
All of the following statements about congenital rubella syndrome are true except
A) It is contracted in utero.
B) It may be fatal.
C) It may result in deafness, blindness, and mental retardation.
D) It doesnʹt occur with subclinical infections.
E) All of the above are true.
D) It doesnʹt occur with subclinical infections.
The etiologic agent of chickenpox.
A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) HHV-6
D) Parvovirus
E) Poxvirus
B) Herpes zoster
The etiologic agent of fifth disease.
A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) HHV-6
D) Parvovirus
E) Poxvirus
D) Parvovirus
The etiologic agent of roseola.
A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) HHV-6
D) Parvovirus
E) Poxvirus
C) HHV-6
The etiologic agent of fever blisters.
A) Herpes simplex
B) Herpes zoster
C) HHV-6
D) Parvovirus
E) Poxvirus
A) Herpes simplex
Used to treat epidemic herpetic keratitis.
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
C) Trifluridine
Used to treat smallpox.
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
E) None of the above
Used to treat sporotrichosis.
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
D) Fungicide
Used to treat candidiasis.
A) Penicillin
B) Sulfonamide
C) Trifluridine
D) Fungicide
E) None of the above
D) Fungicide
Scabies is a skin disease caused by
A) A slow virus.
B) A protozoan.
C) A mite.
D) A bacterium.
E) A prion.
C) A mite.
Scabies is transmitted by
A) Fomites.
B) Food.
C) Water.
D) Soil.
E) None of the above.
A) Fomites.
A patient has pus-filled vesicles and scabs on her face, throat, and lower back. She most likely has
A) Measles.
B) Mumps.
C) Chickenpox.
D) Rubella.
E) Smallpox.
C) Chickenpox.
Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) Toxemia
B) Scalded skin syndrome
C) Staphylococcal infection
D) TSST-1
E) Sudden drop in blood pressure
C) Staphylococcal infection
Herpes gladiatorium is transmitted by
A) Direct contact.
B) The respiratory route.
C) The fecal-oral route.
D) Insect bites.
E) All of the above.
A) Direct contact.
The patient has a papular rash. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings reveals small 8-legged animals.
A) Candida
B) Microsporum
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. aureus
E) Scabies
E) Scabies
The patient has vesicles and scabs over her forehead. Microscopic examination of skin scrapings shows gram-positive cocci in clusters.
A) Candida
B) Microsporum
C) P. aeruginosa
D) S. aureus
E) Scabies
D) S. aureus
The patient has scaling skin on his fingers. Conidiospores are seen in microscopic examination of skin scrapings.
A) Candida
B) Microsporum
C) P. aaeruginosa
D) S. aureus
E) Scabies
B) Microsporum
A 45-year-old male has pus-filled vesicles distributed over his back in the upper right quadrant, over his right shoulder, and upper right quadrant of his chest. His symptoms are most likely due to
A) Candida albicans.
B) Herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Varicella-zoster virus.
E) Varicella-zoster virus.
A 35-year-old female has a red, raised rash on the inside of her thighs. Gram -stained skin scrapings show large budding cells with pseudohyphae. The infection is caused by
A) Candida albicans.
B) Herpes simplex virus.
C) Staphylococcus aureus.
D) Streptococcus pyogenes.
E) Varicella-zoster virus.
A) Candida albicans.
Cytoplasmic inclusions were observed in a fetus that died in utero after 6 monthsʹ gestation. The probable cause of the fetusʹs death was
A) Fifth disease.
B) Herpes simplex.
C) Measles.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
A) Fifth disease.
Assume that your lab partner swabs the side of his face and used the swab to inoculate a nutrient agar plate. The next day, he performs a Gram stain on the colonies. They are gram-positive cocci. You advise him that he should next look for
A) An acid-fast reaction.
B) A coagulase reaction.
C) Conidiospores.
D) Pseudohyphae.
E) Pseudopods.
B) A coagulase reaction.
Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) Chickenpox Poxvirus
B) Conjunctivitis Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Conjunctivitis Pseudomonas
D) Infected tissue fluoresces Dermatomycosis
E) Opportunistic infection in AIDS patients Candidiasis
A) Chickenpox Poxvirus
A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is
A) Acne.
B) Boils.
C) Carbuncles.
D) Impetigo.
E) Pimples.
A) Acne.
A 17-year-old male has pus-filled cysts on his face and upper back. Microscopic examination reveals gram-positive rods. This infection is caused by
A) Acanthamoeba.
B) Herpes simplex virus.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
D) Staphylococcus aureus.
E) Streptococcus pyogenes.
C) Propionibacterium acnes.
Which of the following is NOT likely to spread MRSA among athletes?
a. Physical contact
b. Whirlpool baths
c. Taping gels
d. Antibiotic resistance
e. Shared equipment
d. Antibiotic resistance
Buruli ulcer is caused by:
A. direct contact.
B. a acid-fast bacteria.
C. a fungus.
D. a virus.
E. a mite.
B. a acid-fast bacteria.
D) It is caused by rhinovirus.
1) Which of the following statements about otitis media is false?
A) It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes.
B) It is a complication of tonsillitis.
