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Bio Final previous test questions

Terms in this set (133)

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
a. The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
b. Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
c. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials
d. Action potentials would lock a depolarization phase
e. None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function
c. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials
The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.
1. Sodium channels are inactivated.
2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating repolarization.
3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties.
4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold.
5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.
6. Sodium channel activation occurs.
7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs.
What is the proper sequence of these events?
4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to _____________.
a. parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
b. calcitriol; more urinary phosphate excretion
c. calcitonin; more urinary phosphate reabsorption
d. thyroid hormone; less urinary excretion
e. growth hormone; increased osteoblast activity
a. parathyroid hormone; increased osteoclast activity
The __________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
a. sensory division of the peripheral
b. automatic
c. special sensory
d. autonomic
e. somatic
d. autonomic
Which of the following cells has a membrane potential?
a. Neurons
b. Muscle cells
c. Epithelial cells
d. Only A and B
e. all of the above
e.All of the above (all cells have a membrane potential)
A forensic scientist has found a skeleton and determined it belonged to an adult who was no longer growing. What evidence did she use to determine this?
a. the large number of bones
b. the size of the bones and the lack of epiphyseal plate
c. the number of breaks in the bone because adult bone is fragile
d. a-c
e. not much can be told from the bone to determine age
b. the size of the bones and the lack of epiphyseal plate
When a second EPSP arrives at a single synapse before the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?
a. temporal summation
b. decrease in speed of impulse transmission
c. spatial summation
d. inhibition of the impulse
e. hyperpolarization
a. Temporal summation
Lidocaine works by blocking voltage-gated sodium channels. Which of the following best describes the reason we lose feelings in the area it is injected?
a. sensory neurons are unable to release neurotransmitter
b. sensory neurons are not able to send action potentials
c. sensory neurons are unable to make neurotransmitter
d. sensory neurons are destroyed, but regenerate which allows us to get feeling back
e. graded potentials can no longer occur on sensory neurons
b. sensory neurons are not able to send action potentials
Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes?
a. dorsiflexion
b. eversion
c. inversion
d. plantar flexion
e. rotation
d. plantar flexion
Many gyms feature weightlifting machines called "adductor machines" that are used to strengthen the thighs. If you were to work out on one of these, what would you be doing?
a. pulling both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together
b. lifting both thighs upward
c. pushing both thighs outward, separating your knees as far as you can
d. twisting both thighs to the left, then to the right
e. none of the answers are correct
a. pulling both thighs inward toward a center point, bringing your knees together
Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands.
a. merocrine sweat
b. mammary
c. sebaceous
d. apocrine sweat
e. ceruminous
c. sebaceous
The hardness of bone comes from __________, whereas __________ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.
a. collagen and elastic fibers; minerals
b. proteins; collagen
c. glycoproteins; proteoglycans
d. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; collagen
e. calcium carbonate; calcium phosphate
d. hydroxyapatite and other minerals; collagen
The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification.
1. Enlarged chondrocytes die.
2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.
3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.
4. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium.
5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a thin shell of bone.

What is the correct order for these events?
3, 1, 5, 4, 2
intramembranous ossification produces the _________
a. irregular bones of the vertebrae
b. flat bones of the skull
c. short bones of the ankle
d. long bones of the limbs
e. short bones of the wrist
b. flat bones of the skull
When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________.
a. osteoblasts; osteoclasts
b. osteocytes; osteoclasts
c. osteoblasts; osteocytes
d. osteocytes; osteoblasts
e. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
c. osteoblats; osteocytes
Which of the following is NOT a function of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
a. stimulate osteoclast activity
b. inhibit osteoblast activity
c. promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys
d. promote calcitriol synthesis
e. lower blood calcium
e. lower blood calcium
The relative intracellular and extracellular concentrations of which ion have the largest impact on the resting membrane potential of most neurons
a. magnesium
b. calcium
c. sodium
d. potassium
e. chloride
d. potassium
When playing with friends, 9-year old Julie jumps off the roof of her house on a dare. She seems ok at first but shortly thereafter, she experiences a great deal of pain (although her mobility is surprisingly good) and her mother takes her to the hospital. An x-ray of her right led reveals that the epiphysial plate in her distal right femur has been completely compressed, but that the bony tissue is intact. Julie's mom does not understand the doctors concern over her injury. After all, Julie has not broken a bone and aside from the pain and swelling, is still able to move it fairly well.
