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West Coast EMT - Block 4

Terms in this set (160)

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?
Select one:
A. Lateral impact to the spine
B. Secondary fall after the initial impact
C. Direct trauma to the spinal column
D. Energy transmission to the spine
D. Energy transmission to the spine
A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:
Select one:
A. leave her bicycle helmet on.
B. obtain baseline vital signs.
C. stabilize her entire spine.
D. inspect the helmet for cracks.
C. stabilize her entire spine.
A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then:
Select one:
A. auscultate bowel sounds.
B. assess for an exit wound.
C. apply a cervical collar.
D. obtain baseline vital signs.
B. assess for an exit wound.
According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she:
Select one:
A. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.
B. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.
C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.
D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:
Select one:
A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.
B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.
D. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor.
B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:
Select one:
A. frontal collisions.
B. rollover collisions.
C. rear-end collisions.
D. lateral collisions.
D. lateral collisions.
Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of:
Select one:
A. a fracture of the skull.
B. airway compromise.
C. intracranial bleeding.
D. spinal cord injury.
C. intracranial bleeding.
Force acting over a distance is the definition of:
Select one:
A. work.
B. latent energy.
C. kinetic energy.
D. potential energy.
A. work.
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
Select one:
A. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
B. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
C. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
D. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.
C. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.
B. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.
C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.
C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.
D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:
Select one:
A. quadruples.
B. is not affected.
C. triples.
D. doubles.
A. quadruples.
Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal?
Select one:
A. A Level I or Level II trauma center
B. Only a Level I trauma center
C. A Level IV or Level III trauma center
D. Any designated trauma center is acceptable.
A. A Level I or Level II trauma center
Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?
Select one:
A. Intrusion into the vehicle
B. Dismounted seats
C. Steering wheel deformity
D. Deployment of the air bag
D. Deployment of the air bag
Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?
Select one:
A. Flail chest
B. Forehead lacerations
C. Aortic rupture
D. Extremity fractures
C. Aortic rupture
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?
Select one:
A. Intravenous fluid administration
B. Early administration of oxygen
C. Rapid transport to a trauma center
D. Elevation of the lower extremities
C. Rapid transport to a trauma center
Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?
Select one:
A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
B. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
C. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.
C. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?
Select one:
A. Lateral and rollover
B. Frontal and rotational
C. Rotational and rollover
D. Rear-end and rotational
C. Rotational and rollover
While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced:
Select one:
A. lower extremity fractures.
B. neck and facial injuries.
C. blunt trauma to the head.
D. open abdominal trauma.
B. neck and facial injuries.
Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is:
Select one:
A. 10.
B. 11.
C. 9.
D. 8.
C. 9.
A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Preferred treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops.
B. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum.
C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.
D. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine.
C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward.
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:
Select one:
A. an aortic aneurysm.
B. acute appendicitis.
C. gastrointestinal bleeding.
D. intrathoracic hemorrhaging.
C. gastrointestinal bleeding.
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:
Select one:
A. perform a secondary assessment.
B. apply a nonrebreathing mask.
C. obtain baseline vital signs.
D. assist the patient's ventilations.
D. assist the patient's ventilations.
Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste-removal needs is termed _______.
Select one:
A. perfusion
B. hypoperfusion
C. coagulation
D. hemorrhage
A. perfusion
Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the:
Select one:
A. spleen.
B. gallbladder.
C. pancreas.
D. liver.
A. spleen.
Hypovolemic shock occurs when:
Select one:
A. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg.
B. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced.
C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.
C. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss.
If applying a dressing to control the bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should ________.
Select one:
A. apply direct pressure first
B. use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound
C. cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing
D. All of these answers are correct.
D. All of these answers are correct.
If direct pressure fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply:
Select one:
A. a splint and elevate the extremity.
B. a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
C. digital pressure to a proximal artery.
D. additional sterile dressings.
B. a tourniquet proximal to the injury.
In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be:
Select one:
A. a low blood pressure.
B. a heart rate over 120 beats/min.
C. diaphoresis and pale skin.
D. weakness or dizziness.
D. weakness or dizziness.
Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by:
Select one:
A. applying chemical ice pack.
B. keeping the patient warm.
C. applying a tourniquet.
D. splinting the extremity.
D. splinting the extremity.
Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.
Select one:
A. 10%
B. 5%
C. 20%
D. 15%
C. 20%
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. systolic blood pressure.
B. poor general appearance.
C. the mechanism of injury.
D. clinical signs and symptoms.
A. systolic blood pressure.
What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding?