C) It is transmitted by swimming pool water.
D) It is caused by rhinovirus.
E) It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Symptoms
2) Which of the following does NOT confirm a diagnosis of strep throat?
A) Hemolytic reaction
B) Bacitracin inhibition
C) Symptoms
D) Serological tests
E) Gram stain
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia.
3) Penicillin is used to treat all of the following EXCEPT
A) Streptococcal sore throat.
B) Diphtheria.
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia.
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia.
E) Scarlet fever.
B) Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.
4) Mycoplasmal pneumonia differs from viral pneumonia in that
A) Mycoplasmal pneumonia doesn't have any known etiologic agent.
B) Mycoplasmal pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.
C) Viral pneumonia is treated with tetracyclines.
D) The symptoms are distinctly different.
E) Mycoplasma can't be cultured.
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia - exotoxin
5) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to a virulence factor?
A) Diphtheria - exotoxin
B) Scarlet fever - exotoxin
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia - exotoxin
D) Haemophilus pneumonia - endotoxin
E) Whooping cough - endotoxin
C) Mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod
6) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Corynebacterium - gram-positive rod
B) Mycobacterium - acid-fast rod
C) Mycoplasma - gram-positive pleomorphic rod
D) Bordetella - gram-negative pleomorphic rod
E) Haemophilus - gram-negative rod
A) Histoplasma
7) Which of the following microorganisms causes symptoms most like tuberculosis?
A) Histoplasma
B) Coccidioides
C) Legionella
D) Mycoplasma
E) Influenzavirus
E) Being near someone with tuberculosis
8) Which of the following CANNOT lead to a positive tuberculin skin test?
A) Vaccination
B) Current tuberculosis infection
C) Previous tuberculosis infection
D) Immunity to tuberculosis
E) Being near someone with tuberculosis
A) Tuberculosis - toxoid
9) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its vaccine?
A) Tuberculosis - toxoid
B) Whooping cough - heat-killed bacteria
C) Diphtheria - toxoid
D) Influenza - viruses grown in embryonated eggs
E) Pneumococcal pneumonia - capsular polysaccharides
B) Diphtheria
10) Which of the following diseases has a cutaneous form, especially in individuals over 30 years of age?
A) Coccidioidomycosis
B) Diphtheria
C) Legionellosis
D) Scarlet fever
E) Psittacosis
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
11) Which of the following causes an infection of the respiratory system that is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route?
A) Streptococcus pyogenes
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
B) Q fever - Rickettsia
12) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Epiglottitis - Haemophilus
B) Q fever - Rickettsia
C) Psittacosis - Chlamydia
D) Whooping cough - Bordetella
E) Melioidosis - Burkholderia
E) Histoplasma
13) Which of the following does NOT cause pneumonia?
A) Legionella
B) Haemophilus
C) Mycoplasma
D) RSV
E) Histoplasma
E) All of the above
14) Which of the following causes opportunistic infections in AIDS patients?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Aspergillus
C) Rhizopus
D) Mucor
E) All of the above
D) Coccidioidomycosis - air
15) Which of the following diseases is NOT correctly matched to its reservoir?
A) Tuberculosis - cattle
B) Histoplasmosis - soil
C) Psittacosis - parakeets
D) Coccidioidomycosis - air
E) Pneumocystis - humans
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
16) Which of the following does NOT produce an exotoxin?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pygogenes
E) All of the above produce an exotoxin.
A) Bordetella pertussis
17) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by the catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent stages?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Respiratory syncytial virus
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
18) Which one of the following is an irregular, gram-positive rod?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Myobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Pneumocystis jirovecii
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
19) Infection by which of the following results in the formation of Ghon complexes?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Blastomyces dermatidis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
20) Which one of the following produces the most potent exotoxin?
A) Bordetella pertussis
B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D) Streptococcus pyogenes
E) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Antigenic shift.
21) The recurrence of influenza epidemics is due to
A) Lack of antiviral drugs.
B) The Guillain-Barré syndrome.
C) Antigenic shift.
D) Lack of naturally acquired active immunity.
E) HA spikes.
A) Pneumocystis
22) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogen?
A) Pneumocystis
B) Legionella
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycoplasma
E) Rhinovirus
D) Blastomyces
23) Which of the following etiologic agents results in the formation of abscesses?
A) Staphylococcus
B) Mycoplasma
C) Streptococcus
D) Blastomyces
E) Coccidioides immitis
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
24) Which of the following is most susceptible to destruction by phagocytes?
A) Chlamydophila psittaci
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Streptococcus pyogenes
D) Influenza virus
E) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) All of the above.
25) A healthy carrier state exists for
A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C) Beta-hemolytic streptococci.
D) Haemophilus influenzae.
E) All of the above.
C) Mycoplasma
26) Infection by which of the following is often confused with viral pneumonia?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) None of the above
D) Streptococcus
27) Which one of the following causes a disease characterized by a red rash?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) RSV
B) Coccidioides
28) Inhalation of arthroconidia is responsible for infection by which of the following organisms?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Mycoplasma
D) Streptococcus
E) Chlamydophila
E) Blastomyces - soil
29) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Q fever - fleas
B) Psittacosis - parrots
C) Pneumocystis - nosocomial
D) Coccidioides - soil
E) Blastomyces - soil
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
30) A patient has pneumonia. Gram-negative rods are cultured on nutrient agar from a sputum sample. The etiology is
A) Burkholderia pseudomallei.