Why was the doctor concerned?
a. damage to the plate could compromise Julie's ability ton produce bone cells
b. damage to the plate could mean that Julie will develop arthritis early in life
c. damage to the plate could lead to early osteoporosis
d. damage to the plate could compromise the bone's capacity to grow in length
e. damage to the plate could compromise the bone's capacity to grow in width
d. Damage to the plate could compromise the bone's capacity to grow in length
Which of the following cells are the most abundant cells in the epidermis
a. keratinocytes
b. melanocytes
c. adipose
d. fibroblasts
e. dendritic cells
a. keratinocytes
The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification:
1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.
2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue.
3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.
4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.
Which is the correct order for these events?
4, 2, 1, 3
In _______ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter
a. extrastitial
b. interstitial
c. appositional
d. intercellular
e. extracellular
c. appositional
If you were able to remove all of the calcium portion of a bone by immersing it in vinegar, which of the following would you expect?
a. the bone would become rigid and inflexible
b. the bone would become extremely flexible
c. the bone would disintegrate completely
d. the bone would begin remodeling
e. nothing would happen
b. The bone would become extremely flexible
Unlike cartilage, bone
a. is highly vascular
b. has an outer covering
c. is a connective tissue
d. has cells within lacunae
e. has a matrix that contains collagen
a. is highly vascular
If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases,
a. the membrane potential will hyperpolarize
b. outward movement of sodium ions will decrease
c. inward movement of sodium ions will increase
d. the membrane potential will depolarize
e. both the inward movement of sodium ions will increase and the membrane potential will depolarize
e. both the inward movement of sodium ions will increase and the membrane potential will depolarize
What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
a. compact bone
b. yellow bone marrow
c. red bone marrow
d. periosteum
e. hemopoietic tissue
b. Yellow bone marrow
The position of melanocytes in _________ and their proximity to ________ make it possible for them to have both high mitotic rates and easy transport to other body regions when they become cancerous
a. stratum granulosum; reticular layer
b. papillary layer; reticular layer
c. stratum basale; papillary layer
d. stratum cornea; hypodermis
e. dermis; epidermis
c. stratum basale; papillary layer
A suture is an example of a(n)
a. symphysis
b. diarthrosis
c. amphiarthrosis
d. syndesmosis
e. synarthrosis
e. synarthrosis
Many medications introduced into the bloodstream cannot directly affect the neurons of the CNS because
a. Schwann cells form a capsule around neurons
b. the neurilemma is impermeable to most molecules
c. oligodendrocytes from a continuous myelin sheath around the axons
d. the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier
e. ependymal cells restrict the flow of interstitial fluid between the capillaries and the neurons
d. the astrocytes isolate the CNS by forming a blood-brain barrier
The lack of gravity present at the space station means that the bones of astronauts spending long periods of time there could
a. cause their bones to become longer
b. cause their bones to become thicker
c. result in bones becoming porous and weak
d. have bones that have lost their medullary cavities
e. have bones that store more calcium
c. result in the bone becoming porous and weak
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that originates in the hematopoetic bone marrow interfering with production of all types of blood cells. Presence of the cancer causes osteoclast activity to significantly increase. Which of the following symptoms would you expect a patient to present with?
a. joint pain
b. cartilage degradation
c. bone spurs
d. bursitis
e. weak and breaking bones
e. weak and breaking bones
Based on the information in the question above, what disturbance would likely result?
a. lower blood glucose
b. elevated blood calcium
c. increased blood pressure
d. altered vitamin D production
e. lowered blood phosphate
b. elevated blood calcium
The term 'afferent' can be applied to neurons in the _______ nervous system
a. motor
b. sensory
c. parasympathetic
d. central
e. sympathetic
b. sensory
While grading the seemingly endless pile of lab practicals and lecture exams, Dr. Reimers got a papercut. The physical pain was amplified by his fragile emotional state but to his surprise he did not bleed all over the exams and practicals. Which most accurately describes which layers of the skin were cut.