Select one:
A. Clotting
B. Coagulation
C. Vasoconstriction
D. All of these answers are correct.
D. All of these answers are correct.
Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that:
Select one:
A. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding.
B. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first.
C. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control.
D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.
D. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released.
Which of the following findings would be the MOST significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding?
Select one:
A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).
B. The patient has a history of hypertension.
C. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours.
D. The patient had a stroke 5 years prior.
A. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xeralto).
Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding?
Select one:
A. Air splint
B. Cardboard splint
C. Vacuum splint
D. Sling and swathe
A. Air splint
Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct?
Select one:
A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets.
B. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting.
C. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia.
D. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
D. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously.
Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)?
Select one:
A. Brain
B. Kidneys
C. Gastrointestinal system
D. Skeletal muscle
C. Gastrointestinal system
Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues?
Select one:
A. Red blood cells
B. Platelets
C. Plasma
D. White blood cells
A. Red blood cells
Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood?
Select one:
A. Atria
B. Left
C. Right
D. Ventricles
C. Right
A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA.
Select one:
A. 27%
B. 45%
C. 18%
D. 36%
C. 18%
A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound?
Select one:
A. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing.
B. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport.
C. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position.
D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.
D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.
A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should:
Select one:
A. palpate his radial pulses.
B. administer high-flow oxygen.
C. apply ice to the hematoma.
D. perform a neurologic exam.
B. administer high-flow oxygen.
A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should:
Select one:
A. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.
B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing.
C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.
D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial.
C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing.
A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a:
Select one:
A. second-degree burn.
B. partial-thickness burn.
C. full-thickness burn.
D. superficial burn.
D. superficial burn.
A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n):
Select one:
A. contusion.
B. crush injury.
C. abrasion.
D. hematoma.
A. contusion.
An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should:
Select one:
A. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog.
B. advise the child that he will need rabies shots.
C. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.
D. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. report the incident to the appropriate authorities
As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should:
Select one:
A. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality.
B. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment.
C. open his airway and assess his breathing status.
D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.
C. open his airway and assess his breathing status.
Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because:
Select one:
A. most burns in children are the result of child abuse.
B. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.
C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood.
D. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.
B. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.
During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a:
Select one:
A. .22-caliber pistol.
B. shotgun.
C. handgun.
D. .357 magnum.
B. shotgun.
In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:
Select one:
A. an air embolism.
B. a spinal fracture.
C. an ischemic stroke.
D. nerve fiber damage.
A. an air embolism.
In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object?
Select one:
A. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen
B. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye
C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back
D. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest
C. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back
The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that:
Select one:
A. pulls the hair erect when you are cold.
B. facilitates shedding of the epidermis.
C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface.
D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.
D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
Select one:
A. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.
B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical.
D. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.
B. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin?
Select one:
A. Ears
B. Scalp
C. Back
D. Soles of the feet
A. Ears
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient?
Select one:
A. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA
B. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA
C. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA
D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA
D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA
Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss?
Select one:
A. Incision
B. Abrasion
C. Laceration
D. Avulsion
B. Abrasion
Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process?
Select one:
A. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound.
B. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection.
C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling.
D. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow.
C. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling
Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct?
Select one:
A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity.
B. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body.
C. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal.
D. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.
D. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours.
You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should:
Select one:
A. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.
B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside.
C. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one.
D. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
D. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed.
A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing:
Select one:
A. acute retinitis.
B. a detached retina.
C. conjunctivitis.
D. a corneal abrasion.
C. conjunctivitis.
A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should:
Select one:
A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.
B. use tweezers to try to remove the object.
C. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab.
D. transport her to the emergency department.
D. transport her to the emergency department.
A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should:
Select one:
A. assist ventilations with a BVM device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport.
B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.
C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.
D. fully immobilize her spine, irrigate her empty tooth sockets, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, and transport.
C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport.
A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is:
Select one:
A. requesting a paramedic ambulance.
B. careful monitoring her vital signs.
C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital.
D. quickly immobilizing her spinal column.
C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital.
A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should:
Select one:
A. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical.
B. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.
C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.
D. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport.
C. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water.
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with:
Select one:
A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point.
C. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head.
D. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs.
A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings.
Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
Select one:
A. a blowout fracture.
B. optic vessel compression.
C. a lacerated globe.
D. a ruptured eyeball.
A. a blowout fracture.
If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of ________.
Select one:
A. altered LOC
B. vomiting
C. hypotension
D. GI trauma
B. vomiting
Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n):
Select one:
A. displaced mandible.
B. spinal column injury.
C. airway obstruction.
D. basilar skull fracture.
B. spinal column injury.
The Adam's apple is:
Select one:
A. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage.