B) Chlamydophila psittaci.
C) Haemophilus influenzae.
D) Legionella pneumophila.
E) Streptococcus pneumonia.
B) Haemophilus
31) The patient is suffocating because of an inflamed epiglottis. What is the etiology?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) Can't tell
E) Can't tell
32) The patient has a sore throat. What is the etiology?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) Can't tell
A) Corynebacterium
33) The patient is suffocating because of the accumulation of dead tissue and fibrin in her throat. What is the etiology?
A) Corynebacterium
B) Haemophilus
C) Bordetella
D) Mycobacterium
E) Can't tell
A) Blastomyces
34) Infection by which of the following begins in lungs and spreads to skin?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
D) Mycobacterium
35) Which one of the following organisms does NOT belong with the others?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
E) Pneumocystis
36) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows thick-walled cysts. What is the etiology?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
B) Coccidioides
37) Microscopic examination of a lung biopsy shows spherules. What is the etiology?
A) Blastomyces
B) Coccidioides
C) Histoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Pneumocystis
C) Incubating anaerobically.
38) You are trying to identify the cause of a patient's middle ear infection. After 24 hours, there is no growth on blood agar incubated aerobically at 37°C. Your next step is to try again,
A) Using nutrient agar.
B) Incubating at 25°C.
C) Incubating anaerobically.
D) Incubating at 45°C.
E) Then give up.
A) Bordetella
39) A patient has a paroxysmal cough and mucus accumulation. What is the etiology of the symptoms?
A) Bordetella
B) Corynebacterium
C) Klebsiella
D) Mycobacterium
E) Mycoplasma
E) There is insufficient information.
40) A patient who presents with red throat and tonsils can be diagnosed as having
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis.
B) Scarlet fever.
C) Diphtheria.
D) Common cold.
E) There is insufficient information.
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia.
41) A patient has fever, difficulty breathing, chest pains, fluid in the alveoli, and a positive tuberculin skin test. Gram-positive cocci are isolated from the sputum. The patient most likely has
A) Tuberculosis.
B) Influenza.
C) Pneumococcal pneumonia.
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia.
E) Common cold.
C) Tuberculosis
42) Which of the following respiratory infections can be contracted by ingestion?
A) Streptococcal pharyngitis
B) Diphtheria
C) Tuberculosis
D) Mycoplasmal pneumonia
E) Haemophilus pneumonia
B) Coccidioides
43) Which of the following is NOT an intracellular parasite?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Coccidioides
C) Coxiella
D) Influenzavirus
E) RSV
D) Mycoplasma
44) Which one of the following produces small "fried-egg" colonies on medium containing horse serum and yeast extract?
A) Chlamydophila
B) Legionella
C) Mycobacterium
D) Mycoplasma
E) Streptococcus
A) Airborne transmission.
45) Legionella is transmitted by
A) Airborne transmission.
B) Foodborne transmission.
C) Person-to-person contact.
D) Fomites.
E) Vectors.
D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.
1) Which of the following statements about sepsis is false?
A) Symptoms include fever and decreased blood pressure.
B) Lymphangitis may occur.
C) Symptoms are due to bacterial endotoxin.
D) It usually is caused by gram-positive bacteria.
E) It may be aggravated by antibiotics.
D) Puerperal sepsis - Staphylococcus aureus
2) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Subacute bacterial endocarditis - alpha-hemolytic streptococci
B) Acute bacterial endocarditis - Staphylococcus aureus
C) Pericarditis - Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Puerperal sepsis - Staphylococcus aureus
E) Burkitt's lymphoma - EB virus
E) Streptobacillus
3) Which of the following grows outside host cells?
A) Ehrlichia
B) Brucella
C) Rickettsia
D) Bartonella
E) Streptobacillus
B) Tularemia
4) Which of the following is NOT treated with penicillin?
A) Pericarditis
B) Tularemia
C) Anthrax
D) Listeriosis
E) Rat-bite fever
E) It occurs only in California.
5) Which of the following statements about tularemia is false?
A) It is caused by Francisella tularensis.
B) The reservoir is rabbits.
C) It may be transmitted by arthropods.
D) It may be transmitted by direct contact.
E) It occurs only in California.
C) Undulant fever
6) Which of the following is a symptom of brucellosis?
A) A local infection
B) Relapsing fever
C) Undulant fever
D) Pneumonia
E) Jaundice
A) Toxoplasmosis
7) Which of the following is NOT transmitted in raw milk?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Anthrax
C) Brucellosis
D) Listeriosis
E) All of the above can be transmitted in raw milk.
E) Produces endotoxins
8) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Bacillus anthracis?
A) Aerobic
B) Gram-positive
C) Forms endospores
D) Found in soil
E) Produces endotoxins
E) Anaerobic environment
9) The symptoms of gas gangrene are due to all of the following EXCEPT
A) Microbial fermentation.