a. only the epidermis was cut
b. only living cells were cut
c. only the vascular layer was cut
d. the dermis was cut first then the epidermis
e. all layers were cut, he was just lucky not to bleed
a. only the epidermis was cut
In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?
a. the cells of the epidermis store glycogen for the body to use as energy
b. It produces blood cells that the body needs
c. It serves as a major site for thermoregulation
d. It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body
e. It serves as the control center for homeostatic balance
c. It serves as a major site for thermoregulation
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is one of the major knee joint ligaments in humans and damage to this ligament is fairly common. An ACL tear is most often a sports-related injury but can also result from accidents, falls, and work-related injuries. Unlike muscle injuries, ligament tears take a long time to heal due to the nature of the tissue. Which of the following best describes the type of tissue that forms ligaments and why it takes so long to heal?
a. areolar connective tissue; low vascularity
b. dense regular connective tissue; low vascularity
c. elastic cartilage; high innervation
d. fibrocartilage; high vascularity
e. dense irregular connective tissue; low innervation
b. dense regular connective tissue; low vascularity
Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
a. testosterone
b. parathyroid hormone
c. calcitonin
d. thyroid hormone
e. growth hormone
c. calcitonin
Wolff's law, which explains the relationship of stress and bone size, can explain which of the following observations?
a. long bones are thickest midway along the diaphysis
b. the bones of weightlifters often have larger than average tuberosities
c. Right-handed people often have thicker bones in their right arms as compared to the left
d. a and c
e. all of the above
e. All of the above
Which area of the graph shows when graded depolarization is occurring?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. 1
When is the neuron in the relative refractory period?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
d. 4
Which area of the graph occurs when sodium channels become inactivated?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
c. 3
Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called
a. bursae
b. articular cartilage
c. fat pads
d. scapulae
e. menisci
a. bursae
A long bone is covered externally with a sheath called the _________, whereas the marrow cavity is lined with the _________.
a. epiphysis; diaphysis
b. compact bone; spongy bone
c. periosteum; endosteum
d. endosteum; periosteum
e. diaphysis; epiphysis
c. periosteum; endosteum
In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with
a. glucose
b. water, causing decomposition
c. hydrogen, causing decomposition
d. carbon, causing decomposition
e. water causing synthesis
b. water, causing decomposition
Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none. This suggests that
a. cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply
b. cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short lived
c. some cells are older than others
d. cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand
e. cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a higher energy demand
e. cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand
The skin swells and puckers during a long bath. This suggests that bath water is a(n) ________ fluid.
a. isotonic
b. hypertonic
c. toxic
d. diffusion
e. hypotonic
e. hypotonic
If this type of epithelial cell junction is damaged, substances will be allowed to leak between cells and may compromise the tissue.
a. tight junction
b. loose junction
c. hemidesmosome
d. gap junction
a. tight junction
When activated, lysosomes function in
a. digestion of foreign material
b. synthesis of lipids
c. formation of new cell membrane
d. cell division
e. synthesis of proteins
a. digestion of foreign material
When blood volume drops, receptors in the body sense change and the hormone ADH is released. Based only on the information given in this question, which of the following statements about ADH is mostly likely to be true?
a. ADH decreases blood volume
b. ADH increases blood glucose levels
c. ADH increases urine output
d. The main function of ADH is to help maintain a constant body temperature
e. ADH increases blood volume
e. ADH increases blood volume
Fibroblasts are found in _________?
a. spongy bone
b. blood
c. hyaline cartilage
d. fibrocartilage
e. areolar tissue
e. Areolar tissue
Which of the following is not a cation?
a. K+
b. Cl-
c. Ca2+
d. Mg2+
b. Cl-
A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?
a. dense regular
b. dense irregular
c. fibrocartilage
d. hyaline
e. elastic
c. fibrocartilage
Ribosomes are composed of protein and
a. DNA
b. rRNA
c. tRNA
d. mDNA
e. mRNA
b. rRNA
The nurse charted: "Patient has an open wound located on the anterior aspect of leg, just medial to the patella. which of the following best describes where the wound is located.