B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
C. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.
D. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages.
B. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is:
Select one:
A. damage to the eyes.
B. cervical spine injury.
C. airway compromise.
D. mandibular immobility.
C. airway compromise.
The superficial temporal artery can be palpated:
Select one:
A. just anterior to the tragus.
B. slightly above the ear.
C. at the angle of the jaw.
D. over the mastoid process.
A. just anterior to the tragus.
The upper jawbones are called the:
Select one:
A. mastoid.
B. mandible.
C. zygoma.
D. maxillae.
D. maxillae.
When a light is shone into the pupil:
Select one:
A. it should become smaller in size.
B. both pupils should dilate together.
C. it should become larger in size.
D. the opposite pupil should dilate.
A. it should become smaller in size.
When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to:
Select one:
A. wear gloves and facial protection.
B. consider the mechanism of injury.
C. manually stabilize the patient's head.
D. closely assess the patient's airway.
A. wear gloves and facial protection.
When performing a full body scan, you should assess for ________.
Select one:
A. SAMPLE
B. OPQRST
C. DCAP-BTLS
D. AVPU
C. DCAP-BTLS
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because:
Select one:
A. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.
B. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.
C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.
D. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.
C. they may need to call a specialist to see the patient.
Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct?
Select one:
A. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull.
B. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control.
C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.
D. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx.
C. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.
Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct?
Select one:
A. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.
B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.
C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost.
D. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost.
A. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost.
You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he:
Select one:
A. noticed the change during a meal.
B. regularly sees a family physician.
C. has a history of eye surgeries.
D. is allergic to any medications.
C. has a history of eye surgeries.
A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of:
Select one:
A. distraction.
B. hyperflexion.
C. axial loading.
D. hyperextension.
C. axial loading.
A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response?
Select one:
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 4
B. 3
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless:
Select one:
A. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain.
B. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.
C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
D. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard.
C. it interferes with your assessment of the airway.
An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is:
Select one:
A. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.
B. a progressively lowering blood pressure.
C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
D. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate.
C. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs.
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. CSF leakage from the ears.
B. decerebrate posturing.
C. a rapid, thready pulse.
D. widening pulse pressure.
C. a rapid, thready pulse.
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should:
Select one:
A. assist his ventilations with a BVM.
B. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.
C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
D. immobilize his spine and transport immediately.
C. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds.
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
Select one:
A. diving.
B. hangings.
C. falls.
D. compression.
B. hangings.
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion:
Select one:
A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
B. does not cause pressure within the skull.
C. usually does not cause a loss of consciousness.
D. results from a laceration to the brain tissue.
A. involves physical injury to the brain tissue.
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless:
Select one:
A. sensory and motor functions remain intact.
B. it causes a problem managing the airway.
C. lateral immobilization has been applied.
D. the patient adamantly denies neck pain.
B. it causes a problem managing the airway.
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
Select one:
A. cerebrum and meninges.
B. brain and spinal cord.
C. cerebellum and brain.
D. meninges and spinal cord.
...
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the:
Select one:
A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral.
B. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.
C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical.
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
D. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess:
Select one:
A. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status.
B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
C. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate.
D. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate.
B. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
Select one:
A. the four-person log roll.
B. the direct patient carry.
C. the use of a scoop stretcher.
D. the clothes drag.
A. the four-person log roll.
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities?
Select one:
A. Somatic
B. Autonomic
C. Sensory
D. Central
A. Somatic
When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
Select one:
A. pupillary constriction.
B. increase in heart rate.
C. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.
D. shunting of blood to vital organs.
A. pupillary constriction.
When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates:
Select one:
A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
B. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma.
C. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.
D. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.
A. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head.
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until:
Select one:
A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
B. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied.
C. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher.
D. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization.
A. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.
Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure?
Select one:
A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time
B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
C. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath
D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea
B. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea
Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct?
Select one:
A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury.
B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.
C. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.
D. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head.
B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury.
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is:
Select one:
A. irregular.
B. weak.
C. rapid.
D. slow.
D. slow.
A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to providing supplemental oxygen, you should:
Select one:
A. apply an AED and assess his BP.
B. prepare for immediate transport.
C. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.
D. determine if he has cardiac problems.
B. prepare for immediate transport.
A flail chest occurs when:
Select one:
A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
B. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage.
C. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest.
D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.
A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage.