B) Necrotizing exotoxins.
C) Proteolytic enzymes.
D) Hyaluronidase.
E) Anaerobic environment.
B) Streptobacillus
10) Which of the following bacterial infections CANNOT be transmitted by dog or cat bites?
A) Pasteurella multocida
B) Streptobacillus
C) Bacteroides
D) Fusobacterium
E) All of the above can be transmitted by dog or cat bites.
E) Encephalitis - Ixodes (tick)
11) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Malaria - Anopheles (mosquito)
B) Dengue - Aedes (mosquito)
C) Epidemic typhus - Pediculus (louse)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever - Dermacentor (tick)
E) Encephalitis - Ixodes (tick)
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever
12) Unsanitary and crowded conditions increase the incidence of all of the following diseases EXCEPT
A) Plague.
B) Epidemic typhus.
C) Endemic murine typhus.
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
E) Relapsing fever.
D) It is a severe illness in adults.
13) Which of the following statements about toxoplasmosis is false?
A) It is caused by a protozoan.
B) The reservoir is cats.
C) It is transmitted by the gastrointestinal route.
D) It is a severe illness in adults.
E) It can be congenital.
D) Diagnosis - serological tests for antibodies
14) Which of the following pairs does NOT apply to Chagas' disease?
A) Causative agent - T. cruzi
B) Vector - kissing bug
C) Reservoir - rodents
D) Diagnosis - serological tests for antibodies
E) Treatment - Nifurtimox
C) Malaria
15) Which of the following is NOT caused by a bacterium?
A) Epidemic typhus
B) Tickborne typhus
C) Malaria
D) Plague
E) Relapsing fever
A) Anti-inflammatory drugs.
16) A patient presents with inflammation of the heart valves, fever, malaise, and subcutaneous nodules at joints. The recommended treatment is
A) Anti-inflammatory drugs.
B) Streptomycin.
C) Chloroquine.
D) Hyperbaric chamber.
E) Praziquantel.
A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
17) Which of the following statements about puerperal sepsis is false?
A) It is transmitted from mother to fetus.
B) It is caused by health care personnel.
C) It begins as a focal infection.
D) It is a complication of abortion or childbirth.
E) It doesn't occur anymore because of antibiotics and aseptic techniques.
D) It is caused by a roundworm.
18) Which of the following statements about schistosomiasis is false?
A) The cercariae penetrate human skin.
B) A parasite of birds causes swimmer's itch in humans.
C) The intermediate host is an aquatic snail.
D) It is caused by a roundworm.
E) The female worm is attached to the male.
D) It is cured with penicillin.
19) Which of the following statements about rheumatic fever is false?
A) It is a complication of a group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection.
B) It is an inflammation of the heart.
C) It is an inflammation of the joints.
D) It is cured with penicillin.
E) The incidence has declined in the last 10 years.
C) Francisella - gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods
20) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Rickettsia - intracellular parasite
B) Brucella - gram-negative aerobic rods
C) Francisella - gram-positive facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic rods
D) Bacillus - gram-positive endospore-forming rods
E) None of the above
B) Cytomegalovirus
21) Which of the following can be transmitted from an infected mother to her fetus across the placenta?
A) Borrelia
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) Toxoplasma
E) Yersinia
D) Pasteurella - cat-scratch disease
22) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Borrelia - relapsing fever
B) Yersinia - plague
C) Streptobacillus - rat-bite fever
D) Pasteurella - cat-scratch disease
E) Spirillum - rat-bite fever
C) Leishmaniasis.
23) A patient has the following symptoms: a papule, enlarged lymph nodes. Microscopic examination of the papule reveals nucleated cells in white blood cells. The patient most likely has
A) Anthrax.
B) Brucellosis.
C) Leishmaniasis.
D) Malaria.
E) Schistosomiasis.
C) The respiratory route.
24) Human-to-human transmission of plague is usually by
A) Rat flea.
B) Dog flea.
C) The respiratory route.
D) Wounds.
E) Unsanitary conditions.
B) Bruises on the skin.
25) A characteristic symptom of plague is
A) Small red spots on the skin.
B) Bruises on the skin.
C) Rose-colored spots.
D) Recurrent fever.
E) Nausea and vomiting.
E) Treatment - antibiotics
26) Which of the following pairs regarding the epidemiology of malaria is mismatched?
A) Vector - Anopheles
B) Etiology - Plasmodium
C) Found in liver - sporozoites
D) Diagnosis - presence of merozoites
E) Treatment - antibiotics
A) Gangrene.
27) A predisposing factor for infection by Clostridium perfringens is
A) Gangrene.
B) Burns.
C) Debridement.
D) Hyperbaric treatment.
E) An infected finger.
A) Puerperal sepsis
28) Which of the following is NOT a zoonosis?
A) Puerperal sepsis
B) Hantavirus infection
C) Anthrax
D) Brucellosis
E) Tularemia
B) Brucellosis
29) Arthropods can serve as a reservoir for which of the following diseases?