a. the wound is located on the front of the leg above the knee cap
b. there is no way to know
c. the wound is located on the back of the leg on the outer side
d. the wound is located on the front and inside part of the leg next to the knee cap
e. the wound is located on the back of the leg next to the ankle
d. The wound is located on the front and inside part of the leg next to the knee cap
The process of forming mRNA is called
a. transcription
b. translation
c. replication
d. cell division
e. auscultation
a. transcription
Endocytosis is a
a. method for metabolizing within the cytosol
b. method for packaging secretions
c. form of anabolism
d. viral infection
e. method for transporting substances into the cell
e. method for transporting substances into the cell
Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal breathing. Under these circumstances,
a. less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood in the lungs
b. more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs
c. the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged
d. less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs
e. more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood in the lungs
b. more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood in the lungs
A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus. Thus, it
a. can repair itself readily
b. can only divide once more
c. is malformed
d. will be a long lived cell
e. cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months
e. cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.
A chemical imbalance in the blood can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that
a. chemical molecules make up cells
b. all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
c. blood has magical properties
d. congenital defect can be life-threatening
e. all organisms are composed of cells
b. all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent
The cytoplasm contains the fluid _______ and the suspended _________
a. plasma membrane; cytosol
b. cytosol; organelles
c. bilayer; organelles
d. bilayer; cytosol
e. cytoplasm; organelles
b. cytosol; organelles
mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.
a. proteins
b. phospholipids
c. carbohydrates
d. lipids
e. ATP
a. proteins
________ is a very robust epithelial tissue type which is capable of resisting abrasion
a. pseudo stratified columnar
b. bone
c. stratified squamous
d. simple squamous
c. stratified squamous
The reaction N2 + 3 H2 → 2 NH3 is an example of a(n)
a. exchange reaction
b. synthesis reaction
c. decomposition reaction
d. metabolic reaction
e. enzyme reaction
b. synthesis reaction
Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect magnesium to form ions with a charge of
a. +1
b. -2
c. +2
d. -1
e. either +2 or -2
a. +2
Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of
a. hydrophobic compounds
b. electrolytes
c. molecules that will dissociate when placed into water
d. hydrophilic compounds
e. solutes
a. hydrophobic compounds
If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant,
a. the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic
b. the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic
c. the cells will not change
d. the cells will shrink
e. the cells will swell
e. the cells will swell
Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and a(n) _______ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
a. effector; control center; receptor
b. receptor; effector; control center
c. effector; receptor; control center
d. receptor; control center; effector
e. control center; receptor; effector
d. receptor; control center (integrating center); effector
If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback system.
a. negative
b. deficit
c. positive
d. neutral
e. polarized
a. negative
chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be
a. thermonuclear
b. exergonic
c. neutral
d. endergonic
e. activated
b. exergonic
Rapid diffusion of carbon dioxide through the air sacs of the alveoli of the lungs takes place through ________ epithelium
a. simple squamous
b. stratified columnar
c. simple columnar
d. simple cuboidal
a. Simple squamous
During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which as
a. half as many chromosomes as the original cell
b. a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell
c. the same number of chromosomes as the original cell
d. twice as many chromosomes as the original cell
e. a different number of chromosomes than the original cell
c. the same number of chromosomes as the original cell
You would expect a peptide bond to link
a. two nucleotides
b. two amino acids
c. a sugar and a peptide
d. two simple sugars
e. a peptides and a fatty acid
b. two amino acids
The dominant fiber type in most dense connective tissue is
a. elastin
b. actin
c. connectin
d. myosin
e. collagen
e. collagen
Close examination of an organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells is open to the internal cavity of the organ. This tissue is probably
a. connective tissue
b. neural tissue
c. epithelium
d. fat tissue
e. muscle tissue
c. epithelium
32Two similar-sized animal cells are placed in a 0.5% sucrose solution. Cell A shrinks for a while and then stops; cell B continues to shrink for an extended period of time. Which of the following was most likely at the beginning of the experiment?