A man called EMS 12 hours after injuring his chest. Your assessment reveals a flail segment to the right side of the chest. The patient is experiencing respiratory distress and his oxygen saturation is 78%. His breath sounds are equal bilaterally and his jugular veins are normal. You should suspect:
Select one:
A. massive hemothorax.
B. tension pneumothorax.
C. pulmonary contusion.
D. traumatic asphyxia.
C. pulmonary contusion.
A simple pneumothorax:
Select one:
A. heals on its own without any treatment.
B. often has a nontraumatic cause.
C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
D. is caused by penetrating chest trauma.
C. is commonly caused by blunt chest trauma.
A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in:
Select one:
A. immediate cardiac arrest.
B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
C. paralysis of the diaphragm.
D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles.
B. paralysis of the intercostal muscles.
An open pneumothorax occurs when:
Select one:
A. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture.
B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body.
C. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.
D. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung.
B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body.
Children are often "belly breathers" because _______.
Select one:
A. their intercostal muscles are not developed
B. they are routinely hypoxic
C. their diaphragm is not functional
D. they are consciously controlling ventilations
A. their intercostal muscles are not developed
Closed chest injuries are typically caused by _______.
Select one:
A. flying debris
B. penetrating trauma
C. blunt trauma
D. high-velocity weapons
C. blunt trauma
Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade?
Select one:
A. A rapid, irregular pulse
B. Widening pulse pressure
C. Engorged jugular veins
D. Diminished breath sounds
C. Engorged jugular veins
If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she:
Select one:
A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury.
B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
C. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply.
D. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.
B. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume.
Immediately life-threatening chest injuries must be found and managed during the _______.
Select one:
A. primary assessment
B. scene size-up
C. patient history
D. secondary assessment
A. primary assessment
In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a:
Select one:
A. cardiac tamponade.
B. pneumothorax.
C. myocardial contusion.
D. flail chest.
B. pneumothorax.
Patients with chest injuries will often present with _______.
Select one:
A. Kussmaul respirations
B. agonal respirations
C. tachypnea
D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations
C. tachypnea
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the:
Select one:
A. intercostal margin.
B. costovertebral angle.
C. diaphragm.
D. anterior rib cage.
C. diaphragm.
When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm:
Select one:
A. may rise as high as the nipple line.
B. is less prone to penetrating trauma.
C. descends below the level of the navel.
D. contracts and flattens inferiorly.
A. may rise as high as the nipple line.
Which of the following is most likely to cause immediate death?
Select one:
A. Pulmonary contusion
B. Aortic dissection
C. Myocardial contusion
D. Aortic rupture
D. Aortic rupture
While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should:
Select one:
A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.
C. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.
D. recognize that he needs a needle decompression.
A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital.
You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unresponsive, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a:
Select one:
A. pericardial tamponade.
B. laceration of the aorta.
C. massive hemothorax.
D. tension pneumothorax.
B. laceration of the aorta.
You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should:
Select one:
A. begin ventilatory assistance.
B. partially remove the dressing.
C. call for a paramedic ambulance.
D. begin rapid transport at once.
B. partially remove the dressing.
You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should:
Select one:
A. perform a focused secondary exam.
B. insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C. immediately request ALS support.
D. obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
C. immediately request ALS support.
A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes:
Select one:
A. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings.
B. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.
C. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication.
D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
D. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing.
Abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever are most likely due to _______.
Select one:
A. hemorrhage
B. hypovolemia
C. infection
D. evisceration
C. infection
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT the:
Select one:
A. ureters.
B. spleen.
C. bladder.
D. stomach.
B. spleen.
Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine:
Select one:
A. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.
B. the EMT must perform a thorough exam.
C. vital signs should be monitored frequently.
D. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
D. prompt transport to the hospital is essential.
Compression injury is most likely due to which of the following?
Select one:
A. Hollow-organ rupture
B. Improperly placed lab belt
C. Stabbing
D. Ejection of unrestrained driver
B. Improperly placed lab belt
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured:
Select one:
A. aorta.
B. spleen.
C. stomach.
D. diaphragm.
D. diaphragm.
In pediatric patients, the liver and spleen are _______.
Select one:
A. more protected by the thorax compared to adults
B. larger in proportion to the abdomen
C. less likely to bleed when injured
D. smaller in proportion to the abdomen
B. larger in proportion to the abdomen
Injuries to the external male genitalia _______.
Select one:
A. frequently lead to hypovolemic shock
B. are rarely life-threatening
C. usually result in permanent damage
D. are often life-threatening
B. are rarely life-threatening
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
Select one:
A. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.
B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.
C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.
C. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen:
Select one:
A. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.
B. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock.
C. the abdomen will become instantly distended.
D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
D. peritonitis may not develop for several hours.
When a patient stiffens the muscles of the abdomen, it is known as _______.
Select one:
A. guarding.
B. distention.
C. crepitus.
D. instability.
A. guarding.
When should you visually inspect the external genitalia on your patient?
Select one:
A. Only when ordered by medical direction
B. Anytime the patient agrees to treatment and transport
C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury
D. Always during the secondary assessment
C. Only when there is a complaint of severe pain or other injury
Which of the following is true regarding injury to the kidneys?
Select one:
A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.
B. Only minimal force is needed to damage the kidneys.
C. The kidneys are not well protected.
D. Kidney injuries are rarely caused by blunt trauma.
A. Injury to the kidneys usually indicates injury to other organs.
Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured?
Select one:
A. Bladder
B. Stomach
C. Liver
D. Intestine
C. Liver
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
Select one:
A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant.
B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
C. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should:
Select one:
A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed.
B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
C. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min.
D. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status.
B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a BVM.
You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should:
Select one:
A. begin documenting the call on the patient care form.
B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment.
C. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.
D. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
D. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently.
You should suspect a kidney injury anytime the patient presents with _______.
Select one:
A. abdominal distention
B. nausea
C. dyspnea
D. a hematoma in the flank region
D. a hematoma in the flank region
Your documentation on a sexual assault victim should _______.
Select one:
A. describe the status of the suspect(s)
B. be objective and factual
C. include your opinion of the nature of the incident
D. be subjective and summarize the crime
B. be objective and factual
Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should:
Select one:
A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings.
B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
C. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport.
D. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient.
B. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.
A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the:
Select one:
A. pubic symphysis.
B. femoral shaft.
C. proximal femur.
D. pelvic girdle.
C. proximal femur.
A 17-year-old female dislocated her patella while playing soccer. Her knee is flexed and she complains of severe pain. You should:
Select one:
A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.
B. flex her knee slightly more and assess for distal circulation.
C. gently straighten her knee and apply a padded board splint.
D. make one attempt to return the patella to its normal position.
A. keep her knee flexed and secure it with padded board splints.
A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should:
Select one:
A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment.
C. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs.
D. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations.
A. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.
A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:
Select one:
A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
B. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
D. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
A. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n):
Select one:
A. break in the continuity of the bone.
B. abnormality in the structure of a bone.
C. total loss of function in a bone.
D. disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
A. break in the continuity of the bone.
A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the:
Select one:
A. olecranon process.
B. radial head.
C. proximal radius.
D. distal humerus.
D. distal humerus.
An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which:
Select one:
A. a large laceration overlies the fracture.
B. bone ends protrude through the skin.
C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone.
D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.
Crepitus and false motion are:
Select one:
A. only seen with open fractures.
B. indicators of a severe sprain.
C. most common with dislocations.
D. positive indicators of a fracture.
D. positive indicators of a fracture.
During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should:
Select one:
A. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints.
B. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.
C. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately.
D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
D. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse.
During your secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25 feet, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should:
Select one:
A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
B. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once.
C. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis.
D. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center.
A. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine.
In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless:
Select one:
A. the patient is clinically unstable.
B. transport time is less than 15 minutes.
C. deformity and swelling are present.
D. the patient is in severe pain.
A. the patient is clinically unstable.
In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity?
Select one:
A. When distal circulation and neurological functions are absent
B. If transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes
C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
D. If a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity
C. If resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain
Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike, fibrous structures called:
Select one:
A. ligaments.
B. fascia.
C. tendons.
D. cartilage.
C. tendons.
The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is:
Select one:
A. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature.
B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
C. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site.
D. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain.
B. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.
The musculoskeletal system refers to the:
Select one:
A. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.
B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
C. nervous system's control over the muscles.
D. connective tissue that supports the skeleton.
B. bones and voluntary muscles of the body.
When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should:
Select one:

B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back.
C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back.
D. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.
A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems.
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity?
Select one:
A. Displaced fracture
B. Moderate sprain
C. Hairline fracture
D. Severe strain
A. Displaced fracture
Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life?
Select one:
A. Nondisplaced long bone fractures
B. An amputated extremity
C. Pelvic fracture with hypotension
D. Bilateral femur fractures
C. Pelvic fracture with hypotension
Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct?
Select one:
A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity.
C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury.
D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.
A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury.
With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the:
Select one:
A. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.
B. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact.
C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
D. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted.
C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury.
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