A) Plague
B) Brucellosis
C) Epidemic typhus
D) Yellow fever
E) Malaria
A) Cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia
30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) Cat-scratch disease - malignant pustule developing into septicemia
B) Brucellosis - a temperature of 40°C each evening
C) Tularemia - a localized infection appearing as a small ulcer
D) Borrelia - rash and flulike
E) Toxoplasmosis - congenital brain damage
C) Chagas' disease
31) Which of the following CANNOT be transmitted to humans from domestic cats?
A) Toxoplasmosis
B) Plague
C) Chagas' disease
D) Bartonella
E) None of these diseases is transmitted by cats.
A) Vector
32) Which of the following is the same for both relapsing fever and undulant fever?
A) Vector
B) Mode of transmission
C) Presence of rash
D) Reservoir
E) Etiology
D) Yellow fever
33) Which of the following is NOT treated with antibiotics?
A) Plague
B) Tularemia
C) Lyme disease
D) Yellow fever
E) Anthrax
B) Cytomegalovirus
34) Which of the following produces a permanent carrier state following infection?
A) Borrelia
B) Cytomegalovirus
C) Spirillum
D) Toxoplasma
E) Yersinia
A) Endocarditis.
35) EB virus has been implicated in all of the following EXCEPT
A) Endocarditis.
B) Infectious mononucleosis.
C) Burkitt's lymphoma.
D) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma.
E) Hodgkin's disease.
D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells
36) Which of the following leads to all the others?
A) Subcutaneous hemorrhaging
B) Presence of antirickettsial antibodies
C) Blockage of capillaries
D) Bacterial growth in endothelial cells
E) Breakage of capillaries
B) Dengue
37) A patient complains of fever, severe muscle and joint pain, and a rash. The patient reports returning from a Caribbean vacation one week ago. Which one of the following do you suspect?
A) Bolivian hemorrhagic fever
B) Dengue
C) Hantavirus hemorrhagic fever
D) Typhus
E) Yellow fever
E) Ehrlichia - gram-positive
38) Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched for Gram reaction?
A) Lyme disease - gram-negative
B) Tularemia - gram-negative
C) Anthrax - gram-positive
D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever - gram-negative
E) Ehrlichia - gram-positive
D) Swimmer's itch.
39) Scrapings from a patient's rash reveal cercariae. The disease is most likely
A) Lyme disease.
B) Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
C) Relapsing fever.
D) Swimmer's itch.
E) Chagas' disease.
C) She could get toxoplasmosis
40) You advise your pregnant friend to give her cat away because
A) She could contract plague.
B) She could give the cat tularemia.
C) She could get toxoplasmosis.
D) She could get listeriosis.
E) You don't like cats and want to see your friend without one.
A) Treatable with penicillin
41) Which of the following is evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut, was due to bacterial infection?
A) Treatable with penicillin
B) Not contagious
C) Accompanied by a rash
D) Affected mostly children
E) Transmitted by ticks
D) Toxoplasmosis
42) Which of the following is NOT controlled by a mosquito eradication program?
A) Chikungunya fever
B) Yellow fever
C) Dengue
D) Toxoplasmosis
E) Malaria
B) Mefloquine
43) A 62-year-old man was hospitalized with an 8-day history of fever, chills, sweats, and vomiting. His temperature on admission was 40°C. A routine peripheral blood smear revealed ring-shaped bodies in the RBCs. What treatment would you prescribe?
A) Hyperbaric oxygen
B) Mefloquine
C) No treatment
D) Penicillin
E) Streptomycin
C) They cause strep throat.
44) Which of the following statements about group B streptococci is false?
A) They are present in healthy carriers.
B) They cause gram-positive sepsis.
C) They cause strep throat.
D) They cause neonatal sepsis.
E) They are classified as Str. agalactiae.
E) Have been used for centuries.
45) Bioweapons
A) Are all respiratory pathogens.
B) Are not susceptible to antibiotics.
C) Are all viruses.
D) Are impossible to detect.
E) Have been used for centuries.
Which organism produces a toxin that causes scalded skin syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Fever, vomiting, and a sunburn-like rash are symptoms of
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis is a condition associated with
Measles
Which one of the following dissolves blood clots?
Streptokinase
Which organism often grows in dense biofilms and frequently causes nosocomial infections by colonizing medical tubes or devices?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Which organism is widespread in tropical Africa and related to the organisms that cause tuberculosis and leprosy?
Mycobacterium ulcerans
Koplik's spots are diagnostic for
Measles
Which one of the following is an occasional severe complication of chickenpox?
Reye's Syndrome
Which one of the following diseases is caused by the reactivation of a latent virus?
Shingles
Which one of the following is responsible for severe birth defects if contracted during pregnancy?
Rubella
The disease thrush is caused by
Candida albicans
Athlete's foot is also known as tinea
Pedis
The head louse and body louse both are of the genus
Pediculus
Which disease was probably the first documented connection between a microscopic organism and a disease in humans?
Scabies
Using a homemade saline solution for contact lenses can result in
Acanthamoeba keratitis
Ophthalmia neonatorum is caused by
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Trachoma is caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis
Which disease is thought to be the most common cause of infectious blindness in the United States?