a. Cell B was more hypotonic to the solution than Cell A
b. cell A was hypertonic to the solution and cell B was hypotonic
c. cell A was more hypotonic to the solution than cell B
d. Cell A and B were isotonic to each other
e. Cell A was hypotonic to the solution, cell B was hypertonic to the solution
a. Cell B was more hypotonic to the solution than Cell A
The thoracic cavity contains the
a. coelom
b. pericardial cavity
c. pericardial and pleural cavity
d. pleural cavities
e. pelvic cavity
c. pericardial and pleural cavities
The transporter GLUT5 is expressed on the apical membrane of intestinal epithelial cells. Since GLUT5 transports the sugar fructose into the cell down its concentration gradient, it does not require the use of ATP. The transport of fructose by GLUT5 is an example of _______
a. active transport
b. facilitated diffusion
c. osmosis
d. exocytosis
b. facilitated diffusion
The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by
a. number of protons
b. outermost electron shell
c. size of the atom
d. mass of the nucleus
e. number of neutrons
b. outermost electron shell
Why must a normal body temperature be maintained in order for chemical reactions to be continued at life-sustaining rates?
a. covalent bonds are only stable at the specific temperature range humans exhibit. They will collapse and polymers will break down into their components otherwise.
b. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too low, chemical reaction will speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function.
c. Body temperature has no effect on the metabolic rate of the body.
d. If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function
d. If body temperature is too low, chemical reactions slow and eventually stop. If body temperature is too high, chemical reactions speed up and body proteins lose their normal shape, resulting in loss of function
The pancreas produces both hormones and digestive enzymes. These are _______ secretions.
a. secretory
b. mucous
c. serous
d. exocrine and endocrine
e. merocrine
e. merocrine
Blood is best classified as connective tissue because _______
a. it is contained in vessels that 'connect' different parts of an organisms body
b. it contains numerous highly visible fibers
c. it contains only one cell type
d. its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix
e. it is found within all the organs of the body
d. its cells are separated from each other by an extracellular matrix
The muscle known as the diaphragm separates the ______ from the ______
a. pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
b. pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
c. thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
d. abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
e. pleural cavity; mediastinum
c. thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
Consider what might happen if you jumped off a 10 meter platform into a diving pool and landed flat on your back. This will not only hurt, but may actually cause physical damage. Which of the following properties of water would you have to thank for that?
a. resistance to cohesions
b. the polar covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen
c. high specific heat
d. the identical changes of hydrogen and oxygen
e. the hydrogen bonds between water molecules
e. the hydrogen bonds between water molecules
Transitional epithelium is found
a. lining the stomach
b. at the surface of the skin
c. lining the ducts that drain sweat glands
d. lining the urinary bladder
e. lining the kidney tubules
d. lining the urinary bladder
The _______ area is proximal to the _______ area
a. brachial, carpal
b. pedal, petellar
c. cephalic, nasal
d. abdominal, lumbar
a. brachial; carpal
When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis
a. a starch is formed
b. a disaccharide is formed
c. two new monosaccharides are formed
d. a polysaccharide is formed
e. all of the answers are correct
b. a disaccharide is formed
The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi apparatus.
1. Material moves from cisterna to cisterna by means of transfer vesicles
2. Exocytosis
3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles
4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the trans face
5. Vesicles arrive at the cis face
6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins
What is the proper order for these steps?
3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2
Gas exchange is to the respiratory system as absorption of nutrients is to the ______ system
a. urinary
b. digestive
c. cardiovascular
d. lymphatic
e. urinary and cardiovascular
b. digestive
Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells?
a. protein hormones
b. antibodies
c. transport proteins
d. steroid hormones
e. digestive hormones
d. Steroid hormones
An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid.
a. proton
b. protein
c. nucleotide
d. purine
e. neutron
c. nucleotide
Which of the following best describes the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a. repeating unit of treated myofibrils
b. storage and release site for calcium ions
c. thin filaments are anchored here
d. protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
e. largely made of myosin molecules
b. Storage and release site for calcium ions
which of the following marks the boundaries of a sarcomere?
a. H bands
b. M lines
c. Z discs
d. I bands
e. A bands
c. Z discs
The plasma membrane of skeletal muscle is called the
a. sarcoplasm
b. sarcoplasmic reticulum
c. sarcosome
d. sarcomere
e. sarcolemma
e. sarcolemma
As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must __________.
a. reduce its wave summation
b. shift from isometric to isotonic contraction
c. lower its threshold
d. recruit more muscle fibers
e. shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode
d. recruit more muscle fibers
Shortening a muscle while it maintains constant tension is called __________.