Herpetic keratitis
What is the most common bacterial cause of conjunctivitis?
Haemophilus influenzae
In the brain, cerebrospinal fluid flows through the
Subarachnoid space
Inflammation of the brain is called
Encephalitis
Drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier only if they are
Lipid-soluble
Bacteria can grow well in cerebrospinal fluid because it has low levels of circulating antibodies and
Complement
Which type of meningitis is also a frequent cause of pneumonia?
Pneumococcal meningitis
The symptoms of tetanus are caused by a(n)
Neurotoxin
Which bacterium is known to cause stillbirth and neurological disease in animals?
Listeria monocytogenes
Which one of the following would be a symptom of botulism?
Flaccid paralysis
Trypanosoma brucei is transmitted by
Tsetse flies
Which organism is highly fatal in immunocompromised patients and is transmitted by the inhalation of dried bird droppings?
Cryptococcus neoforms
Trypanosomiasis is also known as
Sleeping sickness
Which organism is widespread in freshwater and feeds on brain tissue?
Naegleria fowleri
Granulomatous amebic encephalitis is caused by
Acanthamoeba
Which one of the following diseases is caused by a prion?
A.Rabies
B.Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
C.Polio
D.Wound botulism
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
A prion is a(n)
Abnormally folded protein
The prion disease associated with cannibalism is
Kuru
One hypothesis on the origin of mad cow disease in cattle concerns
Cattle feed contaminated with scrapie
Which disease has an incubation period that is usually long enough to allow immunity to develop from postexposure vaccination?
Rabies
Which disease is transmitted via ingestion of contaminated water and can cause paralysis?
Polio
Which type of arboviral encephalitis was introduced to the United States in 1999 and is maintained in a bird-mosquito-bird cycle?
West Nile virus
In the United States, the most common cause of rabies in humans is from
Silver-haired bats
The Sabin polio vaccine is a(n)
Attenuated vaccine
The causative agent of plague is
Yersinia pestis
The causative agent of cat-scratch disease is
Bartonella henselae
Clostridium perfringens is the cause of
Gas gangrene
Which organism can often be transmitted by the bite of a domestic animal and causes sepsis?
Pasteurella multocida
Brucellosis is also known as ________ fever.
Undulant
A bull's-eye rash is a common symptom of which disease?
Lyme disease
Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune complication caused by a ________ infection.
Streptococcus pyogenes
Infections of Bacillus anthracis are initiated by
Endospores
Which organism causes a disease known as rabbit fever?
Francisella tularenis
Typhus fever, caused by Rickettsia prowazekii, is transmitted by
Human body lice
The usual vector for human monocytotropic ehrlichiosis is the
Lone Star tick
What organism is the MOST important reservoir for Borrelia burgdorferi?
Field mouse
What is the usual route of transmission for mononucleosis?
Transfer of saliva
Which virus forms "owl's eyes" in an infected cell?
Cytomegalovirus
The natural host reservoir for Ebola virus is the
Fruit bat
Which virus is the cause of Burkitt's lymphoma?
Epstein-Barr virus
Climate change is increasing the distribution of which of the following diseases?
Chikungunya fever
Cats are an essential part of the life cycle of
Taxoplasma gondii
________ are essential for one stage of the Schistosoma life cycle.
Snails
The most dangerous form of malaria is caused by
Plasmodium falciparum
Which stage of the Plasmodium protozoan infects the red blood cells of humans to cause malaria?
Merozoite
Which type of leishmaniasis is an important opportunistic infection associated with HIV?
Visceral
The reduviid bug carries Trypanosoma cruzi, which is the cause of
Chagas disease
Which one of the following is NOT transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes?
A.Malaria
B.Yellow fever virus
C.Dengue fever virus
D.Chikungunya virus
Malaria
Which antibodies in tears, saliva, and mucus help protect mucosal surfaces from many pathogens?
IgA
The most threatening infectious disease of the upper respiratory tract is
Epiglottitis
Which disease is caused by the erythrogenic toxin produced by Streptococcus pyogenes (which is lysogenized by a bacteriophage)?
Scarlet fever
The formation of a tough grayish membrane in the throat is a characteristic of which one of the following diseases?
Diptheria
What is the etiological agent for the disease that has catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescence stages?
Bordatella pertussis
The mycolic acids of the cell wall are an important factor in the pathogenicity of the organisms that cause
Tuberculosis
Walking pneumonia is caused by
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Which of the following is/are NOT considered a part of the lower respiratory system?
A.Trachea
B.Larynx
C.Pharynx
D.Bronchial tubes
Pharynx
Which intracellular bacterium is the cause of Q fever?
Coxiella burnetii
Which disease can be identified by the presence of elementary bodies inside host cells?
Psittacosis
Typical pneumonia is caused by which bacterium?
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of tuberculosis?
A.Infections result in 2 million deaths annually.
B.Calcified lesions form in the lungs.
C.The disease was once known as consumption.
D.It is not transmitted person-to-person.
It is not transmitted person-to-person
Which of the following is the cause of melioidosis?