a. an isometric contraction
b. an isokinetic contraction
c. incomplete tetanus
d. complete tetanus
e. an isotonic contraction
e. an isotonic contraction
The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent muscle fibers together is the
a. epimysium
b. endomysium
c. perimysium
d. superficial fascia
e. periosteum
b. endomysium
The protein that acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle is __________.
a. troponin
b. F actin
c. tropomyosin
d. dystrophin
e. titin
a. troponin
The repeating contractile unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
a. myofilament
b. sarcolemma
c. sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. sarcomere
e. myofibril
d. sarcomere
at rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
a. calcium ions
b. tropomyosin molecules
c. myosin molecules
d. ATP molecules
e. troponin molecules
b. tropomyosin molecules
what is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
a. acetycholine
b. protein
c. calcium ions
d. acetylcholinesterase
e. sarcoplasm
c. calcium ions
what physiological process occurs in the T-tubucles?
a. conduction of the action potential into the cell interior
b. activity of acetylcholinesterase
c. release of protein into the muscle fibers
d. the sliding filament theory
e. release of neurotransmitter
a. conduction of the action potential into the cell interior
Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten, the muscle fiber
a. strengthens
b. lengthens
c. shortens
d. weakens
e. there is insufficient information to determine the answer
c. shortens
When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the end plate membrane becomes
a. less permeable to sodium ions
b. more permeable to sodium ions
c. less permeable to potassium ions
d. repolarized
e. more permeable to calcium ions
b. more permeable to sodium ions
The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is
a. diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
b. active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma
c. active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft
e. diffusion of calcium out of the cell
b. active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma
Which of the following acts as an ATPase during during the contraction cycle of muscle?
a. the head portion of myosin molecule
b. tropomyosin molecules
c. troponin molecules
d. actin molecules
e. the tail portion of the myosin molecule
a. The head portion of the myosin molecule
Creatine phoshate
a. cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP
b. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
c. is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration
d. can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
b. acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine receptors at the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
a. It would produce uncontrolled muscle spasms
b. It would have little effect on skeletal muscles
c. It would make the muscles more excitable
d. It would cause spastic paralysis (muscles are contracted and unable to relax)
e. It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract)
e. It would cause flaccid paralysis (muscles are relaxed and unable to contract)
A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
a. anaerobic respiration
b. hydrolysis of creatine phosphate
c. glycogenolysis
d. aerobic metabolism
e. the tricarboxylic acid cycle
d. aerobic metabolism
Muscle fibers with large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of
a. fast fibers
b. red muscles
c. intermediate fibers
d. slow fibers
e. fatty muscles
a. Fast fibers
During activities requiring aerobic endurance
a. most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria
b. fatigue occurs in a few minutes
c. only creatine phosphate is used to produce ATP
d. oxygen is not required
e. glycogen and glycolysis are the primary sources reserve energy
a. most of the muscle's energy is produced in mitochondria.
You recently sprayed your apartment with insecticide to remove an infestation of cockroaches. In your kitchen, you noticed some roaches lying on their backs twitching furiously before they died. This aroused your curiosity, so you decide to investigate exactly how the insecticide works on the nervous system. In your research, you discover that the insecticide you used contains a permanent acetylcholinesterase AchE inhibitor which heavily reduces that activity of the enzyme and as a consequence its ability to break Acetylcholine. Exposure to high pesticide concentrations have a similar effect on humans and can be caused by exposure to the nerve gas Sarin and other chemicals.
Why idd the insecticide cause uncontrollable twitching in the roaches?
a. acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from binding to the receptor sites of the muscle fiber
b. the insecticide prevented acetylcholinesterase from being removed from the synapse
c. the insecticide exposure resulted in continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
d. the insecticide exposure resulted in prevention of the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron
e. acetylcholine was released, but the insecticide prevented it from diffusing across the synapse
c. The insecticide exposer resulted in continuous stimulation of the muscle fiber
Which of the following actions directly causes the power stroke of the muscle contraction?