Burkholderia pseudomallei
In influenza viruses, minor annual variations in the antigenic makeup caused by mutations are called
Antigenic drift
Which virus infects virtually all children by age 2?
Respiratory syncytial virus
Currently, the influenza viruses used for manufacturing vaccines are grown in
Egg embryos
________ allow(s) the influenza virus to recognize and attach to body cells before infecting them.
HA spikes
Several serious fungal infections affect the lower respiratory system mainly because fungi
Produce airborne spores
In which of these diseases do bird droppings provide nutrients, especially nitrogen, to the fungus?
Histoplasmosis
Which fungus commonly causes cutaneous ulcers and can cause extensive abscess formation and tissue destruction?
Blastomyces dermatitidis
In Pneumocystis pneumonia, the rupture of a cyst results in the development of
Trophozoites
Which of the following is an accessory structure of the digestive tract?
A.Pharynx
B.Stomach
C.Liver
Mouth
Liver
The population of microorganisms in the large intestine is composed mostly of
Anaerobes and facultative anaerobes
Severe diarrhea accompanied by blood or mucus is called
Dysentry
When microbes are allowed to incubate in food, the situation is called
Temperature abuse
Bacillary dysentery is caused by
Shigella
Chronic carriers of Salmonella typhi harbor the pathogen in the
Gallbladder
Which organism produces a toxin that causes the host cells to secrete water and electrolytes, especially potassium?
Vibrio cholerae
In 20-40% of men past puberty, the mumps virus can cause
Orchitis (swelling of testes)
Hepatitis A is transmitted via which one of the following methods?
The fecal-oral route
Which form of hepatitis kills more people in the United States than AIDS?
Hepatitis C
Which form of hepatitis can lead to fulminant hepatitis in its acute form?
Hepatitis B
The treatment for viral gastroenteritis, caused by pathogens such as norovirus or rotavirus, is usually
Oral rehydration
Which organism produces oocysts that release sporozoites into the intestine and is life-threatening in AIDS patients?
Cryptosporidium parvum
Ergot poisoning is caused by
Claviceps purpurea
It is quite common to ingest trace amounts of aflatoxins when one eats
Peanuts
Which organism is a flagellated protozoan that has a flat ventral side and is able to attach firmly to a human's intestinal wall?
Giardia lamblia
What organism produces cysts that contaminate food and water and cause amebic dysentery?
Entamoeba histolytica
What is the etiological agent of hydatid disease?
Echinococcus granulosus
The portal of entry for the larvae of hookworms is the
Skin
Pinworm disease is caused by
Enterobius vermicularis
In what disease do the larvae cause pulmonary symptoms?
Ascariasis
Which form of hepatitis progresses to chronic hepatitis in up to 85% of cases?
Hepatitis C
Urine has some antimicrobial effects because of its
Flushing action
What are the predominant bacteria in the vagina?
Lactobacilli
During pregnancy and menopause, the rate of urinary tract infections increases because of
Decreased estrogen
Cystitis is an infection of the
Urinary bladder
Most infections of the urinary tract are caused by
Escherichia coli
75% of healthcare-associated urinary tract infections are associated with
Urinary catheters
Which one of the following can form scar tissue in kidneys and severely impair kidney function?
Pyelonephritis
Animals infected with Leptospira interrogans shed this organism in their
Urine
One of the most common reportable, or notifiable, communicable diseases in the United States is
Gonorrhea
The causative agent of syphilis is
Treponema pallidum
Chlamydia trachomatis causes
Lymphogranuloma venereum
The most serious form of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) causes
Salpingitis
In what stage of syphilis do gummas develop?
Teritary
Which virus can cross the placenta and affect the fetus, causing spontaneous abortion or serious fetal damage?
HSV
HPV infection is linked to what type of cancer?
Cervial cancer
An available quadrivalent or nine-valent vaccine protects against infection by
HPV
Visible genital warts are caused by HPV serotypes
6 and 11
The diagnosis of which one of the following diseases is based on the presence of clue cells?
Bacterial vaginosis
In addition to vulvovaginal candidiasis, Candida albicans can also cause
Thrush
Nongonococcal urethritis is most commonly caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis
Women suffering from uncontrolled diabetes often experience infections from which of the following?
Candida albicans
The only protozoan that causes an STI that affects mostly women is
Trichomonas vaginalis
Epidermis
-Outer layer of skin; composed of tightly packed epithelial cells
-Contain keratin a waterproofing protein.
Dermis
Inner, thick layer of skin composed of connective tissue.
Functions of the skin
-Perspiration provides moisture and nutrients of growth.
-Contains salt that inhibits microorganisms: Lysozyme, antimicrobial peptides, & sebum
mucous membrane
-Line body cavities open to the exterior
-Cells secrete mucus & some have cilia
-Often acidic
-Folded to maximize surface area
normal microbiota
-Resistant to drying and high salt concentration.
-Gram-Positive: Staphylococci, Micrococci.
-Moist areas such as the armpit contains large amounts which contributes to sweat and body odor.
Cutibacterium (Propionibacterium)
-Acnes inhabits hair follicles.