a. the binding of ATP to the myosin
b. the release of Acetylcholine from the presynaptic neuron
c. the hydrolysis of ATP by the myosin head
d. the departure of ADP + Pi from the myosin head
e. the binding of calcium to troponin
d. the departure of ADP + Pi from the myosin head
slow oxidative fibers contain more _______ than do fast glycolytic fibers
a. myoglobin
b. glycogen
c. mitochondria
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
The response of a single motor unit to a single action potential in a motor neuron is called ______
a. a graded contraction
b. an isometric contraction
c. fused tetanus
d. a muscle twitch
d. a muscle twitch
What would happen if you applied ACh directly to the neuromuscular junction?
a. the presynaptic nerve terminal would depolarize
b. the muscle cell would depolarize
c. the muscle cell would hyperpolarize
d. ACh would be released from the presynaptic neuron into the synapse
e. the presynaptic nerve terminal would hyperpolarize
b. The muscle cell would depolarize
Reflexes controlled by the spinal cord involve
a. sensory output over cranial nerves to effectors
b. sensory input over cranial nerves to the spinal cord
c. sensory input to reflex centers in the brain
d. motor output over spinal nerves to effectors
e. motor input to reflex centers in the spinal cord
d. motor output over spinal nerves to effectors.
The dorsal root ganglia mainly contains
a. cell bodies of sensory neurons
b. axons of motor neurons
c. axons of sensory neurons
d. synapses
e. cell bodies of motor neurons
a. cell bodies of sensory neurons
The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the
a. dura mater
b. epidural space
c. pia mater
d. arachnoid mater
e. periosteum
a. dura mater
The white matter of the spinal cord contains
a. sensory and motor nuclei
b. bundles of dendrites with common origins, destinations, and functions
c. interneurons
d. both axons and dendrites
e. bundles of axons with common origins, destinations, and functions
e. bundles of axons with common origins, destinations, and functions
A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will
a. block autonomic regulation
b. mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense
c. lead to muscle weakness or paralysis
d. interfere with communication from one side of the spinal cord to the other
e. interfere with position sense
c. lead to muscle weakness or paralysis
Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes.
a. vegetative
b. innate
c. visceral
d. acquired
e. somatic
b. innate
_______ are chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid
a. lobes
b. nuclei
c. ventricles
d. fissures
e. gyri
c. ventricles
A dorsal and ventral root of each spinal segment unite to form a
a. cervical enlargement
b. lumbar enlargement
c. spinal nerve
d. spinal meninx
e. spinal ganglion
c. spinal nerve
Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the
a. midbrain
b. cerebellum
c. pons
d. thalamus
e. medulla oblongata
d. thalamus
Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the __________, results in slow speech, difficulty in choosing words, or use of words that only approximate the correct word.
a. Wernicke area
b. primary auditory area
c. Brocoa's area
d. cerebral lateralization
e. primary motor area
c. Broca's area
Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
a. acts as a transport medium for nutrients
b. provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
c. acts as a transport medium for waste products
d. provides buoyant support for the brain
e. provides ATP for impulse transmission
e. provides ATP for impulse transmission
Which of the following helps to protect the brain?
a. the blood-brain barrier
b. the bones of the skull
c. the cranial meninges
d. the CSF
e. all of the answers are correct
e. All of the answers are correct
The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in which region of the brain?
a. diencephalon
b. medulla oblongata
c. cerebellum
d. cerebrum
e. heart
b. Medulla Oblongata
The visual cortex is located in the
a. parietal lobe
b. insula
c. temporal lobe
d. occipital lobe
e. frontal lobe
d. occipital lobe
After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.
a. occipital
b. right temporal
c. left temporal
d. left frontal
e. right frontal
d. left frontal
All of the following are a function of the hypothalamus except
a. projecting visual information to the visual cortex
b. secreting hormones
c. coordinating day-night cycles of activity/inactivity
d. controlling autonomic centers
e. regulating body temperature
a. projecting visual information to the visual cortex
Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease?
a. cerebral crus
b. inferior colliculi
c. pons
d. substance nigra
e. tegmentum
d. Substantia nigra
Your dentist gives you an injection of anesthetic in preparation for a filling. Which cranial nerve did they target?
a. IX
b. VII
c. V
d. XII
c. V (5)
The neural tissue is isolated from the general circulation by the
a. meninges
b. blood-brain barrier
c. choroid plexuses
d. dura mater
e. arachnoid granulations
b. blood-brain barrier
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