-Anaerobic
-Prod. acids that maintain low skin pH
Corynebacterium Xerosis
-occupy the skin surface; aerobic
Yeast (Malassezia furfur)
-Causes dandruff
-Hint: FUR can have this
Systemic diseases affecting internal organs.
Rashes and Lesions are caused by...
Vesicles
small, fluid-filled lesions (1cm)
Bullae
vesicles larger than 1 cm in diameter
Macules
flat, reddened lesions
Papules
raised lesions
Pustules
-raised lesions containing pus
-inflammatory acne
Exanthem
-skin rash arising from a disease
-Hint: EX=outside the body
Enanthem
-rash on mucous membranes arising from a disease
-Hint: EN= inside the body
Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Pseudomonads
-The 3 categories of bacterial skin diseases.
Staphylococci
-Gram-positive bacteria that form irregular clusters
- Prod. Coagulase (enzymes that clots fibrin in the blood)
Staphylococcus epidermidis
-90% of normal skin microbiota
-Healthcare-associated pathogen
-Prod. biofilm on catheters
-Coagulase Negative (outside of body; no blood source)
-Hint: Epidermis= outer skin
Staphylococcus Aureus
-Most pathogenic of the staphylococci
-Nasal passages of 20% of the population
-Golden-yellow colonies (boogers & mucus)
-Prod. damaging toxins and cause sepsis
-Highly resistant
How does staphylococcus aureus avoid host defenses in the skin
Secretes proteins and toxins that kill phagocytic cells
Secretes protein that blocks chemotaxis of neutrophils
Resistant to opsonization
Epidermis/Aureus
The 2 sub-categories of staphylococcus
Folliiculitis
infections of the hair follicle
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Sty
Folliculitis of an eyelash
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Furuncle (boil)
a type of abscess; localized region of pus surrounded by inflamed tissue
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Carbuncle
damage and inflammation of deep tissue from a SPREADING FURUNCLE
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Hint: Cars help us travel to different locations
Impetigo
crusting (nonbullous) sores, spread by autoinoculation
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Impetigo isolated pustules also caused by
Streptococcus pyogenes
Scalded skin syndrome
-Toxin B FROM ANOTHER staphylococcal exotoxin causes exfoliation
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Bullous Impetigo
-Exfoliative Toxin A (exotoxin)
-LOCALIZED form of scalded skin syndrome
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Pemphigus Neonatorum
-Impetigo of the newborn
-Hint: Neonatal= infant
(Staphylococcal Aureus Skin Infection)
Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
-Fever, vomiting, shock, and organ failure caused by TSST-1 in the bloodstream
-Maybe caused by superantigenic properties.
Streptococcal Infections
-Gram-positive cocci in chains
-Prod. Hemolysins that lyse RBC: alpha, beta, and gamma hemolytic
-Beta hemolytic often cause disease
Streptococci differentiate into serological groups ______ through ____ on _____
A through T on antigenic cell wall carbohydrates
Group A streptococci (GAS)
-AKA. Streptococcus Pyogenes
-Prod. virulence factors: Streptolysins, M proteins, Hyaluronidase, Streptokinases, and Deoxyribonucleases
Streptolysins
lyse RBCs-toxic to neutrophils
M proteins
-External to the cell wall
-Allow adherence and immune system avoidance
-Prevents activation of complement system
-Evades phagocytosis and kills neutrophils
Hyaluronidase
dissolves CT
Streptokinases
dissolves blood clots
Deoxyribonucleases
-Degrade DNA
- Hint: D=Deoxyribose
Erysipelas
-Causes local tissue destruction & sepsis
-S. pyogenes infects the dermal layer of skin and causes sore throat, and high fever.
-Treated with Cephalosporin
necrotizing fasciitis
-Flesh-eating disease
-Exotoxin A produced by S. pyogenes acts as a superantigen
-Treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics
Pseudomonads
Survive in moist environments
Pseudomonas Aeruginosa
-Gram negative rod
-Prod. exo- and endotoxins; grow in biofilms
-Cause HAIs
Pseudomonas Dermatitis
Self-limiting rash acquired in swimming pools, saunas, and hot tubs
Otis Externa (Swimmer's Ear)
-Painful infection that travels from external ear canal toward the eardrum
-Opportunistic in 2nd and 3rd degree burn patients
-Relatively resistant to most antibiotics: Quinolones, silver sulfadiazine, etc
Buruli Ulcer
-Caused by Mycobacterium ulcerans. (prod. by mycolactone toxin)
-Enters via break in skin or insect bite
-Causes deep, damaging ulcers and may require amputation.
-Treated with streptomycin-rifampicin combination
Acne
-Most common skin disease in humans
-Skin cells shed in the hair follicles and combine with sebum which cause blockage.
-Sebum formation is affected by hormone levels
-Comedonal (mild) acne: easily treated w/ topical formations
Inflammatory (moderate) acne
- Caused by Propionbacterium acnes
-Metabolizes sebum; fatty acids prod. an inflammatory response
- Treated w/ antibiotics and benzoyl peroxide
Nodular cystic (severe) acne
Inflamed lesions with pus deep in the skin
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